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Latest updates Cisco 350-401 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1:

What is the correct EBGP path attribute list, ordered from most preferred to the least preferred, that the BGP best-path Does algorithm use?

A. weight. AS path, local preference. MED
B. weight, local preference AS path, MED
C. local preference weight AS path, MED
D. local preference, weight MED, AS path

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2:

Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the correct routing protocol types on the right.
Select and Place:

lead4pass 350-401 exam questions q1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 350-401 exam questions q1-1

QUESTION 3:

At which Layer does the Cisco DNA Center support REST controls?

A. EEM applets or scripts
B. Session layer
C. YMAL output from responses to API calls
D. Northbound APIs

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4:

A network is being migrated from IPV4 to IPV6 using a dual-stack approach. Network management is already 100%
IPV6 enabled.
In a dual-stack network with two dual-stack NetFlow collections, how many flow exporters are needed per network device in the flexible NetFlow configuration?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5:

Which two descriptions of FlexConnect mode for Cisco APs are true? (Choose two.)

A. APS that operate in FlexConnect mode cannot detect rogue APs.
B. FlexConnect mode is used when the APs are set up in a mesh environment and used to bridge between each other.
C. FlexConnect mode is a feature that is designed to allow specified CAPWAP-enabled APs to exclude themselves from
managing data traffic between clients and infrastructure.
D. When connected to the controller, FlexConnect APs can tunnel traffic back to the controller.
E. FlexConnect mode is a wireless solution for branch office and remote office deployments.

Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 6:

To increase total throughput and redundancy on the links between the wireless controller and switch, the customer
enabled LAG on the wireless controller. Which EtherChannel mode must be configured on the switch to allow the WLC
to connect?

A. Auto
B. Active
C. On
D. Passive

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7:

Refer to the exhibit.

lead4pass 350-401 exam questions q7

Assuming that R is a CE router, which VRF is assigned to Gi0/0 on R1?

A. VRF VPN_B
B. Default VRF
C. Management VRF
D. VRF VPN_A

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8:

Which statement about agent-based versus agentless configuration management tools is true?

A. Agentless tools require no messaging systems between masters and slaves.
B. Agentless tools use proxy nodes to interface with slave nodes.
C. Agent-based tools do not require a high-level language interpreter such as Python or Ruby on slave nodes.
D. Agent-based tools do not require the installation of additional software packages on the slave nodes.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9:

Which LISP infrastructure device provides connectivity between non-sites and LISP sites by receiving non-LISP traffic
with a LISP site destination?

A. PETR
B. PITR
C. map resolver
D. map server

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10:
lead4pass 350-401 exam questions q10

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is designing a guest portal on Cisco ISE using the default configuration. During the
testing phase, the engineer receives a warning when displaying the guest portal. Which issue is occurring?

A. The server that is providing the portal has an expired certificate
B. The server that is providing the portal has a self-signed certificate
C. The connection is using an unsupported protocol
D. The connection is using an unsupported browser

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11:

Which technology provides a secure communication channel for all traffic at Layer 2 of the OSI model?

A. MACsec
B. IPsec
C. SSL
D. Cisco Trusts

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12:

Which two pieces of information are necessary to compute SNR? (Choose two.)

A. EIRP
B. noise floor
C. antenna gain
D. RSSI
E. transmit power

Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 13:

Which behavior can be expected when the HSRP versions are changed from 1 to 2?

A. Each HSRP group reinitializes because the virtual MAC address has changed.
B. No changes occur because versions 1 and 2 use the same virtual MAC OUI.
C. Each HSRP group reinitializes because the multicast address has changed.
D. No changes occur because the standby router is upgraded before the active router.

Correct Answer: A

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Tips: The answer is announced at the end of the article

QUESTION 1:

Which is a function performed by the dedicated third radio in MR access points?

A. RF optimization (Auto RF)
B. WLAN controller
C. Site survey planning
D. DHCP addressing

QUESTION 2:

Which feature solution of Cisco DNA Center drives the concept of SLA and guarantees that the infrastructure is doing
what do you intend it to do?

A. Cisco DNA Assurance
B. Cisco ACI Anywhere
C. Cisco DNA Spaces
D. Cisco HyperFlex

QUESTION 3:

Which approach describes the high-velocity Cisco Meraki sales cycle?

A. See, Try, Buy
B. Compete, Pilot, Support
C. POC, QandA, Rollout
D. Discover, Design, Demo

QUESTION 4:

What would be an indicator that a customer could benefit from a Meraki cloud-managed network?

A. Customer needs modular hardware customization and granular, command-line level interfacing

B. Customer prefers direct access to on-premises appliances and servers via in-line terminal management

C. Customer requires end-to-end visibility and a network that can be quickly deployed and easily managed by a limited
IT stat

D. Customer seeks to implement a diverse solution of firewalls with 3rd party integration alongside other clouds
application.

QUESTION 5:

What is the interface used to access the Cisco Meraki Dashboard?

A. Web browser
B. Terminal (Mac) or Command Prompt (Windows)
C. Cisco Los command-line interface (CLI)
D. Secure Shell (SSH)

QUESTION 6:

What do customers using the ISR 4000 and ISR 1100 series routers need to do to enable the Web User interface?

A. nothing, it is configured by default
B. purchase a license and configure an admin account for up to 5 routers
C. complete a configuration process with help from Cisco support
D. purchase a license for the browser-based system

QUESTION 7:

What is one benefit of Cisco Umbrella?

A. view of the network at a fixed point in the past to troubleshoot issues
B. protection against command-and-control callbacks
C. easy hardware installation
D. real-time telemetry

QUESTION 8:

What is one of the key drivers of growing security threats in the market?

A. comprehensive security solutions
B. security solution fragmentation
C. increased demand for cybersecurity professionals
D. hardware with integrated security solution

QUESTION 9:

What is the term given to cloud-brokered site-to-site VPN tunnels built using Cisco Meraki MX Security Appliances?

A. Auto-provisioning IPsec VPN (Auto VPN)
B. Secure Shell tunneling (SSH)
C. Generic Routing Encapsulation (GRE)
D. Dynamic Multipoint VPN (DMVPN)

QUESTION 10:

Which Cisco product is the network management system, foundational controller, and analytics platform all the center of
……. network?

A. Cisco DNA Spaces
B. Cisco Meraki
C. Cisco DNA Center
D. Cisco Wireless Solutions

QUESTION 11:

What is the one-way Catalyst 9200 that achieves IT simplicity?

A. view all network devices on a single pane of glass dashboard
B. remote wipe any device on the network
C. direct access devices wirelessly via OTA with Bluetooth
D. enable virtual stacking

QUESTION 12:

What is Cisco Switch Selector?

A. a tool that can help customers compare options and identify the right switch for their needs
B. a dashboard view of all an enterprise\’s switches
C. a configuration tool that helps small business customers rapidly deploy a new switch
D. a cloud-based solution to optimize network performance

QUESTION 13:

Which three product capabilities allow Cisco DNA Spaces to deliver business value?

A. Sense, Act, and Partner
B. View, Interpret, and Act
C. See, Anticipate and Respond
D. See, Act, and Extend

……

Publish the answer:

Numbers:Q1Q2Q3Q4Q5Q6Q7Q8Q9Q10Q11Q12Q13
Answers:AAACAABBBCAAD

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latest updated Cisco 700-765 exam questions and answers

QUESTION 1:

What are two ways that Cisco helps customers secure loT deployments? (Choose two.)

A. network analysis
B. secure remote access
C. segmentation and visibility
D. cross-architecture automation
E. limited access points

Correct Answer: CE

 

QUESTION 2:

Which statement best embodies trust-centric security?

A. Protect users from attacks by enabling strict security policies.
B. Prevent attacks via an intelligence-based policy then detect, investigate, and remediate.
C. Verify before granting access via identity-based policies for users, devices, apps, and locations.
D. Verify before granting access via MDM software.

Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 3:

In which two ways should companies modernize their security philosophies? (Choose two.)

A. Expand their IT departments
B. Decrease internal access and reporting
C. Complement threat-centric tactics with trust-centric methods
D. Reinforce their threat-centric security tactics
E. Rebuild their security portfolios with new solutions

Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 4:

In the Campus, NGFW use case, which capability is provided by NGFW and NGIPS?

A. Flexible AAA Options
B. Identity Services Engine
C. Differentiated Mobile Access
D. High throughput maintained while still protecting domains against threats

Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 5:

What are two steps customers can take to evolve to a trust-centric security philosophy? (Choose two.)

A. Require and install agents on mobile devices.
B. Block BYOD devices.
C. Limit internal access to networks
D. Always verify and never trust everything inside and outside the perimeter.
E. Only grant access to authorized users and devices.

Correct Answer: BE

 

QUESTION 6:

What are the three key benefits of Cisco NGFW? (Choose three.)

A. Reduces throughput
B. Prepares defenses
C. Reduces complexity
D. Identifies anomalous traffic
E. Detects and remediates threats faster
F. Increases traffic latency

Correct Answer: BCE

 

QUESTION 7:

Which feature of AnyConnect provides better access security across wired and wireless connections with 802.1X?

A. Trusted Network Detection
B. Secure Layer 2 Network Access
C. Flexible AAA Options
D. AnyConnect with AMP

Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 8:

What are the two key capabilities of Meraki? (Choose two.)

A. application visibility and control
B. security automation
C. contextual awareness
D. device profiling
E. identity-based and device-aware security

Correct Answer: AD

 

QUESTION 9:

What does Cisco provide via Firepower\\’s simplified, consistent management?

A. Reduced complexity
B. Improved speed to security
C. Reduced downtime
D. Higher value

Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 10:

What is a key feature of Duo?

A. Provides SSL VPN
B. Authenticates user identity for remote access
C. Automates policy creation for IT staff
D. Supports pxGrid

Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 11:

Which two loT environment layers are protected by AMP for Endpoints? (Choose two.)

A. Internet/Cloud
B. Control Layer
C. Data Center
D. Access Points
E. Things

Correct Answer: BD

 

QUESTION 12:

Which two Cisco products help manage data access policy consistently? (Choose two.)

A. Duo
B. Cloudlock
C. AMPforEndpoints
D. pxGrid
E. Steathwatch

Correct Answer: BD

 

QUESTION 13:

Which two loT environment layers are protected by Stealthwatch? (Choose two.)

A. Things
B. Endpoints
C. Internet/Cloud
D. Access Points
E. Control Layer

Correct Answer: AD

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QUESTION 1:

A wireless engineer is using an Ekahau site survey to validate that an existing wireless network is operating as expected, which type of survey should be used to identify the end-to-end network performance?

A. GPS assisted
B. Spectrum analysis
C. Passive
D. Active ping

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://support.ekahau.com/hc/en-us/articles/115004973067-Spectrum-Analysis-Surveys

 

QUESTION 2:

A customer called with a requirement that internal clients must be on different subnets depending on the building they are in. All-access points are operating in local mode and will not be modified, and this is a single controller solution.

Which design approach creates the desired result?

A. Create AP groups for each desired location, map the correct VLANs to the internal SSID, and add the access points for that location.

B. Create an SSID place it to the desired VLAN under WLANs and configure 802.1x in ISE to assign the correct VLAN based on the SSID from which the client is authenticating

C. Create FlexConnect groups, place the access points in and set the correct VLAN to SSID mapping based on location.

D. Create mobility anchors for the SSID and on the controller under the internal SSID create a foreign map to the desired VLAN based on location.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wireless-mobility/wireless-vlan/71477-ap-group-vlans-wlc.html

 

QUESTION 3:

A customer has two Cisco 550B WLCs that manage all the access points in their network and provide N+1 redundancy and load balancing. The primary Cisco WLC has 60 licenses and the secondary Cisco WLC has 40. The customer wants to convert the N+1 model to an HA model and provide SSO. Configuration must be performed during a maintenance window. After performing all the configurations on both controllers, the config redundancy unit secondary command is
issued on the secondary Cisco WLC and it fails.

Which parameter needs to be in place to complete the configuration?

A. A cable in the RP port
B. The secondary Cisco WLC needs a minimum of 50 base licenses
C. The primary Cisco WLC is already set as the secondary unit.
D. SSO needs to be enabled

Correct Answer: B

Reference:

 
QUESTION 4:

An engineer is designing a wireless deployment for a university auditorium. Which two features can be used to help deal
with the issues introduced by high AP count? (Choose two.)

A. TSPEC
B. RXSOP
C. TPC
D. LSS
E. DFS

Correct Answer: CE

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wireless-mobility/80211/200069-Overview-on-802-11h-Transmit-Power-Cont.html

 

QUESTION 5:

An engineer must repurpose a lab WLC appliance for use in the production environment of the enterprise. After the new WLC is configured with the information of the other WLC, the mobility tunnels are still not coming up. What is the reason?

A. A firewall is blocking UDP port 16667 between the WLCs.
B. The WLC management interfaces are in the same VLAN.
C. The hardware platform is incompatible.
D. The mobility groups are different.

Correct Answer: D

……

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Latest updates Cisco CCNP Enterprise 300-425 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
An engineer must ensure that the new wireless LAN deployment can support seamless roaming between access points
using a standard based on an amendment to the 802.11 protocol. Which protocol must the engineer select?
A. 802.11i
B. 802.11ac
C. 802.11r
D. 802.11e
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
A wireless engineer is utilizing the voice readiness tool in Cisco Prime for a customer that wants to deploy Cisco IP
phones. Which dBm range is the network inspected against?
A. -78 to -65 dBm
B. -72 to -67 dBm
C. -85 to -65 dBm
D. -85 to -67 dBm
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
An engineer is reducing the subnet size of the corporate WLAN by segmenting the VLAN into smaller subnets. Clients
will be assigned a subnet by location. Which type of groups can the engineer use to map the smaller subnets to the
corporate WLAN?
A. WLC port groups
B. RF groups
C. AP groups
D. interface groups
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
During a client roaming event, which device is responsible for communicating the new Layer 2 EID mapping of a
wireless supplicant to the fabric domain?
A. WLC
B. BN
C. CP2
D. CP1
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which non-Wi-Fi interferer can be identified by Metageek Chanalyzer?
A. PDAs
B. jammers
C. smartphones
D. printers
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Which two considerations must a network engineer have when planning for voice over wireless roaming? (Choose two.)
A. Full reauthentication introduces gaps in a voice conversation.
B. Roaming time increases when using 802.1x + Cisco Centralized Key Manegement.
C. Roaming occurs when the phone has seen at least four APs.
D. Roaming occurs when the phone has reached -80 dBs or below.
E. Roaming with only 802.1x authentication requires full reauthentication.
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 7
When conducting a site survey for real-time traffic over wireless, which two design capabilities of smartphones and
tablets must be considered? (Choose two.)
A. no support for 802.11ac
B. higher data rates than laptops
C. fewer antennas than laptops
D. no support for 802.11r
E. lower data rates than laptops
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 8
An engineer must decide the cell overlap for a wireless voice deployment. Which Cisco measurement recommendation
should be considered?
A. The edge of the cell should be -67 dBm.
B. The edge of the cell should be below 35 RSSI.
C. The measurement should be done on the 2.4-GHz band.
D. One AP should be deployed per 3000 square feet.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
A wireless deployment in a high-density environment is being used by vendors to process credit card payment
transactions via handheld mobile scanners. The scanners are having problems roaming between access points in the
environment. Which feature on the wireless controller should have been incorporated in the design?
A. RX SOP
B. 802.11w
C. AP Heartbeat Timeout
D. Application Visibility Control
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
An engineer has configured guest anchoring for a newly created SSD however, the mobility tunnels are not up, and
EPING is failing from the foreign WLC to the anchor WLC. Which traffic flow must be allowed at the firewall to enable
the communication?
A. UDP port 16666
B. IP protocol 97
C. UDP port 97
D. TCP port 97
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Clustering Cisco WLCs into a single RF group enables the RRM algorithms to scale beyond the capabilities of a single
Cisco WLC. How many WLC and APs in an RF group can the controller software scale up to in WLC release 8.9
depending on the platform?
A. up to 20 WLCs and 1000 APs
B. up to 20 WLCs and 3000 APs
C. up to 20 WLCs and 4000 APs
D. up to 20 WLCs and 6000 APs
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
A customer is running a guest WLAN with a foreign/export-anchor setup. There is one anchor WLC in the US and two in
Europe. Anchor WLC priorities are used to prefer local anchors. During a routine network audit, it is discovered that a
large number of guest client sessions in the US are anchored to the WLCs in Europe. Which reason explains this
behavior?
A. The foreign WLC failed and recovered.
B. The US anchor WLC failed and recovered.
C. The US anchor WLC is anchored to itself with a priority value of zero.
D. The anchor WLC is in the same mobility group.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
A customer is concerned about mesh backhaul link security. Which level of ecnryption does the backhaul link use?
A. hash
B. AES
C. WEP
D. 3DES
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1:

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must design an automatic failover solution. The solution should allow HSRP to detect a WAN 1 failure and initiate an automatic failover, making router R2 the active HSRP router. Which two solutions should the engineer choose? (Choose two.)

A. Implement Enhanced Object Tracking on roster R1
B. use a floating static route
C. Implement IP SLA on router R1
D. Implement PBR on router R1
E. use IP source routing

Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 2:

An engineer must design a VPN solution for a company that has multiple branches connecting to the main office. What are two advantages of using DMVPN instead of IPsec tunnels to accomplish this task? (Choose two.)

A. support for AES 256-bit encryption
B. greater scalability
C. support for anycast gateway
D. lower-traffic overhead
E. dynamic spoke-to-spoke tunnels

Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 3:

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is designing an OSPF network for a client. Requirements dictate that the routers in Area 1 should receive all routers belonging to the network, including EIGRP, except the ones originated in the RIP domain. Which action should the engineer take?

A. Make area 1 an NSSA.
B. Make area 1 a stub.
C. Make area 1 a standard OSPF area.
D. Make the area 1 router part of area 0.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4:

Which NETCONF operation creates filtering that is specific to the session notifications?

A.
B.
C.

D.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5:

A large chain of stores currently uses MPLS-based T1 lines to connect their stores to their data center. An architect must design a new solution to improve availability and reduce costs while keeping these considerations in mind:

1.
The company uses multicast to deliver training to the stores.
2.
The company uses dynamic routing protocols and has implemented QoS.
3.
To simplify deployments, tunnels should be created dynamically on the hub when additional stores open.
Which solution should be included in this design?

A. VPLS
B. GET VPN
C. DMVPN
D. IPsec

Correct Answer: C

……

Continue learning to see more free Cisco 300-420 exam questions

Latest updates Cisco CCNP Enterprise 300-420 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
Which feature is required for graceful restart to recover from a processor failure?
A. Cisco Express Forwarding
B. Virtual Switch System
C. Stateful Switchover
D. Bidirectional Forwarding Detection
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which nonproprietary mechanism can be used to automate rendezvous point distribution in a large PIM domain?
A. Embedded RP
B. BSR
C. Auto-RP
D. Static RP
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
An infrastructure team is concerned about the shared memory utilization of a device, and for this reason, they need to
monitor the device state. Which solution limits impact on the device and provides the required data?
A. IPFIX
B. static telemetry
C. on-change subscription
D. periodic subscription
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which control-plane technology allows the same subnet to exist across multiple network locations?
A. LISP
B. VXLAN
C. FabricPath
D. ISE mobility services
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which design consideration must be made when using IPv6 overlay tunnels?
A. Overlay tunnels that connect isolated IPv6 networks can be considered a final IPv6 network architecture.
B. Overlay tunnels should only be considered as a transition technique toward a permanent solution.
C. Overlay tunnels can be configured only between border devices and require only the IPv6 protocol stack.
D. Overlay tunneling encapsulates IPv4 packets in IPv6 packets for delivery across an IPv6 infrastructure.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
An engineer is designing an enterprise campus network. The LAN infrastructure consists of switches from multiple
vendors, and Spanning Tree must be used as a Layer 2 loop prevention mechanism. All configured VLANs must be
grouped in two SIP instances. Which standards-based Spanning Tree technology supports this design solution?
A. MSTP
B. RSTP
C. Rapid PVST
D. STP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
When a first hop redundancy solution is designed, which protocol ensures that load balancing occurs over multiple
routers using a single virtual IP address and multiple virtual MAC addresses?
A. GLBP
B. IRDP
C. VRRP
D. HSRP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
An engineer is looking for a standards-driven YANG model to manage a multivendor network environment. Which model
must the engineer choose?
A. Native
B. OpenConfig
C. IETF
D. IEEE NETCONF
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Which two best practices must be followed when designing an out-of-band management network? (Choose two.)
A. Enforce access control
B. Facilitate network integration
C. Back up data using the management network
D. Ensure that the management network is a backup to the data network
E. Ensure network isolation
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 10
Which two BGP features will result in successful route exchanges between eBGP neighbors sharing the same AS
number? (Choose two.)
A. advertise-best-external
B. bestpath as-path ignore
C. client-to-client reflection
D. as-override
E. allow-as-in
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 11
When a network is designed using IS-IS protocol, which two circuit types are supported? (Choose two.)
A. nonbroadcast multiaccess
B. multiaccess
C. point-to-multipoint
D. nonbroadcast
E. point-to-point
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 12
Which method will filter routes between EIGRP neighbors within the same autonomous system?
A. distribute-list
B. policy-based routing
C. leak-map
D. route tagging
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Company A recently acquired another company. Users of the newly acquired company must be able to access a server
that exists on Company A\\’s network, both companies use overlapping IP address ranges. Which action conserves IP
address space and provides access to the server?
A. Use a single IP address to create overload NAT
B. Use a single IP address to create a static NAT entry
C. Build one-to-one NAT translation for every user that needs access
D. Re-IP overlapping address space in the acquired company
Correct Answer: A

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latest updated Cisco 300-820 exam questions and answers

QUESTION 1
Which two licenses are required for the Expressway B2B feature to work? (Choose two)
A. Traversal Server
B. Advanced Networking
C. Device Provisioning
D. Rich Media Sessions
E. TURN Relays
Correct Answer: AD

 

QUESTION 2
Which two statements about Mobile and Remote Access certificate are true? (Choose two.)
A. Expressway Core can use private CA signed certificate.
B. You must upload the root certificates in the phone trust store.
C. Expressway must generate certificate signing request.
D. Expressway Edge must use public CA signed certificate.
E. The Jabber client can work with public or private CA signed certificate.
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.

cisco 300-820 questions q3

Which two outbound connections should an administrator configure on the internal firewall? (Choose two.)
A. XMPP: TCP 7400
B. SIP: TCP 7001
C. SIP TCP 5061
D. Media: UDP 36012 to 59999
E. HTTPS: TCP 8443
Correct Answer: AB
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/expressway/config_guide/X12-5/CiscoExpressway-IP-Port-Usage-for-Firewall-Traversal-Deployment-Guide-X12-5.pdf

 

QUESTION 4
Which configuration is required when implementing Mobile and Remote Access on Cisco Expressway?
A. IPS
B. SAML authentication
C. Cisco Unified CM publisher address
D. SSO
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 5

cisco 300-820 questions q5

Refer to the exhibit. Which two numbers match the regular expression? (Choose two.)
A. d20d16d20d22
B. 2091652010224
C. 209165200225
D. d209d165d200d224
E. 209165200224
Correct Answer: CE

 

QUESTION 6
When an Expressway-E is configured for static NAT, which Session Description Protocol attribute is modified to reflect
the NAT address?
A. SDP b-line
B. SIP record route
C. SDP c-line
D. SDP m-line
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 7
Which role does Call Policy play when preventing toll fraud on Expressways?
A. It controls which calls are allowed, which calls are rejected, and which calls are redirected to a different destination.
B. It changes the calling and called number on a call.
C. It changes the audio protocol used by a call through Expressways.
D. It changes the audio codec used in a call through Expressways.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 8
When designing the call control on a Cisco Expressway Core, which is the sequence of dial plan functions?
A. transforms, CPL, user policy, search rules
B. search rules, zones, local zones
C. DNS zone, local zone, search rules
D. search rules, transforms
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 9
Which step is taken when configuring a Cisco Expressway solution?
A. Configure the Expressway-E by using a non-traversal server zone.
B. Enable static NAT on the Expressway-E only.
C. Disable H.323 mode on the Expressway-E.
D. Enable H.323 H.460.19 demultiplexing mode on the Expressway-C.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 10
What is a key configuration requirement for Hybrid Message Service High Availability deployment with multiple IM and
Presence clusters?
A. You must have the Intercluster Sync Agent working across your IM and Presence clusters.
B. You must have the Intercluster Lookup Service working across all of your IM and Presence clusters.
C. Your IM and Presence Service clusters must have Multiple Device Messaging disabled.
D. AXL service should be activated only on the publisher of each IM and Presence cluster.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 11
How does an administrator configure an Expressway to make sure an external caller cannot reach a specific internal
address?
A. add the specific URI in the firewall section of the Expressway and block it
B. block the call with a call policy rule in the Expressway-E
C. add a search rule route all calls to the Cisco UCM
D. configure FAC for the destination alias on the Expressway
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 12
Cisco Collaboration endpoints are exchanging encrypted signaling messages.
What is one major complication in implementing NAT ALG for voice and video devices?
A. Internal endpoints cannot use addresses from the private address space.
B. The NAT ALG cannot inspect the contents of encrypted signaling messages.
C. NAT ALG introduces jitter in the voice path.
D. Source addresses cannot provide the destination addresses that remote endpoints should use for return packets.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 13
What is the purpose of a transform in the Expressway server?
A. A transform has the function as a neighbor zone in the Expressway. It creates a connection with another server.
B. A transform changes the audio codec when the call goes through the Expressway.
C. A transform is used to route calls to a destination.
D. A transform changes an alias that matches certain criteria into another alias.
Correct Answer: D

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latest updated Cisco 300-810 exam questions and answers

QUESTION 1
Which two methods does Cisco Jabber use for contact searching in an on-premises deployment model? (Choose two.)
A. HTTP
B. XMPP
C. UDS
D. LDAP
E. SIP
Correct Answer: CD
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/srnd/collab11/collab11/presence.html

 

QUESTION 2
Which function of the Cisco IM and Presence high availability solution is true?
A. When the server has been restored to a normal state, user sessions remain on the backup server.
B. When an event takes place, the end user sessions are not moved from the failed server to the backup.
C. When the server has been restored, the server automatically fails back.
D. When a high availability event takes place, the end user sessions are moved from the failed server to the backup.
Correct Answer: D
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/unified-communications/unified-communications-manager-im-presenceservice/200958-IM-and-Presence-Server-High-Availability.html

 

QUESTION 3
Which service must be activated on Cisco Unity Connection to utilize LDAP synchronization?
A. Cisco Tomcat
B. Cisco Sync Agent
C. Cisco DirSync
D. Cisco RIS Data Collector
Correct Answer: C
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/connection/10x/administration/guide/10xcucsagx/10xcucsag120.html

 

QUESTION 4
Which component of SAML SSO defines the transport mechanism that is used to deliver the SAML messages between
entities?
A. profiles
B. metadata
C. assertions
D. bindings
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 5
Which SAML 2.0 profile is supported by Cisco UCM, Cisco Unified IM and Presence, and Unity Connection version 10.x
and above?
A. single logout
B. web browser SSO
C. name identifier management
D. identity provider discovery
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 6

Refer to the exhibit.

cisco 300-810 questions q6

Users report that they cannot see the Chat Rooms icon on their Cisco Jabber clients. This feature works without issue in
the lab. An engineer reviews the Cisco IMandP and Jabber configuration and finds that the jabber-config.xml file is
configured properly to support this feature. Which activity should be performed on the IMandP server to resolve this
issue?
A. Activate Cisco XCP Connection Manager in Cisco Unified Serviceability > Tools > Service Activation.
B. Restart Cisco XCP Message Archiver in Cisco Unified Serviceability > Tools > Control Center – Feature Services.
C. Restart XCP Text Conference Manager in Cisco Unified Serviceability > Tools > Control Center – Network Services.
D. Activate XCP Text Conference Manager in Cisco Unified Serviceability > Tools > Service Activation.
Correct Answer: D
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/unified-communications/jabber-windows/118684-probsol-chat-00.html

 

QUESTION 7
What are two Cisco Jabber 12.6 on-premises deployment types that can be run on a Windows- enabled PC? (Choose
two.)
A. Contact Center Agent
B. IM-only
C. multicloud-based
D. Full UC
E. cloud-based
Correct Answer: BD
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/jabber/12_6/cjab_b_on-prem-deployment-ciscojabber_12-6.pdf

 

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit.

cisco 300-810 questions q8

Users connected to the internal network report a “Cannot communicate with the server” error while trying to log in to
Cisco Jabber using auto service discovery. The Jabber diagnostics and the SRV record configuration are as shown in
the exhibit. The host cucm1.ccnp.cisco.com is correctly resolved by the user desktops with the Cisco Unified
Communications Manager IP address. Why is the user not able to log in?
A. SRV protocol is not set up correctly. It should be _tls instead of _tcp.
B. Marking weight as 0 on the SRV record makes it inactive, so Jabber cannot discover the Cisco Unified CM.
C. The port specified on the SRV record is wrong.
D. The domain ccnp.cisco.com does not exist on the DNS server.
Correct Answer: C
Reference:
https://community.cisco.com/t5/collaboration-voice-and-video/jabber-client-login-and-login-issues/ta-p/3143446

 

QUESTION 9
Which two protocols does the Cisco IM Presence service use to federate with external domains? (Choose two.)
A. XMPP
B. SNMP
C. SIP
D. SCCP
E. SMPP
Correct Answer: AC
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/im_presence/interdomain_federation/11_5_1/cup0_b_interdomain-federation-guide-imp-115.pdf

 

QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit.

cisco 300-810 questions q10

Which statement is true?
A. If the IMandP node in sub-cluster-1 goes down, then users assigned to it are randomly split between the two
remaining subclusters.
B. The administrator must add one node to each subcluster for high availability.
C. IMandP nodes in each subscluster must be configured from the same OVA template.
D. Each Cisco IMandP subcluster must have the same number of nodes.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 11
An engineer is configuring DNS for service discovery in a Jabber deployment for on-premises clients. Which snippet will
complete the SRV record name _tcp.example.com?
A. _cisco_uds
B. _collab_edge
C. _xmpp.server
D. _xmpp-client
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.ciscolive.com/c/dam/r/ciscolive/us/docs/2016/pdf/BRKCOL-2344.pdf

 

QUESTION 12
Which SAML component specifies the mapping of SAML assertion protocol message exchanges with standard
messaging formats or communication protocols such as SOAP exchanges?
A. SAML binding
B. SAML assertion
C. SAML profiles
D. SAML protocol
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Security_Assertion_Markup_Language

 

QUESTION 13
SAML SSO is enabled in Cisco Unified Communications Manager. What happens when a browser- based client
attempts to access a protected resource on a service provider?
A. The browser follows the redirect and issues an HTTPS GET request to the IdP.
B. The IdP checks for a valid browser session.
C. The service provider generates a SAML authentication request.
D. The SAML request is maintained as a query parameter in the GET request.
Correct Answer: C
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/SAML_SSO_deployment_guide/12_5_1/cucm_b_samlsso-deployment-guide-12_5/cucm_b_saml-sso-deployment-guide-12_5_chapter_01.html

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Examvcesoftware Exam Table of Contents:

Cisco 300-715 Practice testing questions from Youtube

latest updated Cisco 300-715 exam questions and answers

QUESTION 1
Which Cisco ISE service allows an engineer to check the compliance of endpoints before connecting to the network?
A. personas
B. Qualys
C. nexpose
D. posture
Correct Answer: D
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/ise/2-1/admin_guide/b_ise_admin_guide_21/b_ise_admin_guide_20_chapter_010110.html
Posture is a service in Cisco Identity Services Engine (Cisco ISE) that allows you to check the state, also known as
posture, of all the endpoints that are connecting to a network for compliance with corporate security policies. This allows
you to control clients to access protected areas of a network.

 

QUESTION 2
Which two probes must be enabled for the ARP cache to function in the Cisco ISE profile service so that a user can
reliably bind the IP address and MAC addresses of endpoints? (Choose two.)
A. NetFlow
B. SNMP
C. HTTP
D. DHCP
E. RADIUS
Correct Answer: DE
Cisco ISE implements an ARP cache in the profiling service so that you can reliably map the IP addresses and the
MAC addresses of endpoints. For the ARP cache to function, you must enable either the DHCP probe or the RADIUS
probe. The DHCP and RADIUS probes carry the IP addresses and the MAC addresses of endpoints in the payload
data. The DHCP-requested address attribute in the DHCP probe and the Framed-IP-address attribute in the RADIUS
probe carries the IP addresses of endpoints, along with their MAC addresses, which can be mapped and stored in the
ARP cache.
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/ise/2-1/admin_guide/b_ise_admin_guide_21/b_ise_admin_guide_20_chapter_010100.html

 

QUESTION 3
What allows an endpoint to obtain a digital certificate from Cisco ISE during a BYOD flow?
A. Network Access Control
B. My Devices Portal
C. Application Visibility and Control
D. Supplicant Provisioning Wizard
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 4
Which two events trigger a CoA for an endpoint when CoA is enabled globally for ReAuth? (Choose two.)
A. endpoint marked as lost in My Devices Portal
B. addition of endpoint to My Devices Portal
C. endpoint profile transition from Aop.e-dev.ee to Apple-iPhone
D. endpoint profile transition from Unknown to Windows 10-Workstation
E. updating of endpoint dACL.
Correct Answer: CD

 

QUESTION 5
Which profiling probe collects the user-agent string?
A. DHCP
B. AD
C. HTTP
D. NMAP
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 6
Which two components are required for creating a Native Supplicant Profile within a BYOD flow? (Choose two )
A. Windows Settings
B. Connection Type
C. iOS Settings
D. Redirect ACL
E. Operating System
Correct Answer: BE

 

QUESTION 7
In which two ways can users and endpoints be classified for TrustSec?
(Choose two.)
A. VLAN
B. SXP
C. dynamic
D. QoS
E. SGACL
Correct Answer: AE

 

QUESTION 8
Which two endpoint compliance statuses are possible? (Choose two.)
A. unknown
B. known
C. invalid
D. compliant
E. valid
Correct Answer: AD

 

QUESTION 9
Which default endpoint identity group does an endpoint that does not match any profile in Cisco ISE become a member
of?
A. Endpoint
B. unknown
C. blacklist
D. white list
E. profiled
Correct Answer: B
If you do not have a matching profiling policy, you can assign an unknown profiling policy. The endpoint is therefore
profiled as Unknown. The endpoint that does not match any profile is grouped within the Unknown identity group. The
endpoint profiled to the Unknown profile requires that you create a profile with an attribute or a set of attributes collected
for that endpoint.
https://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/security/ise/1.0/user_guide/ise10_man_identities.html

 

QUESTION 10
If a user reports a device lost or stolen, which portal should be used to prevent the device from accessing the network
while still providing information about why the device is blocked?
A. Client Provisioning
B. Guest
C. BYOD
D. Blacklist
Correct Answer: D
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/Enterprise/Borderless_Networks/Unified_Access/BYOD_Design_Guide/Managing_Lost_or_Stolen_Device.html#90273
The Blacklist identity group is system generated and maintained by ISE to prevent access to lost or stolen devices. In
this design guide, two authorization profiles are used to enforce the permissions for wireless and wired devices within
the Blacklist:
1.
Blackhole WiFi Access
2.
Blackhole Wired Access

 

QUESTION 11
Which two task types are included in the Cisco ISE common tasks support for TACACS+ profiles?
(Choose two.)
A. Firepower
B. WLC
C. IOS
D. ASA
E. Shell
Correct Answer: BE
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/ise/2-1/admin_guide/b_ise_admin_guide_21/b_ise_admin_guide_20_chapter_0100010.html
TACACS+ ProfileTACACS+ profiles control the initial login session of the device administrator. A session refers to each
individual authentication, authorization, or accounting request. A session authorization request to a network device
elicits
an ISE response. The response includes a token that is interpreted by the network device, which limits the commands
that may be executed for the duration of a session. The authorization policy for a device administration access service
can
contain a single shell profile and multiple command sets.
The TACACS+ profile definitions are split into two components:
1.
Common tasks
2.
Custom attributes
There are two views on the TACACS+ Profiles page (Work Centers > Device Administration > Policy Elements > Results
> TACACS Profiles)–Task Attribute View and Raw View. Common tasks can be entered using the Task Attribute View
and custom attributes can be created in the Task Attribute View as well as the Raw View.
The Common Tasks section allows you to select and configure the frequently used attributes for a profile. The attributes
that are included here are those defined by the TACACS+ protocol draft specifications. However, the values can be
used
in the authorization of requests from other services. In the Task Attribute View, the ISE administrator can set the
privileges that will be assigned to the device administrator. The common task types are:
1.
Shell
2.
WLC
3.
Nexus
4.
Generic
The Custom Attributes section allows you to configure additional attributes. It provides a list of attributes that are not
recognized by the Common Tasks section. Each definition consists of the attribute name, an indication of whether the
attribute is mandatory or optional, and the value for the attribute. In the Raw View, you can enter the mandatory
attributes using an equal to (=) sign between the attribute name and its value, and optional attributes are entered using an
asterisk (*) between the attribute name and its value. The attributes entered in the Raw View are reflected in the Custom
Attributes section in the Task Attribute View and vice versa. The Raw View is also used to copy-paste the attribute list
(for example, another product\\’s attribute list) from the clipboard onto ISE. Custom attributes can be defined for
nonshell services.

 

QUESTION 12
What is needed to configure wireless guest access on the network?
A. endpoint already profiled in ISE
B. WEBAUTH ACL for redirection
C. valid user account in Active Directory
D. Captive Portal Bypass turned on
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 13
Which description of the use of low-impact mode in a Cisco ISE deployment is correct?
A. It continues to use the authentication open capabilities of the switch port, which allows traffic to enter the switch
before an authorization result.
B. Low-impact mode must be the final phase in deploying Cisco ISE into a network environment using the phased
approach.
C. It enables authentication (with authentication open), sees exactly which devices fail and which succeed, andcorrects
the failed authentications before they
D. The port does not allow any traffic before the authentication (except for EAP, Cisco Discovery Protocol, and LDP),
and then the port is assigned to specific authorization results after the authentication
Correct Answer: C

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latest updated Cisco 300-710 exam questions and answers

QUESTION 1
Which Firepower feature allows users to configure bridges in routed mode and enables devices to perform Layer 2
switching between interfaces?
A. FlexConfig
B. BDI
C. SGT
D. IRB
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/620/relnotes/Firepower_System_Release_Notes_Version_620/new_features_and_functionality.html

 

QUESTION 2
How many report templates does the Cisco Firepower Management Center support?
A. 20
B. 10
C. 5
D. unlimited
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/60/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guidev60/Working_with_Reports.html

 

QUESTION 3
After deploying a network-monitoring tool to manage and monitor networking devices in your organization, you realize
that you need to manually upload a MIB for the Cisco FMC. In which folder should you upload the MIB file?
A. /etc/sf/DCMIB.ALERT
B. /sf/etc/DCEALERT.MIB
C. /etc/sf/DCEALERT.MIB
D. system/etc/DCEALERT.MIB
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firesight/541/firepower-module-user-guide/asa-firepower
module-user-guide-v541/Intrusion-External-Responses.pdf

 

QUESTION 4
Which command is entered in the Cisco FMC CLI to generate a troubleshooting file?
A. show running-config
B. show tech-support chassis
C. system support diagnostic-cli
D. sudo sf_troubleshoot.pl
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/sourcefire-defense-center/117663-technoteSourceFire-00.html

 

QUESTION 5
Which two actions can be used in an access control policy rule? (Choose two.)
A. Block with Reset
B. Monitor
C. Analyze
D. Discover
E. Block ALL
Correct Answer: AB
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firesight/541/firepower-module-user-guide/asa-firepowermodule-user-guide-v541/AC-Rules-Tuning-Overview.html#71854

 

QUESTION 6
Which two features of Cisco AMP for Endpoints allow for an uploaded file to be blocked? (Choose two.)
A. application blocking
B. simple custom detection
C. file repository
D. exclusions
E. application whitelisting
Correct Answer: AB

 

QUESTION 7
Which report template field format is available in Cisco FMC?
A. box lever chart
B. arrow chart
C. bar chart
D. benchmark chart
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/60/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guidev60/Working_with_Reports.html

 

QUESTION 8
What is the result of specifying of QoS rule that has a rate limit that is greater than the maximum throughput of an
interface?
A. The rate-limiting rule is disabled.
B. Matching traffic does not rate limited.
C. The system rate-limits all traffic.
D. The system repeatedly generates warnings.
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/620/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guidev62/quality_of_service_qos.pdf

 

QUESTION 9
Which two routing options are valid with Cisco Firepower Threat Defense? (Choose two.)
A. BGPv6
B. ECMP with up to three equal-cost paths across multiple interfaces
C. ECMP with up to three equal-cost paths across a single interface
D. BGPv4 in transparent firewall mode
E. BGPv4 with nonstop forwarding
Correct Answer: AC
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/601/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guidev601/fpmc-config-guide-v60_chapter_01100011.html#ID-2101-0000000e

 

QUESTION 10
Which two types of objects are reusable and supported by Cisco FMC? (Choose two.)
A. dynamic key mapping objects that help link HTTP and HTTPS GET requests to Layer 7 application protocols.
B. reputation-based objects that represent Security Intelligence feeds and lists, application filters based on category and
reputation, and file lists
C. network-based objects that represent IP address and networks, port/protocols pairs, VLAN tags, security zones, and
origin/destination country
D. network-based objects that represent FQDN mappings and networks, port/protocol pairs, VXLAN tags, security
zones and origin/destination country
E. reputation-based objects, such as URL categories
Correct Answer: BC
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/620/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guidev62/reusable_objects.html#ID-2243-00000414

 

QUESTION 11
When do you need the file-size command option during troubleshooting with packet capture?
A. when capture packets are less than 16 MB
B. when capture packets are restricted from the secondary memory
C. when capture packets exceed 10 GB
D. when capture packets exceed 32 MB
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/620/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guidev62/troubleshooting_the_system.html

 

QUESTION 12
Which limitation applies to Cisco Firepower Management Center dashboards in a multidomain environment?
A. Child domains can view but not edit dashboards that originate from an ancestor domain.
B. Child domains have access to only a limited set of widgets from ancestor domains.
C. Only the administrator of the top ancestor domain can view dashboards.
D. Child domains cannot view dashboards that originate from an ancestor domain.
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/60/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guidev60/Using_Dashboards.html

 

QUESTION 13
Within Cisco Firepower Management Center, where does a user add or modify widgets?
A. dashboard
B. reporting
C. context explorer
D. summary tool
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/60/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guidev60/Using_Dashboards.html

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Latest updates Cisco 350-501 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1

lead4pass 350-501 exam questions q1

Refer to the exhibit. Which effect of this configuration is true?
A. It enables MPLS on the interface.
B. It creates a pseudowire class named cisco.
C. It enables AToM on interface gigabitethernet1/0.
D. It enables tagging for VLAN 12 on the interface.
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://community.cisco.com/t5/service-providers-documents/configuration-example-atom-any-transport-overmpls-for-like-to/ta-p/3144810

QUESTION 2

lead4pass 350-501 exam questions q2

Refer to the exhibit. If the NetFlow configuration is updated to version 9, which additional piece of information can be
reported?
A. IPv4 flow information
B. BGP AS information
C. IPv6 flow information
D. flow sequence numbers
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/ipv6/configuration/12-2sx/ipv6-12-2sxbook/ip6-netflow.html

QUESTION 3
An engineer working for a telecommunication company needs to secure the LAN network using a prefix-list. Which best
practice should the engineer follow when he implements a prefix-list?

A. An engineer must identify the prefix list with a number only.
B. The final entry in a prefix list must be /32.
C. An engineer must include only the prefixes for which he needs to log activity.
D. An engineer must use nonsequential sequence numbers in the prefix-list so that he can insert additional entries later.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
How can shared services in an MPLS Layer 3 VPN provide Internet access to the Customers of a central service
provider?
A. Static routes on CE routers allow route leakage from a PE global routing table.
B. The CE router can establish a BGP peering to a PE router and use the PE device to reach the Internet.
C. The customer VRF uses route targets to import and export routes to and from a shared services VRF.
D. Route distinguishers are used to identify the routes that CEs can use to reach the Internet.
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://community.cisco.com/t5/service-providers-documents/providing-internet-access-for-mpls-l3-vpns/tap/3109924

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit. What does this value mean when it is received in XML?
A. It indicates a value assigned by a network administrator to tag a route.
B. It indicates a break in a sequence.
C. It means a data field is blank.
D. It shows the ending of the script.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Which statement about LDP Session Protection and LDP-IGP sync is true?
A. Both LDP features cannot be used at the same time in an MPLS LDP enabled network
B. LDP Session Protection re-exchanges label information when a down-up event occurs; LDP-IGP sync keeps the
adjacency and label information in a down-up event

C. LDP-IGP sync re-exchanges label information when a down-up event occurs; LDP Session Protection keeps the
adjacency and label information in a down-up event
D. Both LDP features must be used together to increase fast convergence on an MPLS LDP-enabled network
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7

lead4pass 350-501 exam questions q7

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is configuring customer edge routers to finalize a L2VPN over MPLS
deployment. Assume that the AToM L2VPN service that connects the two CEs is configured correctly on the service
provider network.
Which action causes the solution to failing?
A. OSPF does not work with L2VPN services.
B. The routing protocol network types are not compatible.
C. A loopback with a /32 IP address has not been used.
D. The connect statement has not been defined.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8

DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the functionalities from the left onto the correct target fields on the right.
Select and Place:

lead4pass 350-501 exam questions q7

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 350-501 exam questions q8-1

QUESTION 9

lead4pass 350-501 exam questions q9

Refer to the exhibit. This configuration is being applied to an IOS XR router. Which statement about this configuration is
true?
A. It is used to enable gRPC.
B. It is used to create a streaming subscription with a 600-second interval.
C. It is used to set up the configuration to poll network data.
D. It is used to create a streaming subscription with a 60-Second interval.
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/routers/asr9000/software/telemetry/b-telemetry-cg-asr9000-62x/btelemetry-config-guide-asr9000_chapter_01.html

QUESTION 10

lead4pass 350-501 exam questions q10

Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about the IS-IS topology are true? (Choose two.)
A. R1 and R4 are Level 2 neighbors.
B. All four routers are operating as Level 1-2 routers.
C. All four routers are operating as Level 2 routers only.
D. All four routers are operating as Level 1 routers only.
E. R1 and R2 are Level 2 neighbors.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 11
An engineer is setting up overlapping VPNs to allow VRF ABC and XYZ to communicate with VRF CENTRAL but wants
to make sure that VRF ABC and XYZ cannot communicate. Which configuration accomplishes these objectives?

lead4pass 350-501 exam questions q11
lead4pass 350-501 exam questions q11-1

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Which configuration enables BGP FlowSpec client function and installation of policies on all local interfaces?
A. flowspec address-family ipv4 local-install interface-all
B. flowspec address-family ipv4 install interface-all local
C. flowspec address-family ipv4 install interface-all
D. flowspec address-family ipv4 local-install all-interface
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/iproute_bgp/configuration/xe-16-6/irg-xe-16-6-book/C3PLBGP-Flowspec-Client.html

QUESTION 13
A customer of an ISP request supports to set up a BGP routing policy. Which BGP attribute should be configured to
choose specific BGP speakers as preferred points for the customer AS?
A. lowest multi-exit discriminator
B. highest local preference outbound
C. lowest local preference inbound
D. highest local preference inbound
Correct Answer: B

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