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New Cisco CCNA Cloud 210-451 Dumps Exam Practice Questions And Answers (Q1-Q40)

QUESTION 1
Which option is the correct steps to regenerate a UCS B-Series SSL certificate?
A. Open an SSH session to the CIMC IP # scope security # scope keyring default # set regenerate yes # commit-buffer
B. Open an SSH session to the CIMC IP # scope certificate # set regenerate yes # commit-buffer
C. Open an SSH session to the CIMC IP # scope security # scope certificate # set regenerate yes # commit-buffer
D. Using the UCSM GUI Navigate to the Admin tab Expand ALL andgt; Key Management Right-click Key Management and choose regenerate certificate Click OK
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
In an Openstack Cloud deployment which has a fibre channel SAN providing the block storage, which two options are valid fibre channel zone member types? (Choose two.)
A. FCID
B. DomainID
C. WWPN
D. OpenStack Volume ID
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 3
The Cisco InterCloud Fabric Director provides what functionality?
A. It is the single point of management and consumption for hybrid Cloud solutions.
B. It is the single point of management and consumption for public Cloud solutions.
C. It is the single point of management and consumption for private Cloud solutions.
D. It is a plugin of a Virtual Machine Manager to provide management and configuration for hybrid Cloud solutions.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which statement about the differences between vSwitch and DVS is true?
A. vSwitch supports Spanning Tree Protocol.
B. DVS supports Spanning Tree Protocol.
C. vSwitch supports private VLAN.
D. DVS supports private VLAN.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Which /etc/exports line will allow you to enable read-only access from the NFS client 192.168.1.100?
A. /images 192.168.1.100 (ro,async)
B. /images 192.168.1.100 (755,async)
C. /images 192.168.1.1/24 (755,no_root_squash,async)
D. /images 192.168.1.1/27 (ro,async)
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which Cloud service model is appropriate for a physical data center move to the Cloud?
A. Infrastructure as a Service
B. Platform as a Service
C. Compute as a Service
D. Software as a Service
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which three options are the advantages of VXLAN? 210-451 dumps (Choose three.)
A. Increase of VLAN address space
B. Support multi-tenancy
C. Connectivity across disparate virtual data centers
D. Uses Spanning Tree Protocol for loop prevention
E. Configure Portgroup Virtual port ID
F. Configure Portgroup Load Based Teaming
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 8
Which description of RAID6 is true?
A. block-level striping of data with double distributed parity
B. drive-level striping of data with double distributed parity
C. block-level striping of data with single distributed parity
D. block-level mirroring of data with double distributed parity
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which technology focuses on Layer 2 distributed data centers?
A. FabricPath
B. Adapter FEX
C. LISP
D. OTV
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Which option lists the Cloud deployment models?
A. public, community, private, hybrid
B. cluster, community, private, hybrid
C. public, performance, private, hybrid
D. public, community, secure, hybrid
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which option contains server hardware identifiers, firmware, state, configuration, and connectivity characteristics?
A. pools
B. policies
C. service profiles
D. resource groups
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Which Cisco product can provide an iSCSI target for an iSCSI initiator?
A. Cisco MDS 9710
B. Cisco Nexus 7010
C. Cisco UCS Invicta
D. Cisco Nexus 9510
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Which platform is ideally used to orchestrate a FlexPod from a single management platform?
A. Cisco UCS Manager
B. Cisco UCS Director
C. Cisco Prime Cloud Automation Manager
D. Cisco Application Centric Infrastructure Manager
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
Which option is used to manage Multi-Domain Cisco UCS?
A. Cisco UCS Manager
B. Cisco UCS Central
C. Cisco UCS B-Series
D. Cisco UCS C-Series
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
Which integrated infrastructure rely on OpenStack technology?
A. FlexPod
B. Vblock
C. VSPEX
D. OpenBlocks
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
SRIOV provides which of the following?
A. The host PCI bus is virtualized and these virtual PCIs are directly allocated to each guest
B. The host HBAs are virtualized and these virtual HBA are directly allocated to each guest for dedicated access
C. The hypervisor virtualizes the CPUs and PCI bus to provide directly allocated I/O to each guest
D. The host PCI bus is divided into pinned paths and these virtual paths are directly allocated to each guest for guranteed I/O
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
Which of the following is a feature that improves the performance of software applications that run on the Cisco UCS servers in a data center by bypassing the kernel when sending and receiving networking packets?
A. A, vPath
B. VM-FEX
C. usNIC
D. VMware PassThrough
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
Which of the following two storage technologies would require that its\’ block device be attached to an instance before you can perform any filesystem commands? (Choose two.)
A. SCSI LUN
B. Cinder Volume
C. NFS Filesystem Meta-Volume
D. Direct Object Block Device
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 19
210-451 dumps Which description of Cisco vPath is true?
A. a protocol that provides end-to-end path assurance for Cloud-based systems
B. an embedded intelligence in Cisco VEM that provides abstracted control and forward plane functionality
C. a service that provides forwarding plane abstraction for inline redirection of traffic for vServices
D. a vService that allows for security policy enforcement through transparent bridging
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
Which characteristic is an inoperative attribute of a private Cloud deployment?
A. self service and on demand
B. shared by many companies
C. highly scalable
D. metered for reporting or billing purposes
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 21
Which two technologies support running Linux and Windows virtual machines? (Choose two.)
A. KVM
B. LXD
C. Docker
D. Microsoft Hyper-V
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 22
Where is the Hypervisor installed?
A. Host operating system
B. Guest operating system
C. Control node
D. Computer node
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 23
Which two options are characteristics of NAS? (Choose two.)
A. NAS provides block-based storage only.
B. NAS provides storage and filesystems.
C. NAS requires no authentication.
D. SMB is a protocol that can be used for NAS.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 24
Cisco APICs utilize sharding to provide what function for an ACI fabric?
A. It provides scalability and reliability to the data sets generated and processed by the Distributed Policy Repository, the endpoint registry, the Observer, and the Topology Manager
B. It provides replication of application network policies across the APICs in the cluster
C. It provides a method for determining which APIC will act as the master in a fabric during the election process
D. It provides horizontal scaling ability for policy management on APICs
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 25
What is an invalid Cloud deployment model?
A. distributed
B. private
C. community
D. hybrid
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 26
Which three options are considered Cloud deployment models? (Choose three.)
A. Public Cloud
B. Hybrid Cloud
C. Open Cloud
D. Private Cloud
E. Stack Cloud
F. Distributed Cloud
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 27
Which API structure does Cisco UCS Manager support?
A. JSON
B. XML
C. RUBY
D. PERL
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 28
Which type of zoning is represented?
zone name zone1 vsan 10 member pwwn 20:00:00:55:a5:00:00:04 member pwwn 50:00:d3:10:00:18:e1:05 member pwwn 50:00:d3:10:00:18:e1:06
A. Single Initiator Multi Target
B. Multi Initiator Single Target
C. Single Target Single Initiator
D. Multi Initiator Multi Target
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 29
What are two characteristics of a LUN? (Choose two.)
A. A LUN must be fully comprised of one physical disk
B. A LUN handles file system creation
C. A LUN can be comprised of multiple physical disks
D. A LUN is a unique identifier
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 30
What best describes server virtualization?
A. Server virtualization is the masking of server resources (including the number and identity of individual physical servers, processors, and operating systems) from server users.
B. System virtualization is the use of software to allow a piece of hardware to run multiple operating system images at the same time.
C. A method of combining the available resources in a network by splitting up the available bandwidth into channels, each of which is independent from the others, and each of which can be assigned (or reassigned) to a particular server or device in real time.
D. Pooling of physical storage from multiple network storage devices into what appears to be a single storage device that is managed from a central console
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 31
Company ABC hosts all their applications internally. During one day of the month, the demand for their applications far exceeds the capacity of their datacenter. Which Cloud model should Company ABC consider using?
A. Community
B. Private
C. Hybrid
D. Public
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 32
IaaS is an acronym for what type of Cloud?
A. Instances as a Service
B. Infrastructure as a Service
C. Internet as a Service
D. Images as a Service
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 33
Which of the following statements best describes Atomic Inheritance?
A. It maintains a consistent configuration among the interfaces in a port profile and the entire port profile configuration is applied to its member interfaces
B. To maintain a consistent configuration among the sub-interfaces in a port profile
C. It tracks the packets among the interfaces in a port profile from the start of each flow until termination
D. To maintain a system VLAN connection to ensure communication between the VSM and VEM
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 34
210-451 dumps Which of these are hypervisors typically utilized in a modern data center?
A. VMware, HyperV, Linux
B. ESXi, HyperV, Linux
C. ESXi, HyperV, KVM
D. VMware, HyperV, KVM
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 35
Which option is one essential characteristic of Cloud computing?
A. It must use virtualization.
B. It must provide load balancing services.
C. It must provide on-demand self service.
D. It must run on open source software.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 36
Which two options are benefits of the Cisco InterCloud Solution? (Choose two.)
A. enforces standardization on a single hypervisor product
B. provides self service for hybrid resources
C. management of heterogeneous SAN solutions
D. secure connectivity between public and private Clouds
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 37
Which option describes what the use of no_root_squash does in an NFS environment?
A. It causes the NFS share to be mounted by a non-root user and is required for hypervisors that utilize RBAC for users.
B. It allows a NFS share to be mounted and written to as the root user by the hypervisor.
C. It allows a NFS share to be mounted by root, but all subsequent writes are as a non-root user.
D. It allows a NFS share to be mounted by a non-root user and all subsequent writes are as a non-root user.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 38
Which of the following best describes the order of operations of FCoE Initialization Protocol?
A. VLAN Discovery, FCF Discovery, FLOG I/F Discovery, FC Command
B. VLAN Discovery, FCF Discovery, PLOGI Discovery, FLOG I/F Discovery
C. FCF Discovery, PLOGI Discovery, FLOG I/F Discovery
D. VLAN Discovery, FCF Discovery, FLOG I/F Discovery
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 39
What are the key features of UCS?
A. 10 Gigabit unified network fabric, virtualization optimization, unified management, service profiles, flexible IO options
B. Gigabit network , virtualization optimization, unified management, service profiles, flexible IO options
C. 10 Gigabit unified network fabric, virtualization hardware, unified management, service profiles, performance IO options
D. 10 Gigabit unified network fabric, virtualization optimization, unified management, service profiles, performance IO options
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 40
Which three options are Common Cloud characteristics? (Choose three.)
A. single tenancy
B. elasticity
C. ubiquitous network access
D. metered service
E. QoS
Correct Answer: BCD

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Newest Microsoft MCTS 70-595 dumps exam questions and answers (1-10)

QUESTION 1
A BizTalk Server 2010 solution sends out XML invoices to a customer on a regular basis. The customer has sent you the public key part of their certificate. You installed this certificate on the server and set up a send port to use this certificate. The certification authority for the certificate is one that you already trust.
You need to ensure that all invoices sent to the customer are encrypted using the provided public key.
What should you do?
A. Create a custom pipeline that uses the MIME/SMIME encoder component. Set the Enable encryption property of the component to True.
B. Create a custom pipeline that uses the MIME/SMIME encoder component. Set the Add signing certification to message property of the component to True.
C. Create a custom pipeline that uses the MIME/SMIME encoder component. Set the Content transfer encoding property of the component to Base64.
D. Create a custom pipeline that uses the default XML assembler component. Use the default values for all properties of the component.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
An existing BizTalk Server 2010 messaging solution for processing orders has a send port group that contains two send ports. Send Port A is for Supplier A and Send Port B is for Supplier B. Each supplier receives only one copy of each order message. The order schema has a promoted property named OrderAmount that contains the total amount of the order. The send port group subscribes to all messages where a promoted property OrderAmount exists. The send ports do not have a filter defined. Messages with an order amount less than or equal to 1000 must be sent to Supplier A. Messages with an order amount greater than 1000 must be sent to Supplier B. Only a single message can be sent to either Supplier A or Supplier B. You need to modify the solution to route each order message to either Supplier A or Supplier B. What should you do?
A. Delete the existing filter condition on the send port group. Add a filter condition on the send port group to subscribe for messages where OrderAmount is <= 1000. Add a filter OR condition on the send port group to subscribe for messages where OrderAmount is > 1000.
B. Keep the existing filter condition on the send port group. Add a filter condition on the send port group to subscribe for messages where OrderAmount is <= 1000. Add a filter OR condition on the send port group to subscribe for messages where OrderAmount is > than 1000.
C. Set a filter on Send Port A to subscribe for messages where OrderAmount is <= 1000. Set a filter on Send Port B to subscribe for messages where OrderAmount is > 1000. Stop and start the send port group.
D. Set a filter on Send Port A to subscribe for messages where OrderAmount is <= 1000. Set a filter on Send Port B to subscribe for messages where OrderAmount is > 1000. Delete the send port group.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
You are developing applications for BizTalk Server 2010. The application processes orders for two vendors. These vendors have different message formats for their orders. You define BizTalk schemas for both vendors in separate projects and name the projects VendorA and VendorB. You promote the OrderType property in the schema of VendorA and the PurchaseType property in the schema of VendorB.
Then you deploy the application. You need to log messages to disk for shoe orders for VendorA and bike orders for VendorB. What should you do?
A. Add a FILE send port with the filter: VendorA.OrderType==Shoes And VendorB.PurchaseType==Bikes
B. Add a FILE send port with the filter: VendorA.OrderType==Shoes Or VendorB.PurchaseType==Bikes
C. Add a send port group with the filter: VendorA.OrderType==Shoes Or VendorB.PurchaseType==Bikes
D. Add a send port group with the filter: VendorA.OrderType==Shoes And
VendorB.PurchaseType==Bikes
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
A supplier sends messages that they sign with a certificate to a BizTalk Server 2010 application. 70-595 dumps You need to ensure that the received messages are signed with the certificate. What should you do?
A. Use the XMLTransmit pipeline.
B. Use a custom pipeline that leverages the MIME/SMIME encoder component.
C. Use a custom pipeline that leverages the MIME/SMIME decoder component.
D. Use the XMLReceive pipeline.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
A BizTalk Server 2010 solution transmits messages to a suppliers FTP server. The solution uses an FTP send port. The transport URI points to the main FTP server location. The supplier needs to receive the message immediately if the connection with the main FTP server cannot be established. You need to enable transmission redirection to an alternative FTP server. What should you do?
A. Set the Retry count to 1. Set the Backup Transport Type to FTP and the Backup Transport URI to the alternative FTP server location.
B. Enable ordered delivery for the send port.
C. Set the Retry count to 0. Set the Backup Transport Type to FTP and the Backup Transport URI to the alternative FTP server location.
D. Enable failed message routing for the send port.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
A BizTalk Server 2010 application sends purchase orders. Current applications use an existing mail server to send mail. The purchase order application should use a distribution list that is managed by a new mail server. Company IT policy does not allow you to create a new host for the new mail server. You need to create a BizTalk port that sends orders to the email distribution list through the new mail server. What should you do?
A. Create an SMTP send port configured to send to the email distribution list. Create a filter on the send port with the SMTP.SMTPHost context property equal to the new mail server.
B. Create an SMTP send port configured to send to the email distribution list. Specify the name of the new mail server in Microsoft Internet Information Services (IIS) Manager.
C. Create an SMTP send port configured to send to the email distribution list. Override the current SMTP send handler settings by entering the new mail server in the SMTP server name field in the Handler Override section of the port.
D. Create a send port group with an SMTP send port configured to send to the email distribution list. Create a filter on the send port group with the SMTP.SMTPHost context property equal to the new mail server.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
In a Microsoft Visual Studio solution, you include an existing shared BizTalk Server 2010 project that is used by more than one BizTalk application. You specify that the shared BizTalk project will be deployed to the same BizTalk application as the other BizTalk projects in the solution. During deployment of the BizTalk project from Visual Studio, you receive the following error: Failed to add resource(s). Resource (- Type=”System.BizTalk:BizTalkAssembly” -Luid=”Contoso.SharedComponent, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=c4b6d1ca34bb90c0″) is already in store and is either associated with another application or with another type. You need to deploy the projects of the solution that reference the shared BizTalk project without errors. What should you do?
A. Open Configuration Manager and clear the Deploy check box for all BizTalk projects. Then build and deploy the solution.
B. Use the BizTalk Administration console to import a copy of the MSI package of the shared component into every BizTalk application.
C. Use the BizTalk Administration console to export the assemblies as a Microsoft Windows Installer (MSI) package for the BizTalk solution.
D. Open Configuration Manager and clear the Deploy check box for the shared BizTalk project. Then build and deploy the solution.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
You are configuring a BizTalk Server 2010 environment with one server running Microsoft SQL Server for the BizTalk databases and Enterprise Single Sign-On (SSO) store. There are two BizTalk servers. All software has been installed. Both BizTalk servers will share a BizTalk group. You need to complete the installation in this environment. You start the BizTalk Server Configuration wizard on both BizTalk servers.
What should you do next?
A. On BizTalk Server 1, select and apply Basic Configuration. On BizTalk Server 2, select and apply Basic Configuration.
B. On BizTalk Server 1, select Custom Configuration. Create a new SSO system and BizTalk group on the server running SQL Server. On BizTalk Server 2, select Custom Configuration. Create a new SSO system and BizTalk group on the server running SQL Server.
C. On BizTalk Server 1, select Custom Configuration. Create a new SSO system and BizTalk group on the server running SQL Server. On BizTalk Server 2, select and apply Basic Configuration.
D. On BizTalk Server 1, select Custom Configuration. Create a new SSO system and BizTalk group on the server running SQL Server. On BizTalk Server 2, select Custom Configuration. Join the existing SSO system and BizTalk group.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
A BizTalk Server 2010 solution contains multiple applications. One of the applications sends EDI messages to trading partners. The trading partners are defined as parties in the BizTalk Administration console. 70-595 dumps You need to extract the binding and party information for only the EDI application in an XML file so that you can store that information in source code control. What should you do?
A. Create a binding file for one of the assemblies in the EDI application.
B. Create a binding file that contains the binding for the BizTalk group.
C. Create a binding file for the EDI application and include the party information.
D. Create a Microsoft Windows Installer (MSI) file for the EDI application and include the party information.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
A BizTalk Server 2010 application contains an orchestration with one receive port and one send port. You evaluate the runtime behavior of the orchestration by viewing the promoted properties of any inbound and outbound messages of the orchestration.
You need to modify the application so that you can view these promoted properties on the BizTalk Server Group Hub page. What should you do?
A. In the BizTalk Administration console, modify the orchestration properties. Under Track Message Properties, select the check boxes for incoming and outgoing messages.
B. In the BizTalk Administration console, modify the orchestration properties. Under Track Message Bodies, select Before orchestration processing and After orchestration processing.
C. In Orchestration Designer, change the Report To Analyst property to True. Redeploy the orchestration. Create filters on the receive port receive location that evaluate the messages promoted properties.
D. In Orchestration Designer, change the Type Modifier property to Public. Redeploy the orchestration.
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
A new client has contacted you to design a WLAN solution for a new 30-foot high-bay warehouse that will use high-lift electric forklifts. The warehouse is currently empty except for storage racks. The customer is planning to continue to use their existing wireless barcode scanners and also deploy wireless IP phones for communication. Which four issues do you need to consider prior to performing the site survey? (Choose four.)
A. Which protocol do the wireless barcode scanners and IP phones need to use?
B. What is the proximity to other warehouses?
C. Which types of goods will be stored in the warehouse and what is the expected average warehouse capacity?
D. Do any planned WLC locations exceed 100 meter cable distances?
E. Is there sufficient clearance between the roof and the top of the racks for placing APs?
F. What is the expected humidity level in the warehouse on average during the year?
G. Are there any secure enclosures that use chain-link fence that will require wireless access?
Correct Answer: ACEG

QUESTION 2
What is the result of a Cisco 1250 AP deployed for 802.11a/b/g/n using optimized power (16.8 W) with software version 7.0?
A. One spatial stream per radio
B. One spatial stream on 2.4 GHz and two spatial streams on 5 GHz
C. One spatial steam on 5 GHz and two spatial streams on 2.4 GHz
D. Reduced power on both radios
E. Reduced power on 2.4 GHz radio only
F. Reduced power on 5 GHz radio only
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 3
Which wireless tool would be most useful in planning a WLAN solution prior to performing a site survey?
A. Ekahau Survey
B. Air Magnet Survey
C. Air Magnet Wi-Fi Analyzer
D. Cisco Spectrum Expert
E. Cisco WCS
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.
642-732 dumps
After performing a Layer 1 survey using Cisco Spectrum Expert, what is the result indicated by the visual screen? 642-732 dumps
A. Normal 802.11g activity
B. Microwave oven interference
C. Video camera interference
D. Bluetooth device interference
E. RF jammer
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
642-732 dumps
Select and Place:
642-732 dumps
Correct Answer:
642-732 dumps
QUESTION 6
Which two types of information should be included in the installation inventory portion of the postinstallation report?(Choose two.)
A. All AP, controller, and MSE administrator credentials
B. The number and type of all WLAN clients and tags
C. The names, locations, IP addresses, MAC addresses, etc. for every AP, controller, and MSE in the WLAN
D. Results of the coverage audit performed with the site survey mapping tool
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 7
A customer has requested site surveys for data, voice, video, and location services for their location. The customer will be using RFID tags extensively. Which type of site survey should be conducted?
A. data
B. voice
C. video
D. location-based services
E. bridging
F. multi-survey
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
An engineer is performing a site survey for a 5 GHz mesh wireless network. The customer requires 300 Mbps data rates per radio, 2×3 MIMO technology, and legacy beamforming.
What Cisco access point should be recommended?
A. 1510
B. 1522
C. 1524
D. 1552
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.
642-732 dumps
After performing a Layer 1 survey using Cisco Spectrum Expert, what is the result indicated by the visual screen? 642-732 dumps
A. Normal 802.11b activity
B. Normal 802.11g activity
C. Microwave oven interference
D. Video camera interference
E. Bluetooth device interference
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 10
An engineer wants to provide coverage between warehouse shelving stocked with bulk metal materials.
What antenna would be adequate for performing this survey?
A. 5.5 dBi omni down tilt
B. 17 dBi grid
C. 2.2 dBi omni
D. 8.5 dBi patch
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
What is a typical attenuation value for a cinder block wall?
A. 3dB
B. 4dB
C. 6dB
D. 12dB
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
A Cisco engineer is troubleshooting a Cisco 1250 series 802.11n access point with a maximum throughput on 2.4 GHz that is limited to 72 Mbps. Why might the AP be operating in a limited capacity?
A. the switch providing PoE supports 802.3af
B. the switch providing PoE supports 802.3at
C. the 2.4 GHz bandwidth is 20 MHz wide
D. the 2.4 GHz is 40 MHz wide
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
What RF phenomenon results from a presence of metallic I-beams, conveyor belts, chain- link fences, and metallic shelves found in a warehousing environment?
A. multipath
B. free path loss
C. absorption
D. scattering
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
An engineer is planning for a 24 Mbps data rate for a new installation. If the environment and other factors are not taken into consideration, what is the coverage area from the AP?
A. 40 feet
B. 80 feet
C. 100 feet
D. 150 feet
E. 225 feet
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
What two tools can an engineer use to verify RF data rates and coverage after installation? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco WCS Planning Mode
B. Cisco WCS Location Readiness Tool
C. Cisco WCS Voice Audit Report
D. AirMagnet Passive Survey Mode
E. AirMagnet Active Survey Mode
F. AirMagnet Planner Mode
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 16
Which two are impacts of having 802.11b clients in an 802.11g network? 642-732 dumps (Choose two.)
A. 802.11b clients will degrade throughput of 802.11g clients
B. 802.11b is more susceptible to multipath than 802.11g
C. 802.11b operates over fewer channels than 802.11g
D. 802.11b uses 20 MHz wide channels, 802.11g uses 40 MHz wide channels
E. 802.11b is more susceptible to attenuation than 802.11g
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 17
Which hop count is Cisco’s maximum recommended for a client in a wireless Mesh network?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
In an outdoor mesh environment, which is the purpose of deploying one of the access points relatively higher than the others?
A. The MAPs need to be mounted higher than the first hop RAPs so that the mesh units can accomplish radio line of sight.
B. Elevated MAPs are connected to the switches, providing better bandwidth that all the RAPs utilize for client connectivity.
C. An AP deployed as a RAP needs to be mounted in a higher elevation to provide clear connectivity to first hop MAPs.
D. Root APs need clear line of sight to provide the best bandwidth to all of its RAPs, so the higher the better.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
An engineer is conducting a site calibration using Cisco WCS. The current network has 802.11a, 802.11b, 802.11g, and 802.11n devices. How many times should the calibration be done?
A. once for each band
B. once for each protocol
C. once per deployment
D. once using each data collection type
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
An engineer notes that some areas of a floor fail when using the Location Readiness Tool in Cisco WCS.
What criteria must be met for a point to be considered location ready?
A. one AP in each quadrant, with three less than 70 feet away
B. one AP in three quadrants, with two less than 70 feet away
C. one AP in each quadrant, with two less than 70 feet away
D. one AP in three quadrants, with one less than 70 feet away
Correct Answer: A

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1Y0-A16 dumps
QUESTION 1
Scenario: Before upgrading or expanding the Healthy Helping Hands environment, an architect wants to be sure that all current application issues are identified so they can be addressed.
Based on the assessment document, which two tools would be best suited to ensure all current issues have been identified before moving forward with the project? (Choose two.)
A. EdgeSight
B. Resource Manager
C. Windows Event Logs
D. Windows Performance Monitor
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 2
Based on the assessment document, which two actions must the architect take regarding Citrix licensing in order to properly assess the environment? (Choose two.)
A. Restart the IIS Service.
B. Restart the Citrix Licensing Service.
C. Add the REPORTLOG keyword to the options file.
D. Create a file called REPORT.LOG in C:\Program Files\Citrix\MyFiles.
E. Select a network share to which the local system account has write access.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 3
Scenario: The IT manager at Healthy Helping Hands decided to pilot EdgeSight on the existing Presentation Server 4.0 farm to gather information regarding the slow logon times that Human Resources users are experiencing. The administrators completed the following tasks:
1. Installed the EdgeSight Server on a Windows Server 2003 SP1 server with the appropriate software versions for all prerequisites documented in the EdgeSight Installation Guide
2. Installed the EdgeSight Web Server, SQL Server 2005 SP2 Database with Reporting Services and EdgeSight console on a single server for the pilot
3. Installed the EdgeSight agent on all eight of the servers in the Presentation Server 4.0 farm
4. Configured EdgeSight to use the default worker and agent settings
5. Verified that all eight of the agents reported to the EdgeSight console within the first 24 hours after installation
After seven days, the data is examined and the reports show the following:
Session information, such as Logon Time and Session ID, is captured and reported for all the user sessions. 1Y0-A16 dumps Detailed information about the logon experience, such as the Profile Load Time (PLSD) or Logon Script Execution time (LSESD), is displayed in the reports.
Which statement accurately describes why the End-User Experience Metrics (EUEM) is unavailable through the default reports on the EdgeSight Console?
A. These metrics are available but must be accessed by querying the agent’s local Firebird database directly.
B. These metrics are available in the EdgeSight SQL database; a custom report can be created through Reporting Services.
C. The Human Resource users are accessing the Presentation Server 4.0 environment using an unsupported Citrix plug-in that does not send the metrics.
D. The server running Presentation Server 4.0 does not support the collection of these metrics because the server is unaware of the EUEM virtual ICA channel.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
— Exhibit —
1Y0-A16 dumps
— Exhibit —
Scenario: Healthy Helping Hands has created a new pilot XenApp 5 Platinum Edition farm with applications delivered to 25 pilot users. The pilot farm includes all the applications that were previously published to the HR users and some additional applications to support Manufacturing. During the pilot week of September 14th, the users of the PositivelyPeople application reported that the application was responding slowly.
Fortunately, EdgeSight had been installed and configured in the pilot farm and was recording data during the pilot. Attached in the exhibit is the information gathered from the Transaction Network Delay report from EdgeSight.
Which theory effectively explains the data that is presented in the report?
A. The XenApp server is waiting on another host to respond, most likely the server hosting the PositivelyPeople database.
B. The XenApp server is waiting on the network packet queue to clear as evidenced by the 9ms network latency being reported.
C. The XenApp server is reaching maximum capacity, and the lack of physical resources on the XenApp server is causing the response delay.
D. The Network Delay on 9/19/2009 is probably the source of complaints from the HR Users. An average network latency of almost 9ms is unacceptable.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Healthy Helping Hands has decided to replace the PCs used by the Customer Service and Manufacturing teams with new thin clients, as the PCs are running operating systems which are no longer covered by extended support.
How many of these thin clients will need to be purchased?
A. 50
B. 250
C. 3000
D. 3050
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
How should an architect recommend delivering applications to the Manufacturing users at Healthy Helping Hands?
A. Publish the applications to new PCs.
B. Publish the applications to their existing devices.
C. Use XenDesktop to deliver disk-based thin clients.
D. Publish the applications to new diskless thin clients.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Scenario: The IT managers at Healthy Helping Hands are looking into making New York and San Francisco their two principal sites, each capable of failing over to the other. This will be one of the major requirements for the Citrix infrastructure design.
Which two backend infrastructure components need improvements in disaster recovery support as part of this project? (Choose two.)
A. HP SAN storage
B. User Profile server
C. PositivelyPeople database
D. Terminal Services license server
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 8
Which two components need to be included in the updated disaster recovery plan, given the current Disaster Recovery Plan as outlined in the assessment document? (Choose two.)
A. EdgeSight database
B. User data directories
C. Citrix XenApp servers
D. User profile directories
E. PositivelyPeople database
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 9
Scenario: In order to plan for the possibility of a pandemic flu, the HR department for Healthy Helping Hands has asked an architect to test whether the infrastructure could accommodate 300 key or “at risk” workers working from home over a two week period.
1Y0-A16 dumps Based on the information in the assessment document, can the existing infrastructure support such a situation?
A. No, there are insufficient licenses available to support this requirement.
B. Yes, sufficient capacity exists to support this temporary requirement; no action is required.
C. No, two additional servers are required to support the remote workers during this two week period.
D. No, the Secure Gateway/Web Interface server has insufficient capacity to support this requirement.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Scenario: As part of a government initiative to provide support to the general public during a global pandemic, Healthy Helping Hands is required to contribute to a national helpline service. This will require an additional 500 to 2000 users to be logged into the Healthy Helping Hands applications. To comply with this requirement, Healthy Helping Hands will need to provide the additional capacity within 24 hours of the request. The additional capacity must also be fully secure and fault tolerant.
Based on the current infrastructure, how would the architect meet the requirement in this scenario?
A. The current infrastructure would only require publishing additional applications in the current XenApp farm.
B. To meet capacity requirements, XenDesktop would be required to allow additional connections to be made.
C. The current infrastructure would only require the Secure Gateway/Web Interface components to be upgraded.
D. To meet capacity requirements a Provisioning Services server would be required to bring additional server capacity online when required.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Scenario: The IT managers at Healthy Helping Hands want to develop a new virtualized environment based out of their San Francisco and New York sites to provide applications to all of their staff. This represents a large increase in the number of servers and users from the current system.
Which option represents a technical challenge that needs to be overcome in order to meet this objective?
A. Disabled user Logon Scripts
B. Minimal set of Group Policy Objects
C. Local User Profiles on XenApp Servers
D. All Citrix servers isolated in a separate OU
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Based on the CIO’s WAN traffic requirement, users at which two locations would have a single point of failure when attempting to access applications? (Choose two.)
A. Hong Kong Site
B. Berlin Regional Office
C. Rome Sales Branch Office
D. New York Main Data Center
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 13
Based on the CIO’s WAN traffic requirement, users at which two locations would have a single point of failure when attempting to access to their applications? (Choose two.)
A. New York Main Site
B. San Francisco Office
C. Berlin Regional Office
D. Manchester Branch Sales Office
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 14
Scenario: The IT managers at Healthy Helping Hands are updating their environment. Recently the HR users have been experiencing intermittent outages in remote access to their application.
Which solution should be included in the project to address this problem?
A. Issue company laptops to HR users.
B. Replace the existing Secure Gateway server.
C. Add a second Secure Gateway server to the environment.
D. Request that HR users upgrade their Internet connections.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
Scenario: The Healthy Helping Hands infrastructure assessment identified that the Manufacturing team has access to locked-down terminals in order to complete their work. However, frequent breakdowns due to unauthorized software installations have caused productivity problems for the Manufacturing staff.
How can an architect reduce the breakdowns as the applications are moved to a virtual environment?
A. Upgrade the workstations to new computers.
B. Lock the workstations using local group policies.
C. Upgrade the workstations to diskless computers.
D. Deploy the Desktop Appliance Lock on all workstations.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
The IT managers at Healthy Helping Hands plan to move all application access to XenApp and request that all users are able to connect to published resources from their home computers. 1Y0-A16 dumps
After reviewing the infrastructure assessment, which risk may result in a user being unable to connect?
A. Client computer is an Apple Macintosh.
B. User only has a 512Kbps Internet connection.
C. Client files are not available on the Web Interface server.
D. User does not have administrative permissions on the client computer.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
In the future upgraded environment, Healthy Helping Hands wants to provide the IT department with the ability to interact with user sessions for training and troubleshooting without compromising security demands.
How can an architect meet the needs of the Healthy Helping Hands IT department?
A. Enable shadowing in the current environment.
B. Use Group Policy to enable Microsoft Remote Support.
C. Purchase licenses for a third party remote viewing software.
D. Enable shadowing once the environment is migrated to XenApp 5.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
Scenario: Several users in the HR user group will be traveling to trade conferences this year to meet industry training requirements and stay current on developing trends in the field. While working remotely, these users will need to upload presentations and training material distributed during the conferences onto sponsored USB keys.
Based on the analysis document, how can an architect ensure that the current environment allows the HR user group to meet this need?
A. Edit the HR Users policy to allow client mappings.
B. Provide a secure FTP site for presentation and training material uploads.
C. Maintain the current environment since it currently allows users to map their drives.
D. Move the Secure Gateway/Web Interface server to the DMZ in the environment to allow for remote connections.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
Scenario: In order to ensure that additional servers and client desktops can be made available as quickly as possible, Healthy Helping Hands is eager to take advantage of the functionality of Provisioning Services to provide virtual hard drives for virtual servers and workstations. However, one of the main requirements from Healthy Helping Hands is that virtualized applications should seamlessly failover to the designated backup datacenter when necessary.
What should an architect suggest for the storage of desktop and/or server vDisks in order to comply with the company’s requirement?
A. A distributed SAN to store all virtual hard drives
B. A centralized SAN to store all virtual hard drives
C. The local hard drive of the user’s file or profile server to store the virtual hard drives
D. The local hard drive of the first Provisioning Services server installed to store the virtual hard drives
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
Due to difficulties with the current Secure Gateway environment, an architect has been asked to ensure that remote users will only have to enter their credentials once in order to gain secure access to all of their resources.
Which architectural components are required to best achieve this goal?
A. Web Interface with 128-bit SSL enabled and Password Manager
B. Access Gateway, Advanced Access Control and Password Manager
C. Web Interface with 128-bit SSL, Advanced Access Control and Password Manager
D. Access Gateway, Web Interface, Advanced Access Control and Password Manager
Correct Answer: D

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220-901 dumps
QUESTION 1
The OSD of a monitor indicates the proper video source is selected, but no image is displayed. Which of the following issues are the MOST likely reasons? {Select TWO).
A. The source cable is disconnected
B. The monitor\’s brightness is set too low
C. The backlighting of the monitor is faulty
D. The monitor\’s contrast is set too high
E. No device is sending source video
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 2
Which of the following would typically require the use of a punchdown tool to connect a cable to the network switch?
A. Router
B. Repeater
C. Patch panel
D. PoE injector
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Which of the following adapters converts an analog signal to a digital signal?
A. S-Video to RCA
B. HDMI to VGA
C. VGA to DVI-D
D. DVI-D to HDMI
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Which of the following is an advantage of UDP over TCP?
A. It is connection based.
B. It uses flow control.
C. It transfers packets faster.
D. It uses connection handshakes.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
The technician is troubleshooting a connection issue between the switch and the wall jack. The user is plugged into the jack; however, there is no connection. 220-901 dumps The technician goes into the switch room to see if the cable is plugged into the switch, but none of the cables are labeled. Which of the following tools would the technician MOST likely use to find this cable?
A. WiFi analyzer
B. Loopback plug
C. Multimeter
D. Tone generator
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Drag and drop the characteristics to the correct printer types. Options may be used once.
220-901 dumps
Correct Answer:
220-901 dumps
QUESTION 7
Which of the following is a type of fiber connector?
A. RJ-11
B. F-connector
C. BNC
D. ST
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
A technician is building a workstation that is to be used as an HTPC and will sit next to the audio receiver. Which of the following form factors would the technician MOST likely use because of its size?
A. ATX
B. Mini-ITX
C. AT
D. Micro-ATX
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Which of the following adapter types uses a 7-pin cable to transmit video signals?
A. RGB
B. S-Video
C. HDMI
D. DVI
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Which of the following would need to be enabled on a mobile phone to share its Internet connection with multiple devicessimultaneously?
A. NFC
B. Bluetooth
C. Hotspot
D. Tethering
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
A user notices the printer that is used for printing global shipper’s labels is missing columns in the printed labels. 220-901 dumps The special label stock is new and appears to be fine. Which of the following should the technician perform FIRST when troubleshooting this problem?
A. Remove any stuck labels from the paper path
B. Clean the pickup rollers and check them for wear
C. Clean the print head with approved materials
D. Replace and realign the print head
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
A technician is tasked with upgrading the hard drives of a high-end workstation to SSD. The drives must be configured in a RAID array, but the RAID card does not support SSD. Which of the following would the technician verify in order to use the new drives?
A. Controller firmware
B. Power requirements
C. File system type
D. System BIOS
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
A user is watching streaming video on a home network, but experiences buffering and delays when there are too many people on the network. Which of the following is MOST likely to resolve the issue?
A. Disable SSID broadcast
B. Setup UPnP
C. Enable QoS
D. Configure DMZ
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
A technician is installing a wireless router to be used as an access point. The company firewall will assign IP addresses to devices on the wireless network. Which of the following settings does the technician need to disable on the wireless router to accomplish this?
A. NAT
B. DMZ
C. PAT
D. DHCP
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15
A technician is building a new PC and notices that it has 8 DIMM sockets labeled 0 through 7. Four are white and four are blue. Which of the following should the technician do FIRST?
A. Install the memory in the four white slots
B. Install the memory in the four blue slots
C. Consult the motherboard documentation
D. Install the memory in slots 0 through 3
E. Fill all slots with memory
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
A technician is tasked with setting up a workstation in a new location. The technician realizes there is no network connectivity and the workstation’s NIC does not have a link light. Given the connection in the wall is correctly labeled, which of the following would be BEST for the technician to use NEXT?
A. A multimeter
B. A tone generator
C. A cable tester
D. A punchdown tool
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
Which of the following is an advantage of using static IP addresses for a business? 220-901 dumps
A. High availability
B. Simplifies IP management
C. Lower security risk
D. Scalability for upgrades
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
Which of the following is used to facilitate communications with a user’s smartphone in order to make purchases and payments by proximity?
A. Bluetooth
B. IR
C. NFC
D. WPS
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
Which of the following devices is primarily intended to provide 24/7 diagnostic and biometric data regarding the user?
A. Fitness monitor
B. e-Reader
C. Smartwatch
D. Smartphone
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
A technician needs to set up a VPN for a small office. To ensure the network traffic is routed to the correct machine, which of the following MUST the technician do on the router to accommodate this?
A. Port forwarding
B. Port redundancy
C. Port triggering
D. Port selection
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 21
A small ISP has hired a new technician. Joe, the new technician, is being trained to configure customers\’ home networks. The training instructor gives the technician a starter kit with cables, cable ends, and other network equipment and asks him to build a working network. The computer should be connected to have Internet connectivity and the phone should be connected to have dial tone. Instructions: Use the appropriate cables, cable ends, tools and equipment to configure the network and connect all components accordingly. When you have completed the simulation, please select the Done button to submit. Once the simulation is submitted, please select the Next button to continue.
220-901 dumps
220-901 dumps
Correct Answer:
220-901 dumps
QUESTION 22
Joe, a user, receives a wireless router from his ISP with a pre-set password and configuration. He can connect to the router fine via Ethernet but cannot see the wireless signal on any of his devices. The LEDs on the router indicate that a wireless signal is broadcasting. Which of the following settings on the router does Joe need to adjust to enable the devices to see the wireless signal?
A. DHCP
B. IPv6
C. DMZ
D. SSID
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 23
A user reports that the mouse is not working properly. The technician notices on the user\’s workstation that the mouse cursor spins for several minutes before the technician can use the mouse. 220-901 dumps Which of the following is the cause of the issue?
A. Failed Operating System
B. Faulty mouse
C. Faulty CPU
D. Not enough memory
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 24
A user reports an inkjet printer is constantly feeding two sheets of paper for every page printed. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason?
A. Poor paper quality
B. Incorrect paper size
C. Defective duplexer
D. Worn feed rollers
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 25
A technician needs to boot a PC from a USB drive. Which of the following settings should be disabled to accomplish this task?
A. Fast Boot
B. UEFI Admin Password
C. Secure Boot
D. Legacy Boot
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 26
A technician is tasked with selecting components to build a computer that will be used for computer-aided drafting and computer aided modeling. Which of the following components are the BEST choices? (Select TWO).
A. Triple channel memory
B. MIDI sound card
C. Socket 1156 motherboard
D. Onboard graphics
E. Socket 1366 CPU
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 27
Which of the following expansion slots uses a serial connection?
A. PCI
B. PCI-X
C. PCIe
D. AGP
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 28
Which of the following expansion slots is MOST commonly used for high-end video cards?
A. PCI
B. PCIe
C. CNR
D. AGP
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 29
A user, Ann, is preparing to travel abroad and wants to ensure that her laptop will work properly. Which of the following components of the laptop should be verified FIRST to ensure power compatibility before traveling?
A. Wall adapter
B. Battery
C. Power supply
D. Digitizer
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 30
Ann, a user, boots her laptop and notices the screen flashes then turns black. It was working during her presentation yesterday. Which of the following troubleshooting steps should be completed?
A. Use a multimeter to test voltage.
B. Replace the laptop with a new one.
C. Replace the battery.
D. Connect an external display device.
Correct Answer: D

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210-260 dumps
QUESTION 1
In what type of attack does an attacker virtually change a device\’s burned-in address in an attempt to circumvent access lists and mask the device\’s true identity?
A. gratuitous ARP
B. ARP poisoning
C. IP spoofing
D. MAC spoofing
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit.
210-260 dumps
While troubleshooting site-to-site VPN, you issued the show crypto ipsec sa command. What does the given output show?
A. IPSec Phase 2 is established between 10.1.1.1 and 10.1.1.5.
B. ISAKMP security associations are established between 10.1.1.5 and 10.1.1.1.
C. IKE version 2 security associations are established between 10.1.1.1 and 10.1.1.5.
D. IPSec Phase 2 is down due to a mismatch between encrypted and decrypted packets.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which statement correctly describes the function of a private VLAN?
A. A private VLAN partitions the Layer 2 broadcast domain of a VLAN into subdomains
B. A private VLAN partitions the Layer 3 broadcast domain of a VLAN into subdomains
C. A private VLAN enables the creation of multiple VLANs using one broadcast domain
D. A private VLAN combines the Layer 2 broadcast domains of many VLANs into one major broadcast domain
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
What are two ways to prevent eavesdropping when you perform device-management tasks? 210-260 dumps (Choose two.)
A. Use an SSH connection.
B. Use SNMPv3.
C. Use out-of-band management.
D. Use SNMPv2.
E. Use in-band management.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.
210-260 dumps
What are two effects of the given command? (Choose two.)
A. It configures authentication to use AES 256.
B. It configures authentication to use MD5 HMAC.
C. It configures authorization use AES 256.
D. It configures encryption to use MD5 HMAC.
E. It configures encryption to use AES 256.
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 6
SYN flood attack is a form of ?
A. Denial of Service attack
B. Man in the middle attack
C. Spoofing attack
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
You have been tasked with blocking user access to websites that violate company policy, but the sites use dynamic IP addresses. What is the best practice for URL filtering to solve the problem?
A. Enable URL filtering and use URL categorization to block the websites that violate company policy.
B. Enable URL filtering and create a blacklist to block the websites that violate company policy.
C. Enable URL filtering and create a whitelist to block the websites that violate company policy.
D. Enable URL filtering and use URL categorization to allow only the websites that company policy allows users to access.
E. Enable URL filtering and create a whitelist to allow only the websites that company policy allows users to access.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which firewall configuration must you perform to allow traffic to flow in both directions between two zones? 210-260 dumps
A. You must configure two zone pairs, one for each direction.
B. You can configure a single zone pair that allows bidirectional traffic flows for any zone.
C. You can configure a single zone pair that allows bidirectional traffic flows for any zone except the self zone.
D. You can configure a single zone pair that allows bidirectional traffic flows only if the source zone is the less secure zone.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which statements about smart tunnels on a Cisco firewall are true? (Choose two.)
A. Smart tunnels can be used by clients that do not have administrator privileges
B. Smart tunnels support all operating systems
C. Smart tunnels offer better performance than port forwarding
D. Smart tunnels require the client to have the application installed locally
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit.
210-260 dumps
What type of firewall would use the given configuration line?
A. a stateful firewall
B. a personal firewall
C. a proxy firewall
D. an application firewall
E. a stateless firewall
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
A proxy firewall protects against which type of attack?
A. cross-site scripting attack
B. worm traffic
C. port scanning
D. DDoS attacks
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Which Sourcefire event action should you choose if you want to block only malicious traffic from a particular end user?
A. Allow with inspection
B. Allow without inspection
C. Block
D. Trust
E. Monitor
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Which statement about zone-based firewall configuration is true? 210-260 dumps
A. Traffic is implicitly denied by default between interfaces the same zone
B. Traffic that is desired to or sourced from the self-zone is denied by default
C. The zone must be configured before a can be assigned
D. You can assign an interface to more than one interface
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
What VPN feature allows traffic to exit the security appliance through the same interface it entered?
A. hairpinning
B. NAT
C. NAT traversal
D. split tunneling
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
You have implemented a Sourcefire IPS and configured it to block certain addresses utilizing Security Intelligence IP Address Reputation. A user calls and is not able to access a certain IP address. What action can you take to allow the user access to the IP address?
A. Create a whitelist and add the appropriate IP address to allow the traffic.
B. Create a custom blacklist to allow the traffic.
C. Create a user based access control rule to allow the traffic.
D. Create a network based access control rule to allow the traffic.
E. Create a rule to bypass inspection to allow the traffic.
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. An organizational unit (OU) named OU1 contains the user accounts and the computer accounts for laptops and desktop computers. A Group Policy object (GPO) named GP1 is linked to OU1. You need to ensure that the configuration settings in GP1 are applied only to the laptops in OU1. The solution must ensure that GP1 is applied automatically to new laptops that are added to OU1. What should you do?
A. Modify the GPO Status of GP1.
B. Configure the WMI Filter of GP1.
C. Modify the security settings of GP1.
D. Modify the security settings of OU1.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains an application server named Server1. Server1 runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You have a client application named App1 that communicates to Server1 by using dynamic TCP ports. On Server1, a technician runs the following command: New-NetFirewallRule -DisplayName AllowDynamic -Direction Outbound – LocalPort 1024- 65535 -Protocol TCP Users report that they can no longer connect to Server1 by using Appl. You need to ensure that App1 can connect to Server1. What should you run on Server1?
A. Set-NetFirewallRule -DisplayName AllowDynamic -Action Allow
B. netsh advfirewall firewall set rule name=allowdynamic new action = allow
C. Set-NetFirewallRule -DisplayName AllowDynamic -Direction Inbound
D. netsh advfirewall firewall add rule name=allowdynamic action=allow
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
You work as an administrator at ABC.com. The ABC.com network consists of a single domain named ABC.com. All servers in the ABC.com domain, including domain controllers, have Windows Server 2012 R2 installed. ABC.com’s user accounts are located in an organizational unit (OU), named ABCStaff. 70-410 dumps
ABC.com’s managersbelong to a group, named ABCManagers. You have been instructed to create a new Group Policy object (GPO) that should be linked to the ABCStaffOU, but not affect ABC.com’s managers.
Which of the following actions should you take?
A. You should consider removing the user accounts of the managers from the ABCStaff OU.
B. You should consider configuring the new GPO’s WMI filter.
C. You should consider adding the user accounts of ABC.com’s managers to the Admins group.
D. You should consider adding the user accounts of ABC.com’s managers to the localAdministrators group.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
You work as an administrator at L2P.com. The L2P.com network consists of a single domain named L2P.com. All servers in the L2P.com domain have Windows Server 2012 R2 installed, while domain controllers have Windows Server 2008 R2 installed.
You are then tasked with deploying a new Windows Server 2012 R2 domain controller. You are preparing to install the DNS Server role, and enable the global catalog server option.
Which of the following actions should you take?
A. You should consider making use of Server Manager.
B. You should consider making use of the Active Directory Installation Wizard.
C. You should consider making use of the DHCP Installation Wizard
D. You should consider making use of TS Manager
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a member server named Server1. Server1 runs Windows Server 2012 and has the File Server server role installed.
On Server1, you create a share named Documents. The Share permission for the Documents share is configured as shown in the following table.
70-410 dumps
The NTFS permission for the Documents share is configured as shown in the following table.
70-410 dumps
You need to configure the Share and NTFS permissions for the Documents share. The permissions must meet the following requirements:
– Ensure that the members of a group named Group1 can read files and run programs in – Documents. Ensure that the members of Group1 can modify the permissions on their own files in Documents.
– Ensure that the members of Group1 can create folders and files in Documents.
– Minimize the number of permissions assigned to users and groups.
How should you configure the permissions?
To answer, drag the appropriate permission to the correct location. Each permission may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
Select and Place:
70-410 dumps
Correct Answer:
70-410 dumps
QUESTION 6
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1. 70-410 dumps The domain contains a standalone server named Server2 that is located in a perimeter network. Both servers run Windows Server 2012 R2.
You need to manage Server2 remotely from Server1.
What should you do?
A. From Server2, run the Enable-PsRemoting cmdlet.
B. From Server1, run the winrni command.
C. From Server2, run the winrm command.
D. From Server1, run the Enable-PsRemoting cmdlet.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Your network contains a file server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.All client computers run Windows 8.
You need to ensure that when users are connected to the network, they always use local offline files that are cached from Server1.
Which Group Policy setting should you configure?
A. Configure Slow link speed.
B. Turn on economical application of administratively assigned Offline Files.
C. Configure slow-link mode.
D. Enable file synchronization on costed networks.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a memberserver named Server1. Server1 runs Windows Server 2012 R2 and has the Hyper-V server role installed.
You create an external virtual switch named Switch1. Switch1 has the following configurations:
– Connection type: External network
– Single-root I/O visualization (SR-IOV): Enabled
– Ten virtual machines connect to Switch1.
You need to ensure that all of the virtual machines that connect to Switch1 are isolated from the external network and can connect to each other only. The solution must minimize network downtime for the virtual machines. What should you do?
A. Change the Connection type of Switch1 to Internal network.
B. Change the Connection type of Switch1 to Private network.
C. Remove Switch1 and recreate Switch1 as an internal network.
D. Remove Switch1 and recreate Switch1 as a private network.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
You work as a senior administrator at L2P.com. The L2P.com network consists of a single domain named L2P.com. All servers on the L2P.com network have Windows Server 2012 R2 installed. 70-410 dumps You are running a training exercise for junior administrators. You are currently discussing Group Policy preference.
Which of the following is TRUE with regards to Group Policy preference?
A. It supports applications and operating system features that are not compatible with Group Policy
B. It does not support item-level targeting.
C. It is the same as Group Policy filtering.
D. It does not cause the application or operating system feature to disable the user interface for the settings they configure.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 10
You work as a senior administrator at L2P.com. The L2P.com network consists of a single domain named L2P.com. All servers on the L2P.com network have Windows Server 2012 R2 installed. You are running a training exercise for junior administrators. You are currently discussing connection security rules.
Which of the following is TRUE with regards to connection security rules? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Connection security rules allows for traffic to be secured via IPsec.
B. Connection security rules do not allow the traffic through the firewall.
C. Connection security rules are applied to programs or services.
D. Connection security rules are applied between two computers.
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 11
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You try to install the Microsoft .NET Framework 3.5 Features feature on Server1, but the installation fails repeatedly. You need to ensure that the feature can be installed on Server1. What should you do?
A. Install the Web Server (IIS) server role.
B. Run the Add-WindowsPackagecmdlet.
C. Run the Add-AppxProvisionedPackagecmdlet.
D. Connect Server1 to the Internet.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
You have a server named Server1 that has the Print and Document Services server role installed. You need to provide users with the ability to manage print jobs on Server1 by using a web browser.
What should you do?
A. Start the Computer Browser service and set the service to start automatically.
B. Install the LPD Service role service.
C. Install the Internet Printing role service.
D. Start the Printer Extensions and Notifications service and set the service to start automatically.
Correct Answer: C

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070-487 dumps
QUESTION 1
You need to separate the business and complex logic into components.
Which actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. In the JavaScript code, register the handler for the extension/mime-type.
B. In the package.appxmanifest file, create an Extensions section and register the component .dll file.
C. In Windows Explorer, drag the component .dll file to the project bin directory.
D. In Microsoft Visual Studio Solution Explorer, right-click the References folder and then click Scope to This.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 2
You need to enable debugging on the Personal Trainer app.
Which JavaScript project properties should you set? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution Choose all that apply.)
A. Set Allow Local Network Loopback to No.
B. Set Debugger Type to Script Only.
C. Set Debugger Type to Managed Only.
D. Set Debugger to launch to Local Machine.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 3
You need to validate whether the additional video recording functionality for the Client app is supported.
Which code segment should you insert at line VD05?
A. var canPan = mediaCaptureSettings.pan.capabilities.supported;
B. var canPan = videoDev.pan.capabilities.supported;
C. var canTilt = videoDev.getDeviceProperty(“tilt”);
D. var canTilt = videoEev.getDeviceProperty(“tilt supported”);
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
You need to implement the audit log. 070-487 dumps
What should you do?
A. When the user moves the device, create a Windows Event Log entry.
B. When the user moves the device, create a custom log file entry.
C. When the user touches a button, create a Windows Event Log entry.
D. When the user touches a button, create a custom log file entry.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
You need to handle the exception error in the clientData.js file.
What should you do?
A. Modify the display function to handle the error.
B. Insert a try statement immediately after line CD07 and a catch block immediately before line CD14. Handle the error in the catch block.
C. Modify the processError function to handle the error.
D. Insert a try statement immediately after line CD01 and a catch block immediately before line CD15. Handle the error in the catch block.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
You need to prevent the device-specific tilting exception.
What should you do in the video.js file?
A. Insert a try statement immediately after line VD01 and a catch block immediately before line VD08. Handle the VideoNotFound exception.
B. Evaluate the canTilt variable. If true, bypass the code that tilts the camera.
C. Evaluate the canTilt variable. If false, bypass the code that tilts the camera.
D. Insert a try statement immediately after line VD01 and a catch block immediately before line VD08. Handle the MediaNotFound exception.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
the data is synced, all changes need to be merged together without causing any data loss or corruption.
You need to implement the Sync() method in the MargiesTravelSync.es file.
What should you do? (To answer, drag the appropriate code segments to the correct location or locations in the answer area. Each code segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)
Select and Place:
070-487 dumps
Correct Answer:
070-487 dumps
QUESTION 8
You need to complete the code to start the background task.
Which code segment should you insert at line BG07?
A. Windows.ApplicationModel.Background.SystemTriggerType.connectedStateChange, true
B. Windows.ApplicationModel.Background.SystemTriggerType.networkStateChange, false
C. Windows.ApplicationModel.Background.SystemTriggerType.sessionConnected, true
D. Windows.ApplicationModel.Background.SystemTriggerType.internetAvailable, false
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
You need to identify the required camera specifications. 070-487 dumps
Which code segment should you insert at line VD06?
A. var maxZoom = videoDev.zoom.capabilities.max;
B. var cameraType = videoDev.extendedZoomProperties(“cameraType”);
C. var cameraZoom = videoDev.zoom;
D. var minZoom = mediaCaptureSettings.min.millimeters;
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
You need to attach the background task.
Which code segment should you insert at line BG09?
A. var task = builder.register( );
B. var task = Windows. ApplicationModel.Background.BackgroundTaskBuilder.insert (builder);
C. var task: = Windows.ApplicationModel.Background.BackgroundTaskBuilder.insert (builder, this);
D. var task = builder.setTrigger ( );
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
You need to resolve the issue of unavailable obstacle data.
What should you do?
A. Store the obstacle data in cloud storage.
B. Download the obstacles database when the app is installed, and update the database when the app is updated.
C. Store the obstacle data in indexDB storage.
D. Store the obstacle data in the SessionStorage object.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
You need to prevent the exception that is being thrown by the findCamera( ) method.
What should you do?
A. Check the devices collection for multiple devices.
B. Place a try block immediately after line VD12 and a catch block immediately before line VD17. In the catch block, display the message property of the exception object to the user.
C. In line VD10, set the cameraID variable to null.
D. Check the devices collection for null before setting the cameraID variable.
Correct Answer: D

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Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: Microsoft Office 365
Exam Name: Enabling Office 365 Services
Exam Code: 070-347
Total Questions: 219 Q&As
070-347 dumps
QUESTION 1
Your company has an Office 365 Small Business subscription. You are the Microsoft SharePoint Online administrator. The company wants to have two separate public websites with different URLs. You need to configure the environment to support the public websites.
What should you do?
A. Upgrade to SharePoint Online for Office 365 Enterprise, Education, and Government.
B. Create one public website and one subsite, and then configure a redirect.
C. Create two public websites and configure the DNS records for each site.
D. Upgrade to SharePoint Online for Office 365 Midsize Business.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. Executive employees have been assigned E3 licenses. Non-executive employees have been assigned El licenses. An employee who is not on the executive team wants to communicate with executive team members by using Microsoft Lync instant messaging.
You need to ensure that the employee can use Lync.
What should you do?
A. Sign in to the Office 365 portal and use Office on Demand.
B. Sign in to the Office 365 portal and then run the Office 365 Desktop Setup.
C. Sign in to the Office 365 portal and then download and install Office 365 ProPlus.
D. Sign in to the Office 365 portal and then download and install the Lync Basic desktop client.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Your company plans to use Office 365 and Microsoft SharePoint Online. Another employee provisions the company’s Office 365 tenant. You discover that the employee can create and manage SharePoint site collections. You need to prevent the employee from creating or managing site collections.
From which role should you remove the employee?
A. Service administrator
B. SharePoint Online administrator
C. Global administrator
D. Site collection administrator
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. The company’s environment includes Office 2007, Office 2010, Office 2013, Windows 7, and Windows 8.The company uses Office Telemetry. 070-347 dumps You need to collect Office version usage data for an upcoming migration to Office 365 ProPlus.
What should you do?
A. Open documents by using Office 2007, Office 2010, or Office 2013 on client computers that run Windows 7.
B. Use the Get-MsolUsercmdlet with the ServiceStatus parameter.
C. Search network shares for Office documents and export the results to a .log file.
D. Search local computers for Office documents and export the results to a .csv file.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company’s Microsoft Exchange Online environment. The company recently subscribed to the Office 365 Enterprise El plan.
The company wants to filter email messages based on the following criteria:
– Reverse DNS lookup
– Sender open proxy test
– HELO/EHLO analysis
– Analysis of spam confidence level (SCL) ratings on email messages from a specific sender
You need to filter all email messages.
How should you complete the relevant Windows PowerShell script? To answer, select the appropriate command segment from each list in the answer area.
070-347 dumps
070-347 dumps
Correct Answer:
070-347 dumps
QUESTION 6
Your company is planning to migrate to Microsoft Exchange Online. The company employs 5,000 people, each with a mailbox currently located on Exchange Server 2000.
The company has the following migration requirements:
– Move mailboxes in batches.
– Do not migrate calendar or contact items.
– Provide migration status reports to administrators.
You need to select the appropriate migration strategy.
Which migration strategy should you use?
A. Staged migration
B. Cutover migration
C. IMAP migration
D. Hybrid migration
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Your company uses Office 365 and has an Enterprise E3 license plan. Employees are issued laptop computers that are configured with a standard image. The image includes an installation of Office 365 ProPlus that must be activated by the employees. An employee recently received a new laptop computer to replace an older laptop. The older laptop will be reimaged. When the employee attempts to start Word for the first time, she receives a message saying that she cannot activate it because she has already activated five devices. You need to help the employee activate Office on her new laptop computer.
What should you do?
A. Assign a second E3 license to the employee.
B. Remove the employee’s E3 license and then assign a new E3 license.
C. Sign in to the Office 365 portal as the employee and deactivate the old laptop.
D. Sign in to the Office 365 portal by using your Global Admin account and then deactivate the old laptop.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Your company uses Microsoft SharePoint Online for collaboration. 070-347 dumps
A document library is configured as shown in the following table.
070-347 dumps
You need to enable the coauthoring of documents in the library.
What should you do?
A. Change the Who should see draft items in this document library? setting to Any user who can read items.
B. Change the Create a version each time you edit a file in this document library? setting to No Versioning.
C. Change the Require documents to be checked out before they can be edited? setting to No.
D. Change the Require content approval for submitted items? setting to No.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Your company has an Office 365 Enterprise El subscription. The company wants to implement an enterprise document collaboration and social networking platform that allows users to upload documents from their computers and conduct informal polls. You need to implement a solution that meets the requirements.
Which solution should you implement?
A. Microsoft SharePoint document libraries
B. Microsoft SharePoint surveys
C. Microsoft Yammer
D. Microsoft SharePoint newsfeeds
E. Microsoft SkyDrive Pro
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. All users have been assigned E3 licenses and use Office Web Apps to create and edit documents. A user attempts to access documents stored on a USB flash drive. When the user double-clicks a file that is stored on the USB flash drive, an error message states that Windows can’t open the file and needs to know what program to use to open it. You need to ensure that the user can start Office applications and edit Office documents by double-clicking files.
What should you do on the user’s computer?
A. Use Office on Demand.
B. Install Office 365 ProPlus from the Office 365 portal.
C. Copy the files from the USB flash drive to the local hard drive.
D. Install and configure Microsoft Word Viewer.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. The company has a single Active Directory Domain Services domain. 070-347 dumps As part of the Office 365 deployment, the company is preparing to deploy Office Telemetry. You need to disguise file names and document titles, while still collecting the telemetry data.
What should you do?
A. In the Telemetry Dashboard, display only files that are used by multiple users.
B. On each client computer, edit the registry to prevent telemetry logging.
C. In the Telemetry Dashboard, obfuscate the document name, title, and path.
D. In the Telemetry Dashboard, apply a label named Private to employees.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Your company uses Office 365 and has an Enterprise E3 plan. The company has a Microsoft SharePoint Online public website that is currently configured to use the onmicrosoft.com domain name.
The company purchases a new domain name. You need to change the address of the SharePoint Online public website to the new domain name.
What should you do first?
A. In the SharePoint Online Administration Center, add the new domain.
B. In the Office 365 admin center, add the new domain.
C. Create a new site collection and assign it the new domain.
D. Create a new public website and assign it to the new domain.
Correct Answer: B

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Certifications: CCDP
Exam Name: Designing Cisco Network Service Architectures
Exam Code: 300-320
Total Questions: 415 Q&As
300-320 dumps
QUESTION 1
A network design engineer has been asked to reduce the size of the SPT on an IS-IS broadcast network.
Which option should the engineer recommend to accomplish this task?
A. Configure the links as point-to-multipoint.
B. Configure QoS in all links.
C. Configure a new NET address.
D. Configure the links as point-to-point.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which option describes why duplicate IP addresses reside on the same network in Cisco network design?
A. HSRP designed network
B. using Cisco ACE in active/passive mode
C. VRRP designed network
D. running multiple routing protocols
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which option describes why duplicate IP addresses reside on the same network in Cisco network design?
A. HSRP designed network
B. using Cisco ACE in active/passive mode
C. VRRP designed network
D. running multiple routing protocols
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which two benefits are achieved if a network is designed properly with a structured addressing scheme? 300-320 dumps (Choose two.)
A. efficient ACLs
B. improved redundancy
C. hardened security
D. easier troubleshooting
E. added resiliency
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 5
Which protocol should be configured if a network administrator wants to configure multiple physical gateways to participate simultaneously in packet forwarding?
A. HSRP
B. VRRP
C. GLBP
D. VTP
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
300-320 dumps
Select and Place:
300-320 dumps
Correct Answer:
300-320 dumps
QUESTION 7
Which two types of authentication mechanisms can be used by VRRP for security? (Choose two.)
A. SHA-1
B. MD5
C. SHA-256
D. plaintext authentication
E. PEAP
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 8
Which Layer 2 messaging protocol maintains VLAN configuration consistency?
A. VTP
B. VSS
C. LLDP
D. CDP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which two options are storage topologies? 300-320 dumps (Choose two.)
A. WAS
B. DAS
C. CAS
D. NAS
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 10
Which algorithm does IS-IS use to determine the shortest path through a network?
A. Bellman-Ford routing algorithm
B. Johnson’s algorithm
C. Dijkstra’s algorithm
D. Floyd-Warshall algorithm
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Which two physical components can enable high availability on a Cisco 6500 device? (Choose two.)
A. dual supervisor modules
B. bundled Ethernet Interconnects
C. line modules with DFCs
D. redundant power supplies
E. VSS interlink cables
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 12
A company implemented VoIP in a campus network and now wants a consistent method to implement using AutoQoS. Which two parameters must be considered before AutoQoS is configured? (Choose two.)
A. CEF must be enabled.
B. AutoQoS is available only on routers.
C. Traffic discovery must be performed manually.
D. No service policy can be applied already.
E. Manual traffic analysis must be performed.
Correct Answer: AD

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