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070-487 dumps
QUESTION 1
You need to separate the business and complex logic into components.
Which actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. In the JavaScript code, register the handler for the extension/mime-type.
B. In the package.appxmanifest file, create an Extensions section and register the component .dll file.
C. In Windows Explorer, drag the component .dll file to the project bin directory.
D. In Microsoft Visual Studio Solution Explorer, right-click the References folder and then click Scope to This.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 2
You need to enable debugging on the Personal Trainer app.
Which JavaScript project properties should you set? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution Choose all that apply.)
A. Set Allow Local Network Loopback to No.
B. Set Debugger Type to Script Only.
C. Set Debugger Type to Managed Only.
D. Set Debugger to launch to Local Machine.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 3
You need to validate whether the additional video recording functionality for the Client app is supported.
Which code segment should you insert at line VD05?
A. var canPan = mediaCaptureSettings.pan.capabilities.supported;
B. var canPan = videoDev.pan.capabilities.supported;
C. var canTilt = videoDev.getDeviceProperty(“tilt”);
D. var canTilt = videoEev.getDeviceProperty(“tilt supported”);
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
You need to implement the audit log. 70-487 dumps
What should you do?
A. When the user moves the device, create a Windows Event Log entry.
B. When the user moves the device, create a custom log file entry.
C. When the user touches a button, create a Windows Event Log entry.
D. When the user touches a button, create a custom log file entry.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
You need to handle the exception error in the clientData.js file.
What should you do?
A. Modify the display function to handle the error.
B. Insert a try statement immediately after line CD07 and a catch block immediately before line CD14. Handle the error in the catch block.
C. Modify the processError function to handle the error.
D. Insert a try statement immediately after line CD01 and a catch block immediately before line CD15. Handle the error in the catch block.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
You need to prevent the device-specific tilting exception.
What should you do in the video.js file?
A. Insert a try statement immediately after line VD01 and a catch block immediately before line VD08. Handle the VideoNotFound exception.
B. Evaluate the canTilt variable. If true, bypass the code that tilts the camera.
C. Evaluate the canTilt variable. If false, bypass the code that tilts the camera.
D. Insert a try statement immediately after line VD01 and a catch block immediately before line VD08. Handle the MediaNotFound exception.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
the data is synced, all changes need to be merged together without causing any data loss or corruption.
You need to implement the Sync() method in the MargiesTravelSync.es file.
What should you do? (To answer, drag the appropriate code segments to the correct location or locations in the answer area. Each code segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)
Select and Place:
070-487 dumps
Correct Answer:
070-487 dumps
QUESTION 8
You need to complete the code to start the background task.
Which code segment should you insert at line BG07?
A. Windows.ApplicationModel.Background.SystemTriggerType.connectedStateChange, true
B. Windows.ApplicationModel.Background.SystemTriggerType.networkStateChange, false
C. Windows.ApplicationModel.Background.SystemTriggerType.sessionConnected, true
D. Windows.ApplicationModel.Background.SystemTriggerType.internetAvailable, false
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
You need to identify the required camera specifications. 070-487 dumps
Which code segment should you insert at line VD06?
A. var maxZoom = videoDev.zoom.capabilities.max;
B. var cameraType = videoDev.extendedZoomProperties(“cameraType”);
C. var cameraZoom = videoDev.zoom;
D. var minZoom = mediaCaptureSettings.min.millimeters;
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
You need to attach the background task.
Which code segment should you insert at line BG09?
A. var task = builder.register( );
B. var task = Windows. ApplicationModel.Background.BackgroundTaskBuilder.insert (builder);
C. var task: = Windows.ApplicationModel.Background.BackgroundTaskBuilder.insert (builder, this);
D. var task = builder.setTrigger ( );
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
You need to resolve the issue of unavailable obstacle data.
What should you do?
A. Store the obstacle data in cloud storage.
B. Download the obstacles database when the app is installed, and update the database when the app is updated.
C. Store the obstacle data in indexDB storage.
D. Store the obstacle data in the SessionStorage object.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
You need to prevent the exception that is being thrown by the findCamera( ) method.
What should you do?
A. Check the devices collection for multiple devices.
B. Place a try block immediately after line VD12 and a catch block immediately before line VD17. In the catch block, display the message property of the exception object to the user.
C. In line VD10, set the cameraID variable to null.
D. Check the devices collection for null before setting the cameraID variable.
Correct Answer: D

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Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: Microsoft Office 365
Exam Name: Enabling Office 365 Services
Exam Code: 070-347
Total Questions: 219 Q&As
070-347 dumps
QUESTION 1
Your company has an Office 365 Small Business subscription. You are the Microsoft SharePoint Online administrator. The company wants to have two separate public websites with different URLs. You need to configure the environment to support the public websites.
What should you do?
A. Upgrade to SharePoint Online for Office 365 Enterprise, Education, and Government.
B. Create one public website and one subsite, and then configure a redirect.
C. Create two public websites and configure the DNS records for each site.
D. Upgrade to SharePoint Online for Office 365 Midsize Business.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. Executive employees have been assigned E3 licenses. Non-executive employees have been assigned El licenses. An employee who is not on the executive team wants to communicate with executive team members by using Microsoft Lync instant messaging.
You need to ensure that the employee can use Lync.
What should you do?
A. Sign in to the Office 365 portal and use Office on Demand.
B. Sign in to the Office 365 portal and then run the Office 365 Desktop Setup.
C. Sign in to the Office 365 portal and then download and install Office 365 ProPlus.
D. Sign in to the Office 365 portal and then download and install the Lync Basic desktop client.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Your company plans to use Office 365 and Microsoft SharePoint Online. Another employee provisions the company’s Office 365 tenant. You discover that the employee can create and manage SharePoint site collections. You need to prevent the employee from creating or managing site collections.
From which role should you remove the employee?
A. Service administrator
B. SharePoint Online administrator
C. Global administrator
D. Site collection administrator
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. The company’s environment includes Office 2007, Office 2010, Office 2013, Windows 7, and Windows 8.The company uses Office Telemetry. 070-347 dumps You need to collect Office version usage data for an upcoming migration to Office 365 ProPlus.
What should you do?
A. Open documents by using Office 2007, Office 2010, or Office 2013 on client computers that run Windows 7.
B. Use the Get-MsolUsercmdlet with the ServiceStatus parameter.
C. Search network shares for Office documents and export the results to a .log file.
D. Search local computers for Office documents and export the results to a .csv file.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company’s Microsoft Exchange Online environment. The company recently subscribed to the Office 365 Enterprise El plan.
The company wants to filter email messages based on the following criteria:
– Reverse DNS lookup
– Sender open proxy test
– HELO/EHLO analysis
– Analysis of spam confidence level (SCL) ratings on email messages from a specific sender
You need to filter all email messages.
How should you complete the relevant Windows PowerShell script? To answer, select the appropriate command segment from each list in the answer area.
070-347 dumps
070-347 dumps
Correct Answer:
070-347 dumps
QUESTION 6
Your company is planning to migrate to Microsoft Exchange Online. The company employs 5,000 people, each with a mailbox currently located on Exchange Server 2000.
The company has the following migration requirements:
– Move mailboxes in batches.
– Do not migrate calendar or contact items.
– Provide migration status reports to administrators.
You need to select the appropriate migration strategy.
Which migration strategy should you use?
A. Staged migration
B. Cutover migration
C. IMAP migration
D. Hybrid migration
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Your company uses Office 365 and has an Enterprise E3 license plan. Employees are issued laptop computers that are configured with a standard image. The image includes an installation of Office 365 ProPlus that must be activated by the employees. An employee recently received a new laptop computer to replace an older laptop. The older laptop will be reimaged. When the employee attempts to start Word for the first time, she receives a message saying that she cannot activate it because she has already activated five devices. You need to help the employee activate Office on her new laptop computer.
What should you do?
A. Assign a second E3 license to the employee.
B. Remove the employee’s E3 license and then assign a new E3 license.
C. Sign in to the Office 365 portal as the employee and deactivate the old laptop.
D. Sign in to the Office 365 portal by using your Global Admin account and then deactivate the old laptop.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Your company uses Microsoft SharePoint Online for collaboration. 070-347 dumps
A document library is configured as shown in the following table.
070-347 dumps
You need to enable the coauthoring of documents in the library.
What should you do?
A. Change the Who should see draft items in this document library? setting to Any user who can read items.
B. Change the Create a version each time you edit a file in this document library? setting to No Versioning.
C. Change the Require documents to be checked out before they can be edited? setting to No.
D. Change the Require content approval for submitted items? setting to No.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Your company has an Office 365 Enterprise El subscription. The company wants to implement an enterprise document collaboration and social networking platform that allows users to upload documents from their computers and conduct informal polls. You need to implement a solution that meets the requirements.
Which solution should you implement?
A. Microsoft SharePoint document libraries
B. Microsoft SharePoint surveys
C. Microsoft Yammer
D. Microsoft SharePoint newsfeeds
E. Microsoft SkyDrive Pro
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. All users have been assigned E3 licenses and use Office Web Apps to create and edit documents. A user attempts to access documents stored on a USB flash drive. When the user double-clicks a file that is stored on the USB flash drive, an error message states that Windows can’t open the file and needs to know what program to use to open it. You need to ensure that the user can start Office applications and edit Office documents by double-clicking files.
What should you do on the user’s computer?
A. Use Office on Demand.
B. Install Office 365 ProPlus from the Office 365 portal.
C. Copy the files from the USB flash drive to the local hard drive.
D. Install and configure Microsoft Word Viewer.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. The company has a single Active Directory Domain Services domain. 70-347 dumps As part of the Office 365 deployment, the company is preparing to deploy Office Telemetry. You need to disguise file names and document titles, while still collecting the telemetry data.
What should you do?
A. In the Telemetry Dashboard, display only files that are used by multiple users.
B. On each client computer, edit the registry to prevent telemetry logging.
C. In the Telemetry Dashboard, obfuscate the document name, title, and path.
D. In the Telemetry Dashboard, apply a label named Private to employees.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Your company uses Office 365 and has an Enterprise E3 plan. The company has a Microsoft SharePoint Online public website that is currently configured to use the onmicrosoft.com domain name.
The company purchases a new domain name. You need to change the address of the SharePoint Online public website to the new domain name.
What should you do first?
A. In the SharePoint Online Administration Center, add the new domain.
B. In the Office 365 admin center, add the new domain.
C. Create a new site collection and assign it the new domain.
D. Create a new public website and assign it to the new domain.
Correct Answer: B

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCDP
Exam Name: Designing Cisco Network Service Architectures
Exam Code: 300-320
Total Questions: 415 Q&As
300-320 dumps
QUESTION 1
A network design engineer has been asked to reduce the size of the SPT on an IS-IS broadcast network.
Which option should the engineer recommend to accomplish this task?
A. Configure the links as point-to-multipoint.
B. Configure QoS in all links.
C. Configure a new NET address.
D. Configure the links as point-to-point.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which option describes why duplicate IP addresses reside on the same network in Cisco network design?
A. HSRP designed network
B. using Cisco ACE in active/passive mode
C. VRRP designed network
D. running multiple routing protocols
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which option describes why duplicate IP addresses reside on the same network in Cisco network design?
A. HSRP designed network
B. using Cisco ACE in active/passive mode
C. VRRP designed network
D. running multiple routing protocols
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which two benefits are achieved if a network is designed properly with a structured addressing scheme? 300-320 dumps (Choose two.)
A. efficient ACLs
B. improved redundancy
C. hardened security
D. easier troubleshooting
E. added resiliency
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 5
Which protocol should be configured if a network administrator wants to configure multiple physical gateways to participate simultaneously in packet forwarding?
A. HSRP
B. VRRP
C. GLBP
D. VTP
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
300-320 dumps
Select and Place:
300-320 dumps
Correct Answer:
300-320 dumps
QUESTION 7
Which two types of authentication mechanisms can be used by VRRP for security? (Choose two.)
A. SHA-1
B. MD5
C. SHA-256
D. plaintext authentication
E. PEAP
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 8
Which Layer 2 messaging protocol maintains VLAN configuration consistency?
A. VTP
B. VSS
C. LLDP
D. CDP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which two options are storage topologies? 300-320 dumps (Choose two.)
A. WAS
B. DAS
C. CAS
D. NAS
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 10
Which algorithm does IS-IS use to determine the shortest path through a network?
A. Bellman-Ford routing algorithm
B. Johnson’s algorithm
C. Dijkstra’s algorithm
D. Floyd-Warshall algorithm
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Which two physical components can enable high availability on a Cisco 6500 device? (Choose two.)
A. dual supervisor modules
B. bundled Ethernet Interconnects
C. line modules with DFCs
D. redundant power supplies
E. VSS interlink cables
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 12
A company implemented VoIP in a campus network and now wants a consistent method to implement using AutoQoS. Which two parameters must be considered before AutoQoS is configured? (Choose two.)
A. CEF must be enabled.
B. AutoQoS is available only on routers.
C. Traffic discovery must be performed manually.
D. No service policy can be applied already.
E. Manual traffic analysis must be performed.
Correct Answer: AD

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNA Cyber Ops
Exam Name: Understanding Cisco Cybersecurity Fundamentals
Exam Code: 210-250
Total Questions: 80 Q&As
210-250 dumps
QUESTION 1
Which statement indicates something that can cause an inbound PSTN call to an H.323 gateway that is configured in Cisco Unified Communications Manager to fail to ring an IP phone?
A. The gateway is not registered in Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
B. The gateway IP address that is configured in Cisco Unified Communications Manager does not match the IP address that is configured at the gateway in the h323-gateway voip bind srcaddr command.
C. The Cisco Unified Communications Manager does not have a matching route pattern to match the called number.
D. The gateway is missing the command allow-connections h323 to h323 under the voice service voip configuration.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
In a SAF deployment, the registration status looks correct and the learned patterns appear reachable, but calls are not routed. What is causing this issue?
A. network connection failure between the SAF Forwarder and Cisco Unified Communications Manager
B. network connection failure between the primary and backup SAF Forwarders
C. TCP connection failure with the primary SAF Forwarder
D. TCP connection failure with the backup SAF Forwarder
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which two statements indicate something that can cause an IP phone to fail roaming when device mobility has been configured?
(Choose two.)
A. Device Mobility Mode is set to Off in the Cisco Unified Communications Manager service parameters while the device mobility configuration on the phone is set to default.
B. No device mobility groups have been configured.
C. No locations have been configured and assigned to the device pools.
D. No physical locations have been configured and assigned to the device pools.
E. No device mobility-related information settings were configured under the device pools.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 4
You enabled Cisco Unified Mobile Connect for a user, but the user is unable to send calls to a mobile phone from the desk phone. 210-250 dumps What do you do to resolve the issue?
A. Restart the phone, and verify that the key is present.
B. Under User Management > User, make sure that the Mobility option is selected.
C. Make sure that the phone is subscribed to Extension Mobility.
D. Add the mobility key to the softkey template that the phone is currently using.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Which statement is correct regarding Media Redundancy Protocol (MRP) in a ring of ProfiNET devices?
A. When a link fault is detected, MRP rings must converge in less than 100 milliseconds
B. MRP defines two device roles, Media Redundancy Master and Media Redundancy Client
C. MRP can support rings of up to 250 devices
D. MRP is only supported on network switches
Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Which statement is true concerning the data center access layer design?
A. The access layer in the data center is typically built at Layer 3, which allows for better sharing of services across multiple servers.
B. With Layer 2 access, the default gateway for the servers can be configured at the access or aggregation layer.
C. A dual-homing NIC requires a VLAN or trunk between the two access switches to support the dual IP addresses on the two server links to two separate switches.
D. The access layer is normally not required, as dual homing is standard from the servers to the aggregation layer.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which CLI command monitors ILS replication progress?
A. utils ils findxnode
B. utils ils show peer info
C. utils ils showpeerinfo
D. utils ils lookup
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
VLAN 3 is not yet configured on your switch. What happens if you set the switchport access vlan 3 command in interface configuration mode?
A. The command is rejected.
B. The port turns amber.
C. The command is accepted and the respective VLAN is added to vlan.dat.
D. The command is accepted and you must configure the VLAN manually.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
A dynamically routed private line and a statically routed IPsec tunnel connect two offices. What routing configuration prefers the IPsec tunnel only in the event of a private line failure?
A. floating static entry
B. EIGRP variance
C. bandwidth metric
D. OSPF maximum paths
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Cisco Unified Mobile Connect has been enabled, but users are not able to switch an in-progress call from their mobile phone to their desk phone. 210-250 dumps You find out that the Resume softkey option does not appear on the desk phone after users hang up the call on their mobile phone. What do you do to resolve this issue?
A. Issue the progress_ind progress disable command in the gateway.
B. Issue the voice call disc-pi-off command in the gateway.
C. Enable mobile connect on the user profile.
D. Assign Resume softkey on the desk phone.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
When a user attempts to log out from Cisco Extension Mobility service by pressing the services button and selecting the Cisco Extension Mobility service, the user is not able to log out. What is causing this issue?
A. The Cisco Extension Mobility service has not been configured on the phone.
B. The user device profile is not subscribed to the Cisco Extension Mobility service.
C. The CTI service is not running.
D. The logout URL that is defined for the Cisco Extension Mobility service is incorrect or does not exist under the IP Phone Services configuration.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
During a business-to-business video call through the Cisco Expressway solution, the internal endpoint can call out to the remote endpoint on the Internet, but it does not receive audio or video. The remote endpoint receives both audio and video. What is causing the issue?
A. The Cisco Expressway does not have a Rich Media Session license.
B. The firewall is blocking SIP signaling.
C. The Cisco Unified Communications Manager is not configured for business-to-business calling.
D. The firewall is blocking inbound RTP ports.
E. The Advanced Networking option is not installed on the Expressway Edge.
Correct Answer: D

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Vendor: Citrix
Certifications: CCA
Exam Name: Citrix XenServer 6.0 Administration
Exam Code: 1Y0-A26
Total Questions: 125 Q&As
1Y0-A26 dumps
QUESTION 1
Scenario: An administrator CANNOT use the PXE boot method with the Provisioning services environment because of network limitations. The target devices are running on a XenServer host. How can the administrator configure the target devices to start up using Provisioning services?
A. Configure the BIOS bootstrap on the server.
B. Edit the bootstrap file on the provisioning server.
C. Set the target device to start up from the hard disk.
D. Create a bootstrap disk with Boot Device Manager.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
An administrator needs to reconfigure the stream server boot list following a server failure. How could the administrator ensure the replacement server is included in the stream server boot list?
A. Restart the Stream Service.
B. Enable Automatic vDisk updates.
C. Update the target device “Boot From” setting.
D. Add the IP address of the new server to the ARDBP32.bin file.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which item in the Provisioning Services Console will the administrator need to configure to delete a machine account from the Active Directory domain?
A. Farm
B. vDisk
C. Server
D. Target Device
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Scenario: An administrator is installing Provisioning services on a new server. DHCP and PXE servers are already configured. 1Y0-A26 dumps Which option must the administrator select during the initial Provisioning services configuration to configure the PXE Service?
A. Microsoft DHCP
B. Other BOOTP or DHCP Service
C. Provisioning services BOOTP Service
D. The service that runs on another computer
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Scenario: An administrator needs to change the pool master to prepare for maintenance activities during the evening. High availability is currently enabled. Using the XenCenter Console, what must the administrator do to change the pool master?
A. Disable high availability.
B. Configure workload balancing.
C. Enable virtual machine protection policy.
D. Enter maintenance mode on the pool master.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Which item in the Provisioning Services Console will the administrator need to configure to add a machine account from the Active Directory domain?
A. Farm
B. vDisk
C. Server
D. Target Device
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
An administrator configured a Provisioning services environment that consists of three provisioning servers for use with the DHCP/PXE boot process. To configure the stream server boot list, the administrator needs to add the IP address in order to include the three provisioning servers. (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)
A. of each server to the ARDBP32.BIN file
B. and the name of each server in the lmhosts file
C. of each server in the TFTP options of the DHCP server
D. and the name of each server in the hosts file on all of the provisioning servers
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Scenario: An administrator has to configure a small scale, isolated Provisioning services test environment. The administrator has placed a non-Microsoft DHCP server on the same server as Provisioning services, which is running the PXE Service. Which DHCP option must the administrator configure to enable PXE functionality?
A. 60
B. 64
C. 66
D. 67
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Scenario: An administrator is installing Provisioning services which uses PXE for starting virtual machines. DHCP is installed and configured in the environment. What additional component is required for the PXE environment to start a virtual machine?
A. TFTP
B. BootP
C. SOAP Service
D. Boot Device Manager
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
An administrator needs to configure a Provisioning services environment for Microsoft volume license management. 1Y0-A26 dumps Which properties could the administrator configure to accomplish this task?
A. Farm
B. vDisk
C. Server
D. Target device
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Scenario: An administrator configures a bootstrap file with the Manage Boot Devices Utility. The administrator wants to make sure that the target devices in use start successfully. These target devices use drivers that have several timing and startup
issues. Which option must the administrator select during the creation of the bootstrap file to correct these issues?
A. Verbose Mode
B. Interrupt Safe Mode
C. Network Recovery Method
D. Advanced Memory Support
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
An administrator notices that the target device is NOT starting from a newly created vDisk, but other target devices using different vDisks are working. Which action can the administrator take to correct this issue?
A. Restart the Stream Service.
B. Enable streaming on the vDisk.
C. Reset the Active Directory machine account password.
D. Change the vDisk access mode to Private Image mode.
Correct Answer: B

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Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: MCSD
Exam Name: Developing Mobile Apps
Exam Code: 70-357
Total Questions: 66 Q&As
70-347 dumps
QUESTION 1
You have an on-premises Exchange 2010 organization. All clients use Outlook 2007 SP1. You enable online archive mailboxes in Exchange Online for several users.
The users are unable to access the online archive mailboxes in Microsoft Outlook.
You need to ensure that users can access the online archive mailboxes in Outlook.
What should you do?
A. Apply Outlook 2007 SP2 and all related updates.
B. In the Office 365 admin center, add the users to the Global Administrators group.
C. Instruct the users to access the online archive mailboxes by using Outlook Web App.
D. Delete and recreate the users’ Outlook profiles.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Your company purchases an Office 365 plan. The company has an Active Directory Domain Services domain.
User1 must manage Office 365 delegation for the company.
You need to ensure that User1 can assign administrative roles to other users.
What should you do?
A. Use a password administrator account to assign the role to User1.
B. Use a user management administrator account to assign the role to User1.
C. Create an Office 365 tenant and assign User1 the global administrator role.
D. Create an Office 365 tenant and assign User1 the password administrator role.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Your company decides to migrate all users to Office 365.
As part of the migration, Office 365 ProPlus will be installed on all client computers and the company will use Office Telemetry. You need to produce a report that contains the information collected by Office Telemetry.
Which three types of information can you include in the report? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Information about files that are not in the Most Recently Used list
B. The names of add-ins and solutions that interact with Office
C. The file names of Office files that are in the Most Recently Used list
D. System information such as user name and computer name
E. The contents of all files that are in the Most Recently Used list
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 4
Your company has an Office 365 Small Business subscription. You are the Microsoft SharePoint Online administrator. 70-357 dumps
The company wants to have two se
70-357 dumps
QUESTION 5
An organization prepares to implement Office 365.
You have the following requirements:
Gather information about the requirements for the Office 365 implementation. Use a supported tool that provides the most comprehensive information about the current environment.
You need to determine the organization’s readiness for the Office 365 implementation.
What should you do?
A. Run the Windows PowerShell cmdlet Get-MsolCompanylnformation.
B. Run the OnRamp for Office 365 tool.
C. Install the Windows Azure Active Directory Sync tool.
D. Run the Office 365 Deployment Readiness Tool.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
A company is planning to upgrade from SharePoint 2010 to SharePoint 2013.
You need to find out the web traffic capacity of the SharePoint farm by using a Microsoft Visual Studio Team System project file.
Which tool should you use?
A. Network Monitor
B. SharePoint Health Analyzer
C. SharePoint Diagnostic Studio
D. Load Testing Kit (LTK)
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Your company has a hybrid deployment of Office 365. You need to verify whether free/busy information sharing with external users is configured.
Which Windows PowerShell cmdlet should you use?
A. Test-OutlookConnectivity
B. Test-FederationTrust
C. Get-OrganizationRelationship
D. Get-MSOLDomainFederationSettings
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
An organization plans to migrate to Office 365. You use Azure AD Connect.
Several users will not migrate to Office 365. You must exclude these users from synchronization. All users must continue to authenticate against the on-premises Active Directory.
You need to synchronize the remaining users.
Which three actions should you perform to ensure users excluded from migration are not synchornized? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Run the Windows PowerShell command Set-MsolDirSyncEnabled -EnableDirSync $false
B. Perform a full synchronization.
C. Populate an attribute for each user account.
D. Configure the connection filter.
E. Disable the user accounts in Active Directory.
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 9
An organization migrates to Office 365.
The Office 365 administrator must be notified when Office 365 maintenance activities are planned.
You need to configure the administrator’s computer to receive the notifications.
What should you configure?
A. Office 365 Management Pack for System Center Operations Manager
B. Service requests
C. Service health page
D. Office 365 Service Health RSS Notifications feed
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
You are the Office 365 administrator for Contoso, Ltd.
Some email messages sent from the trusted domain fabrikam.com are being rejected as spam. 70-357 dumps Some of these email messages originate inside the fabnkam.com network, and some of them originate from an application in the fabrikam.com co-located data center.
The fabrikam.com systems administrators have asked you to add their domain and the IP addresses of the data center that hosts their external application to your list of safe senders.
You need to configure Microsoft Exchange Online Protection.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Configure a content filter to allow the fabrikam.com domain.
B. Configure a mail flow rule to bypass spam filtering for the data center IP address range.
C. Create a connection filter to allow the data center IP address range.
D. Add the fabrikam.com domain as an accepted domain.
E. Create an inbound connector for the fabrikam.com domain.
F. Configure a mail flow rule to bypass spam filtering for the fabrikam.com domain.
Correct Answer: CF

QUESTION 11
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company.
The company requests that you implement a document collaboration and social networking solution thatmeets the following requirements:
Users must be able to join groups to receive project updates.
Any user must be able to post an event.
You need to implement a solution.
Which solution should you implement?
A. Microsoft SharePoint document libraries
B. Microsoft Yammer
C. Microsoft SkyDrive Pro
D. Microsoft SharePoint newsfeeds
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
A company plans to deploy an Office 365 tenant. You have two servers named FS1 and FS2 that have the Federation Service Proxy role service installed.
You must deploy Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) on Windows Server 2012.
You need to configure name resolution for FS1 and FS2.
What should you do?
A. On FS1 and FS2, add the cluster DNS name and IP address of the federation server farm to the hosts file.
B. On FS1 only, add the cluster DNS name and IP address of the federation server farm to the hosts file.
C. On FS1 only, add the cluster NetBIOS name and IP address of the federation server farm to the LMHOSTS file.
D. On FS1 and FS2, add the cluster NetBIOS name and IP address of the federation server farm to the LMHOSTS file.
Correct Answer: A

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Vendor: Fortinet
Certifications: Troubleshooting Professional
Exam Name: Fortinet Troubleshooting Professional
Exam Code: NSE7
Total Questions: 30 Q&As
NSE7 dumps
QUESTION 1
A client can create a secure connection to a FortiGate device using SSL VPN in web-only mode.
Which one of the following statements is correct regarding the use of web-only mode SSL VPN?
A. Web-only mode supports SSL version 3 only.
B. A Fortinet-supplied plug-in is required on the web client to use web-only mode SSL VPN.
C. Web-only mode requires the user to have a web browser that supports 64-bit cipher length.
D. The JAVA run-time environment must be installed on the client to be able to connect to a webonly mode SSL VPN.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
An administrator wants to assign a set of UTM features to a group of users. Which of the following is the correct method for doing this?
A. Enable a set of unique UTM profiles under “Edit User Group”.
B. The administrator must enable the UTM profiles in an identity-based policy applicable to the user group.
C. When defining the UTM objects, the administrator must list the user groups which will use the UTM object.
D. The administrator must apply the UTM features directly to a user object.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
A client can establish a secure connection to a corporate network using SSL VPN in tunnel mode.
Which of the following statements are correct regarding the use of tunnel mode SSL VPN? NSE7 dumps (Select all that apply.)
A. Split tunneling can be enabled when using tunnel mode SSL VPN.
B. Client software is required to be able to use a tunnel mode SSL VPN.
C. Users attempting to create a tunnel mode SSL VPN connection must be authenticated by at least one SSL VPN policy.
D. The source IP address used by the client for the tunnel mode SSL VPN is assigned by the FortiGate unit.
Correct Answer: A,B,C,D

QUESTION 4
Which of the following pieces of information can be included in the Destination Address field of a firewall policy? (Select all that apply.)
A. An IP address pool.
B. A virtual IP address.
C. An actual IP address or an IP address group.
D. An FQDN or Geographic value(s).
Correct Answer: B,C,D

QUESTION 5
In NAT/Route mode when there is no matching firewall policy for traffic to be forwarded by the Firewall, which of the following statements describes the action taken on traffic?
A. The traffic is blocked.
B. The traffic is passed.
C. The traffic is passed and logged.
D. The traffic is blocked and logged.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
An end user logs into the full-access SSL VPN portal and selects the Tunnel Mode option by clicking on the “Connect” button. The administrator has enabled split tunneling.
NSE7 dumps
Given that the user authenticates against the SSL VPN policy shown in the image below, NSE7 dumps which statement below identifies the route that is added to the client’s routing table.
A. A route to destination matching the ‘WIN2K3’ address object.
B. A route to the destination matching the ‘all’ address object.
C. A default route.
D. No route is added.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
How is traffic routed onto an SSL VPN tunnel from the FortiGate unit side?
A. A static route must be configured by the administrator using the ssl.root interface as the outgoing interface.
B. Assignment of an IP address to the client causes a host route to be added to the FortiGate unit’s kernel routing table.
C. A route back to the SSLVPN IP pool is automatically created on the FortiGate unit.
D. The FortiGate unit adds a route based upon the destination address in the SSL VPN firewall policy.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Which of the following antivirus and attack definition update options are supported by FortiGate units? (Select all that apply.)
A. Manual update by downloading the signatures from the support site.
B. Pull updates from the FortiGate device
C. Push updates from the FortiGuard Distribution Network.
D. ”update-AV/AS” command from the CLI
Correct Answer: A,B,C

QUESTION 9
When firewall policy authentication is enabled, only traffic on supported protocols will trigger an authentication challenge.
Select all supported protocols from the following:
A. SMTP
B. SSH
C. HTTP
D. FTP
E. SCP
Correct Answer: C,D

QUESTION NO: 10
Which of the following statements best describes the proxy behavior on a FortiGate unit during an FTP client upload when FTP splice is disabled?
A. The proxy will not allow a file to be transmitted in multiple streams simultaneously.
B. The proxy sends the file to the server while simultaneously buffering it.
C. If the file being scanned is determined to be infected, the proxy deletes it from the server by sending a delete command on behalf of the client.
D. If the file being scanned is determined to be clean, the proxy terminates the connection and leaves the file on the server.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which of the following statements are correct regarding URL filtering on the FortiGate unit? NSE7 dumps (Select all that apply.)
A. The allowed actions for URL Filtering include Allow, Block and Exempt.
B. The allowed actions for URL Filtering are Allow and Block.
C. The FortiGate unit can filter URLs based on patterns using text and regular expressions.
D. Any URL accessible by a web browser can be blocked using URL Filtering.
E. Multiple URL Filter lists can be added to a single protection profile.
Correct Answer: A,C

QUESTION 12
In an IPSec gateway-to-gateway configuration, two FortiGate units create a VPN tunnel between two separate private networks.
Which of the following configuration steps must be performed on both FortiGate units to support this configuration? (Select all that apply.)
A. Create firewall policies to control traffic between the IP source and destination address.
B. Configure the appropriate user groups on the FortiGate units to allow users access to the IPSec VPN connection.
C. Set the operating mode of the FortiGate unit to IPSec VPN mode.
D. Define the Phase 2 parameters that the FortiGate unit needs to create a VPN tunnel with the remote peer.
E. Define the Phase 1 parameters that the FortiGate unit needs to authenticate the remote peers.
Correct Answer: A,D,E

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: ICND1
Exam Name: Cisco Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1 (ICND1 v3.0)
Exam Code: 100-105
Total Questions: 332 Q&As
100-105 dumps
QUESTION 1
What is one requirement for interfaces to run IPv6?
A. An IPv6 address must be configured on the interface.
B. An IPv4 address must be configured.
C. Stateless autoconfiguration must be enabled after enabling IPv6 on the interface.
D. IPv6 must be enabled with the ipv6 enable command in global configuration mode.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Some routers have been configured with default routes. What are some of the advantages of using default routes? (Choose two)
A. They establish routes that will never go down.
B. They keep routing tables small.
C. They require a great deal of CPU power.
D. They allow connectivity to remote networks that are not in the routing table
E. They direct traffic from the internet into corporate networks.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 3
Which two of these statements are true of IPv6 address representation? 100-105 dumps (Choose two.)
A. There are four types of IPv6 addresses: unicast, multicast, anycast, and broadcast.
B. A single interface may be assigned multiple IPv6 addresses of any type.
C. Every IPv6 interface contains at least one loopback address.
D. The first 64 bits represent the dynamically created interface ID.
E. Leading zeros in an IPv6 16 bit hexadecimal field are mandatory.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 4
Which option is the default switch port port-security violation mode?
A. shutdown
B. protect
C. shutdown vlan
D. restrict
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
A user cannot reach any web sites on the Internet, but others in the department are not having a problem.
What is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. IP routing is not enabled.
B. The default gateway is not in the same subnet.
C. A DNS server address is not reachable by the PC.
D. A DHCP server address is not reachable by the PC.
E. NAT has not been configured on the router that connects to the Internet.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
ROUTER# show ip route
192.168.12.0/24 is variably subnetted, 9 subnets, 3 masks
C 192.168.12.64 /28 is directly connected, Loopback1
C 192.168.12.32 /28 is directly connected, Ethernet0
C 192.168.12.48 /28 is directly connected, Loopback0
O 192.168.12.236 /30 [110/128] via 192.168.12.233, 00:35:36, Serial0C 192.168.12.232 /30 is directly connected, Serial0 O 192.168.12.245 /30 [110/782] via 192.168.12.233, 00:35:36, Serial0
O 192.168.12.240 /30 [110/128] via 192.168.12.233, 00:35:36, Serial0
O 192.168.12.253 /30 [110/782] via 192.168.12.233, 00:35:37, Serial0
O 192.168.12.249 /30 [110/782] via 192.168.12.233, 00:35:37, Serial0
O 192.168.12.240/30 [110/128] via 192.168.12.233, 00:35:36, Serial 0
To what does the 128 refer to in the router output above?
A. OSPF cost
B. OSPF priority
C. OSPF hop count
D. OSPF ID number
E. OSPF administrative distance
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which route source code represents the routing protocol with a default administrative distance of 90 in the routing table? 100-105 dumps
A. S
B. E
C. D
D. R
E. O
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
A problem with network connectivity has been observed. It is suspected that the cable connected to switch port Fa0/9 on Switch1 is disconnected. What would be an effect of this cable being disconnected?
A. Host B would not be able to access the server in VLAN9 until the cable is reconnected.
B. Communication between VLAN3 and the other VLANs would be disabled.
C. The transfer of files from Host B to the server in VLAN9 would be significantly slower.
D. For less than a minute, Host B would not be able to access the server in VLAN9. Then normal network function would resume.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Which method does a connected trunk port use to tag VLAN traffic?
A. IEEE 802 1w
B. IEEE 802 1D
C. IEEE 802 1Q
D. IEEE 802 1p
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Which destination IP address can a host use to send one message to multiple devices across different subnets?
A. 172.20.1.0
B. 127.0.0.1
C. 192.168.0.119
D. 239.255.0.1
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
A receiving host has failed to receive all of the segments that it should acknowledge. 100-105 dumps What can the host do to improve the reliability of this communication session?
A. decrease the window size
B. use a different source port for the session
C. decrease the sequence number
D. obtain a new IP address from the DHCP server
E. start a new session using UDP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Why would a network administrator configure port security on a switch?
A. to prevent unauthorized Telnet access to a switch port
B. to prevent unauthorized hosts from accessing the LAN
C. to limit the number of Layer 2 broadcasts on a particular switch port
D. block unauthorized access to the switch management interfaces
Correct Answer: B

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: ICND2
Exam Name: Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2 v3.0)
Exam Code: 200-105
Total Questions: 204 Q&As
200-105 dumps
QUESTION 1
Which EIGRP for IPv6 command can you enter to view the link-local addresses of the neighbors of a device?
A. show ipv6 eigrp 20 interfaces
B. show ipv6 route eigrp
C. show ipv6 eigrp neighbors
D. show ip eigrp traffic
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which statement about QoS default behavior is true?
A. Ports are untrusted by default.
B. VoIP traffic is passed without being tagged.
C. Video traffic is passed with a well-known DSCP value of 46.
D. Packets are classified internally with an environment.
E. Packets that arrive with a tag are untagged at the edge of an administrative domain.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.
200-105 dumps
Why has this switch not been elected the root bridge for VLAN1? 200-105 dumps
A. It has more than one interface that is connected to the root network segment.
B. It is running RSTP while the elected root bridge is running 802.1d spanning tree.
C. It has a higher MAC address than the elected root bridge.
D. It has a higher bridge ID than the elected root bridge.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
A network administrator has configured access list 173 to prevent Telnet and ICMP traffic from reaching a server with the address of 192.168.13.26. Which commands can the administrator issue to verify that the access list is working properly? (Choose three.)
A. Router# ping 192.168.13.26
B. Router# debug access-list 173
C. Router# show open ports 192.168.13.26
D. Router# show access-lists
E. Router# show ip interface
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.
200-105 dumps
At the end of an RSTP election process, which access layer switch port will assume the discarding role?
A. Switch3, port fa0/1
B. Switch3, port fa0/12
C. Switch4, port fa0/11
D. Switch4, port fa0/2
E. Switch3, port Gi0/1
F. Switch3, port Gi0/2
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.
200-105 dumps
A packet with a source IP address of 192.168.2.4 and a destination IP address of 10.1.1.4 arrives at the AcmeB router. 200-105 dumps What action does the router take?
A. forwards the received packet out the Serial0/0 interface
B. forwards a packet containing an EIGRP advertisement out the Serial0/1 interface
C. forwards a packet containing an ICMP message out the FastEthemet0/0 interface
D. forwards a packet containing an ARP request out the FastEthemet0/1 interface
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Which type of EIGRP route entry describes a feasible successor?
A. a backup route, stored in the routing table
B. a primary route, stored in the routing table
C. a backup route, stored in the topology table
D. a primary route, stored in the topology table
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
What can be done to secure the virtual terminal interfaces on a router? (Choose two.)
A. Administratively shut down the interface.
B. Physically secure the interface.
C. Create an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces with the access-group command.
D. Configure a virtual terminal password and login process.
E. Enter an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces using the access-class command.
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 9
A network administrator is troubleshooting an EIGRP problem on a router and needs to confirm the IP addresses of the devices with which the router has established adjacency. The retransmit interval and the queue counts for the adjacent routers also need to be checked. What command will display the required information?
A. Router# show ip eigrp adjacency
B. Router# show ip eigrp topology
C. Router#show ip eigrp interfaces
D. Router#show ip eigrp neighbors
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit.
200-105 dumps
How will the router handle a packet destined for 192.0.2.156?
A. The router will drop the packet.
B. The router will return the packet to its source.
C. The router will forward the packet via Serial2.
D. The router will forward the packet via either Serial0 or Serial1.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
It has become necessary to configure an existing serial interface to accept a second Frame Relay virtual circuit. Which of the following are required to solve this? 200-105 dumps (Choose three)
A. configure static frame relay map entries for each subinterface network.
B. remove the ip address from the physical interface
C. create the virtual interfaces with the interface command
D. configure each subinterface with its own IP address
E. disable split horizon to prevent routing loops between the subinterface networks
F. encapsulate the physical interface with multipoint PPP
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit
200-105 dumps
Assume that all of the router interfaces are operational and configured correctly. How will router R2 be affected by the configuration of R1 that is shown in the exhibit?
A. Router R2 will not form a neighbor relationship with R1.
B. Router R2 will obtain a full routing table, including a default route, from R1.
C. R2 will obtain OSPF updates from R1, but will not obtain a default route from R1.
D. R2 will not have a route for the directly connected serial network, but all other directly connected networks will be present, as well as the two Ethernet networks connected to R1.
Correct Answer: A

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[New Version 100% Pass] Microsoft 70-413 Dumps Latest PDF Practice Questions And Answers | Youtube

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Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: MCSE
Exam Name: Designing and Implementing a Server Infrastructure
Exam Code: 070-413
Total Questions: 206 Q&As
070-413 dumps
QUESTION 1
You implement and authorize the new DHCP servers. You import the server configurations and the scope configurations from PA1 and AM1.
You need to ensure that clients can obtain DHCP address assignments after you shut down PA1 and AM1. The solution must meet the technical requirements.
What should you do?
A. Run the Get-DhcpServerv4Lease cmdlet and the Remove-DhcpServerv4Lease cmdlet. Run the Windows Server Migration Tools.
B. Run the Get-DhcpServerv4Lease cmdlet and the Add-DhcpServerv4Lease cmdlet. Activate the scopes.
C. Run the Get-DhcpServerv4FreeIPAddress cmdlet and the Invoke- DhcpServerv4FailoverReplication cmdlet. Run the Windows Server Migration Tools.
D. Run the Get-DhcpServerv4FreeIPAddress cmdlet and the Invoke- DhcpServerv4FailoverReplication cmdlet Activate the scopes.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
You need to recommend which changes must be implemented to the network before you can deploy the new web application.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Change the forest functional level to Windows Server 2008 R2.
B. Upgrade the DNS servers to Windows Server 2012.
C. Change the functional level of both the domains to Windows Server 2008 R2.
D. Upgrade the domain controllers to Windows Server 2012.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
You are planning the migration of research.contoso.com.
You need to identify which tools must be used to perform the migration.
Which tools should you identify?
A. Active Directory Migration Tool version 3.2 (ADMT v3.2) and Group Policy Management Console (GPMC)
B. Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) and Microsoft Federation Gateway
C. Active Directory Migration Tool version 3.2 (ADMT v3.2) and Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS)
D. Active Directory Lightweight Directory Services (AD LDS) and Group Policy Management Console (GPMC)
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
You need to recommend a deployment method for Proseware.
What is the best approach to achieve the goal? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.
A. A WDS Deployment server and Multicast transmissions
B. A WDS Deployment server and Unicast transmissions
C. A WDS Transport server and Multicast transmissions
D. A WDS Transport server and Unicast transmissions
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
You need to recommend changes to the DNS environment that support the implementation of the sales.contoso.com domain. 70-413 dumps The solution must ensure that the users in all of the domains can resolve both Internet names and the names of the servers in all of the internal domains.
What should you recommend?
A. On the DNS servers in contoso.com, configure a reverse lookup zone. On the DNS servers in sales.contoso.com, configure a conditional forwarder to contoso.com.
B. On the DNS servers in contoso.com, add a conditional forwarder to the sales.contoso.com zone. On the DNS servers in sales.contoso.com, add a forwarder to the DNS servers of the company’s ISP.
C. On the DNS servers in contoso.com, create a zone delegation in the contoso.com zone. On the DNS servers in sales.contoso.com, add a forwarder to the contoso.com DNS servers.
D. On the DNS servers in contoso.com, configure a conditional forwarder to sales.contoso.com. On the DNS servers in sales.contoso.com, configure a reverse zone.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
You are evaluating the implementation of data deduplication on the planned Windows Server 2012 file servers.
The planned servers will have the identical disk configurations as the current servers.
You need to identify which volumes can be enabled for data deduplication.
Which volumes should you identify? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. C
B. D
C. E
D. The CSV
E. DATA
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 7
You need to recommend a management solution for the GPOs. The solution must meet the technical requirements. What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Microsoft Baseline Security Analyzer (MBSA)
B. Microsoft Desktop Optimization Pack (MDOP)
C. Microsoft System Center 2012 Operations Manager
D. Microsoft System Center 2012 Data Protection Manager (DPM)
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
You need to recommend a fault-tolerant solution for the VPN. The solution must meet the technical requirements.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Network adapter teaming
B. Network Load Balancing (NLB)
C. Failover Clustering
D. DirectAccess
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
After the planned upgrade to Windows Server 2012, you restore a user account from the Active Directory Recycle Bin.
You need to replicate the restored user account as quickly as possible.
Which cmdlets should you run?
A. Get-ADReplicationSite and Set-ADReplicationConnection
B. Get-ADReplicationAttributeMetadata and Compare-Object
C. Get-ADReplicationUpToDatenessVectorTable and Set-ADReplicationSite
D. Get ADDomainController and Sync-ADObject
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
You need to recommend a solution for DHCP logging. The solution must meet the technical requirement. 070-413 dumps
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Event subscriptions
B. IP Address Management (IPAM)
C. DHCP audit logging
D. DHCP filtering
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
You are planning the implementation of two new servers that will be configured as RADIUS servers.
You need to recommend which configuration must be performed on the VPN servers. The solution must meet the technical requirements.
What should you do on each VPN server?
A. Add a RADIUS client.
B. Install the Health Registration Authority role service.
C. Enable DirectAccess.
D. Modify the authentication provider.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
You are planning the decommissioning of research.contoso.com.
You need to ensure that an administrator named Admin5 in the research department can manage the user accounts that are migrated to contoso.com. The solution must minimize the number of permissions assigned to Admin5.
What should you do before you migrate the user accounts?
A. Run the New-Object cmdlet, and then run the Add-ADPrincipalGroupMembershipcmdlet.
B. Create a new organizational unit (OU), and then add Admin5 to the Account Operators group.
C. Create a new organizational unit (OU), and then run the Delegation of Control Wizard.
D. Run the New-Object cmdlet, and then run the Add-ADCentralAccessPolicyMembercmdlet.
Correct Answer: C

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