[Oct 2022] CCNP Collaboration 300-810 CLICA exam questions latest update from Lead4Pass

Lead4Pass continues to share the latest 15 CCNP Collaboration 300-810 CLICA exam questions and answers to help you study online, welcome to download the 300-810 dumps provided by Lead4Pass: https://www.leads4pass.com/300-810.html Contains 59 practical and valid exam questions and answers, and provides PDF files and VCE simulation tools to help you quickly learn and pass the CCNP Collaboration 300-810 CLICA exam.

Number of exam questionsExam nameFromRelease timePrevious issue
15Implementing Cisco Collaboration Applications (CLICA)Lead4PassOct 10, 2022300-810 exam dumps questions (Q1-Q13)

Continue to study CCNP Collaboration 300-810 CLICA exam knowledge:

New Question 14:

Refer to the exhibit.

CCNP Collaboration 300-810 CLICA exam questions 14

An administrator is troubleshooting an issue with XMPP Federation between two. eight-node IM and Presence clusters. After looking at the logs, the administrator finds this message and must publish one or more DNS SRV records containing one or more addresses of the IM and Presence node(s). How many nodes must be selected to publish?

A. 1

B. 5

C. 10

D. 20

Correct Answer: A


New Question 15:

In the integration of Cisco Unity Connection using SIP, which SIP trunk security profile option is required for MWI to work correctly?

A. Accept out-of-dialog refer

B. Accept replaces header

C. Accept unsolicited notification

D. Accept presence subscription

Correct Answer: C


New Question 16:

Which CLI command is used to collect traces from the Cisco Presence engine for seven days?

A. file build log cisco_presence_engine 7

B. file build log cisco_presence 168

C. file build log presence_engine 7

D. file build log presence_engine 168

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/im_presence/configAdminGuide/12_0_1/cup0_b_config-admin-guide-imp-1201/cup0_b_config-admin-guide-imp-1201_chapter_010101.html


New Question 17:

An administrator is configuring call handlers in Cisco Unity Connection. The administrator must ensure that internal extensions are restricted so that callers must go through the company operator to reach employees, and so that callers hear an error message if they attempt to dial extensions directly. Which setting is configured to accomplish this task?

A. Transfer Rules

B. Caller Input

C. Greetings

D. Message Settings

Correct Answer: B


New Question 18:

Which two SSO features are true? (Choose two.)

A. allows Jabber to use LDAP directory services for contact imports

B. allows LDAP user import on Cisco Unified Communications Manager

C. improves productivity by reducing time spent re-entering credentials for the same identity

D. transfers the authentication from the system that hosts the applications to a third-party system

E. reduces costs by decreasing the number of help calls that are made for voicemail PIN resets

Correct Answer: CD

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/SAML_SSO_deployment_guide/11_0_1/CUCM_BK_SF9D0502_00_saml-sso-deployment-guide-1101/CUCM_BK_SF9D0502_00_saml-sso-deployment-guide11_chapter_01.html


New Question 19:

An administrator must configure a federation between company A and company B using the SIP/simple protocol. What are the configuration items that are available?

A. Port 5061; TLS encryption; Instant Messaging, Presence, and VoIP support

B. no encryption; Instant Messaging, Presence, and VoIP support

C. port 5222; TLS encryption; Instant Messaging, Presence, and VoIP support

D. no encryption; Instant Messaging support

Correct Answer: A


New Question 20:

An engineer is importing users into Cisco Unity Connection using AXL and discovers that some users are not listed in the import view. Which action should be taken to resolve this issue?

A. Configure the user primary extension to their directory number.

B. Configure the user digest credentials to match the user password.

C. Configure the user access control group assignment to Standard CTI Enabled.

D. Configure the username and password in LDAP.

Correct Answer: A


New Question 21:

Refer to the exhibit.

CCNP Collaboration 300-810 CLICA exam questions 21

A Jabber user is unable to access voicemail. During troubleshooting, an administrator captures this screenshot. What are the two ways to resolve this issue? (Choose two.)

A. Ask the user to click on the Connect to a device” button and use the correct username and password.

B. Ensure the user is not locally created on Cisco Unity Connection with a password expiring separately from the password that is used for Jabber.

C. Make sure the Jabber service profile created in Cisco UCM contains Unity Connection UC service with a voicemail server configured.

D. Ask an administrator to create an account for this user in Cisco Unity Connection but remove the Unity Connection UC service from the Cisco UCM Jabber service profile. Check if “OAuth with Refresh Login Flow” is enabled on Cisco Unity Connection but disabled in Cisco UCM.

Correct Answer: AB


New Question 22:

Which SAML component defines the content of data transferred from an IdP to a service provider?

A. protocol

B. assertion

C. binding

D. profiles

Correct Answer: B


New Question 23:

Which Cisco IM and Presence service must be activated and running for IM Presence to successfully integrate with Cisco Unified Communications Manager?

A. Cisco DHCP Monitor Service

B. Cisco AXL Web Service

C. Self-Provisioning IVR

D. Cisco XCP Authentication Service

Correct Answer: B

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/im_presence/configAdminGuide/12_0_1/cup0_b_config-admin-guide-imp-1201/cup0_b_config-admin-guide-imp-1201_chapter_0100.html


New Question 24:

Which two command line arguments can you specify when installing Cisco Jabber for windows? (Choose two.)

A. CISCO_UDS_DOMAIN

B. TFTP_ADDRESS

C. VOICEMAIL_SERVER_ADDRESS

D. SERVICES_DOMAIN

E. TFTP

Correct Answer: DE


New Question 25:

Refer to the exhibit.

CCNP Collaboration 300-810 CLICA exam questions 25

An administrator troubleshoots push notifications, and Cisco TAC requests the trace files from the cluster. From which location should the files be collected?

CCNP Collaboration 300-810 CLICA exam questions 25-1

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Correct Answer: B


New Question 26:

Refer to the exhibit

Get 160 real and up-to-date CCNP Collaboration 300-810 CLICA exam questions Check out this link to help you pass the exam 100%.

CCNP Collaboration 300-810 CLICA exam questions 26

Users complain that the message waiting light on the IP phone does not light up when receiving a new voicemail With which codec must the engineer configure a dial peer on Cisco UCME for MW1 traffic to resolve this issue?

A. G.729r8

B. G.729ar8

C. G.711ulaw

D. G.711alaw

Correct Answer: C


New Question 27:

What prevents toll fraud on voicemail ports?

A. IP address trusted list on the PSTN gateway

B. CSS

C. Block OffNet to OffNet Transfer service parameter

D. FAC

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/unified-communications/unity-connection/119337-technote-cuc-00.html


New Question 28:

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer assists a user who reports that the voicemall notifications show correctly on the desk phone are not available in the jabber client. Which action resolves this issue?

A. Reset the Jabber client and have the user sign in again

B. Set the voicemail profile on the user\’s line on the CSF device.

C. Configure the voicemail profile on the user\’s service profile

D. Ensure that the voicemail server is listed in the user\’s CTI profile

Correct Answer: C


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latest updated Cisco 300-820 exam questions and answers

QUESTION 1
Which two licenses are required for the Expressway B2B feature to work? (Choose two)
A. Traversal Server
B. Advanced Networking
C. Device Provisioning
D. Rich Media Sessions
E. TURN Relays
Correct Answer: AD

 

QUESTION 2
Which two statements about Mobile and Remote Access certificate are true? (Choose two.)
A. Expressway Core can use private CA signed certificate.
B. You must upload the root certificates in the phone trust store.
C. Expressway must generate certificate signing request.
D. Expressway Edge must use public CA signed certificate.
E. The Jabber client can work with public or private CA signed certificate.
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.

cisco 300-820 questions q3

Which two outbound connections should an administrator configure on the internal firewall? (Choose two.)
A. XMPP: TCP 7400
B. SIP: TCP 7001
C. SIP TCP 5061
D. Media: UDP 36012 to 59999
E. HTTPS: TCP 8443
Correct Answer: AB
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/expressway/config_guide/X12-5/CiscoExpressway-IP-Port-Usage-for-Firewall-Traversal-Deployment-Guide-X12-5.pdf

 

QUESTION 4
Which configuration is required when implementing Mobile and Remote Access on Cisco Expressway?
A. IPS
B. SAML authentication
C. Cisco Unified CM publisher address
D. SSO
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 5

cisco 300-820 questions q5

Refer to the exhibit. Which two numbers match the regular expression? (Choose two.)
A. d20d16d20d22
B. 2091652010224
C. 209165200225
D. d209d165d200d224
E. 209165200224
Correct Answer: CE

 

QUESTION 6
When an Expressway-E is configured for static NAT, which Session Description Protocol attribute is modified to reflect
the NAT address?
A. SDP b-line
B. SIP record route
C. SDP c-line
D. SDP m-line
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 7
Which role does Call Policy play when preventing toll fraud on Expressways?
A. It controls which calls are allowed, which calls are rejected, and which calls are redirected to a different destination.
B. It changes the calling and called number on a call.
C. It changes the audio protocol used by a call through Expressways.
D. It changes the audio codec used in a call through Expressways.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 8
When designing the call control on a Cisco Expressway Core, which is the sequence of dial plan functions?
A. transforms, CPL, user policy, search rules
B. search rules, zones, local zones
C. DNS zone, local zone, search rules
D. search rules, transforms
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 9
Which step is taken when configuring a Cisco Expressway solution?
A. Configure the Expressway-E by using a non-traversal server zone.
B. Enable static NAT on the Expressway-E only.
C. Disable H.323 mode on the Expressway-E.
D. Enable H.323 H.460.19 demultiplexing mode on the Expressway-C.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 10
What is a key configuration requirement for Hybrid Message Service High Availability deployment with multiple IM and
Presence clusters?
A. You must have the Intercluster Sync Agent working across your IM and Presence clusters.
B. You must have the Intercluster Lookup Service working across all of your IM and Presence clusters.
C. Your IM and Presence Service clusters must have Multiple Device Messaging disabled.
D. AXL service should be activated only on the publisher of each IM and Presence cluster.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 11
How does an administrator configure an Expressway to make sure an external caller cannot reach a specific internal
address?
A. add the specific URI in the firewall section of the Expressway and block it
B. block the call with a call policy rule in the Expressway-E
C. add a search rule route all calls to the Cisco UCM
D. configure FAC for the destination alias on the Expressway
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 12
Cisco Collaboration endpoints are exchanging encrypted signaling messages.
What is one major complication in implementing NAT ALG for voice and video devices?
A. Internal endpoints cannot use addresses from the private address space.
B. The NAT ALG cannot inspect the contents of encrypted signaling messages.
C. NAT ALG introduces jitter in the voice path.
D. Source addresses cannot provide the destination addresses that remote endpoints should use for return packets.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 13
What is the purpose of a transform in the Expressway server?
A. A transform has the function as a neighbor zone in the Expressway. It creates a connection with another server.
B. A transform changes the audio codec when the call goes through the Expressway.
C. A transform is used to route calls to a destination.
D. A transform changes an alias that matches certain criteria into another alias.
Correct Answer: D

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latest updated Cisco 300-810 exam questions and answers

QUESTION 1
Which two methods does Cisco Jabber use for contact searching in an on-premises deployment model? (Choose two.)
A. HTTP
B. XMPP
C. UDS
D. LDAP
E. SIP
Correct Answer: CD
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/srnd/collab11/collab11/presence.html

 

QUESTION 2
Which function of the Cisco IM and Presence high availability solution is true?
A. When the server has been restored to a normal state, user sessions remain on the backup server.
B. When an event takes place, the end user sessions are not moved from the failed server to the backup.
C. When the server has been restored, the server automatically fails back.
D. When a high availability event takes place, the end user sessions are moved from the failed server to the backup.
Correct Answer: D
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/unified-communications/unified-communications-manager-im-presenceservice/200958-IM-and-Presence-Server-High-Availability.html

 

QUESTION 3
Which service must be activated on Cisco Unity Connection to utilize LDAP synchronization?
A. Cisco Tomcat
B. Cisco Sync Agent
C. Cisco DirSync
D. Cisco RIS Data Collector
Correct Answer: C
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/connection/10x/administration/guide/10xcucsagx/10xcucsag120.html

 

QUESTION 4
Which component of SAML SSO defines the transport mechanism that is used to deliver the SAML messages between
entities?
A. profiles
B. metadata
C. assertions
D. bindings
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 5
Which SAML 2.0 profile is supported by Cisco UCM, Cisco Unified IM and Presence, and Unity Connection version 10.x
and above?
A. single logout
B. web browser SSO
C. name identifier management
D. identity provider discovery
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 6

Refer to the exhibit.

cisco 300-810 questions q6

Users report that they cannot see the Chat Rooms icon on their Cisco Jabber clients. This feature works without issue in
the lab. An engineer reviews the Cisco IMandP and Jabber configuration and finds that the jabber-config.xml file is
configured properly to support this feature. Which activity should be performed on the IMandP server to resolve this
issue?
A. Activate Cisco XCP Connection Manager in Cisco Unified Serviceability > Tools > Service Activation.
B. Restart Cisco XCP Message Archiver in Cisco Unified Serviceability > Tools > Control Center – Feature Services.
C. Restart XCP Text Conference Manager in Cisco Unified Serviceability > Tools > Control Center – Network Services.
D. Activate XCP Text Conference Manager in Cisco Unified Serviceability > Tools > Service Activation.
Correct Answer: D
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/unified-communications/jabber-windows/118684-probsol-chat-00.html

 

QUESTION 7
What are two Cisco Jabber 12.6 on-premises deployment types that can be run on a Windows- enabled PC? (Choose
two.)
A. Contact Center Agent
B. IM-only
C. multicloud-based
D. Full UC
E. cloud-based
Correct Answer: BD
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/jabber/12_6/cjab_b_on-prem-deployment-ciscojabber_12-6.pdf

 

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit.

cisco 300-810 questions q8

Users connected to the internal network report a “Cannot communicate with the server” error while trying to log in to
Cisco Jabber using auto service discovery. The Jabber diagnostics and the SRV record configuration are as shown in
the exhibit. The host cucm1.ccnp.cisco.com is correctly resolved by the user desktops with the Cisco Unified
Communications Manager IP address. Why is the user not able to log in?
A. SRV protocol is not set up correctly. It should be _tls instead of _tcp.
B. Marking weight as 0 on the SRV record makes it inactive, so Jabber cannot discover the Cisco Unified CM.
C. The port specified on the SRV record is wrong.
D. The domain ccnp.cisco.com does not exist on the DNS server.
Correct Answer: C
Reference:
https://community.cisco.com/t5/collaboration-voice-and-video/jabber-client-login-and-login-issues/ta-p/3143446

 

QUESTION 9
Which two protocols does the Cisco IM Presence service use to federate with external domains? (Choose two.)
A. XMPP
B. SNMP
C. SIP
D. SCCP
E. SMPP
Correct Answer: AC
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/im_presence/interdomain_federation/11_5_1/cup0_b_interdomain-federation-guide-imp-115.pdf

 

QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit.

cisco 300-810 questions q10

Which statement is true?
A. If the IMandP node in sub-cluster-1 goes down, then users assigned to it are randomly split between the two
remaining subclusters.
B. The administrator must add one node to each subcluster for high availability.
C. IMandP nodes in each subscluster must be configured from the same OVA template.
D. Each Cisco IMandP subcluster must have the same number of nodes.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 11
An engineer is configuring DNS for service discovery in a Jabber deployment for on-premises clients. Which snippet will
complete the SRV record name _tcp.example.com?
A. _cisco_uds
B. _collab_edge
C. _xmpp.server
D. _xmpp-client
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.ciscolive.com/c/dam/r/ciscolive/us/docs/2016/pdf/BRKCOL-2344.pdf

 

QUESTION 12
Which SAML component specifies the mapping of SAML assertion protocol message exchanges with standard
messaging formats or communication protocols such as SOAP exchanges?
A. SAML binding
B. SAML assertion
C. SAML profiles
D. SAML protocol
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Security_Assertion_Markup_Language

 

QUESTION 13
SAML SSO is enabled in Cisco Unified Communications Manager. What happens when a browser- based client
attempts to access a protected resource on a service provider?
A. The browser follows the redirect and issues an HTTPS GET request to the IdP.
B. The IdP checks for a valid browser session.
C. The service provider generates a SAML authentication request.
D. The SAML request is maintained as a query parameter in the GET request.
Correct Answer: C
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/SAML_SSO_deployment_guide/12_5_1/cucm_b_samlsso-deployment-guide-12_5/cucm_b_saml-sso-deployment-guide-12_5_chapter_01.html

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Examvcesoftware Exam Table of Contents:

latest updated Cisco 300-715 exam questions and answers

QUESTION 1
Which Cisco ISE service allows an engineer to check the compliance of endpoints before connecting to the network?
A. personas
B. Qualys
C. nexpose
D. posture
Correct Answer: D
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/ise/2-1/admin_guide/b_ise_admin_guide_21/b_ise_admin_guide_20_chapter_010110.html
Posture is a service in Cisco Identity Services Engine (Cisco ISE) that allows you to check the state, also known as
posture, of all the endpoints that are connecting to a network for compliance with corporate security policies. This allows
you to control clients to access protected areas of a network.

QUESTION 2
Which two probes must be enabled for the ARP cache to function in the Cisco ISE profile service so that a user can
reliably bind the IP address and MAC addresses of endpoints? (Choose two.)
A. NetFlow
B. SNMP
C. HTTP
D. DHCP
E. RADIUS
Correct Answer: DE
Cisco ISE implements an ARP cache in the profiling service so that you can reliably map the IP addresses and the
MAC addresses of endpoints. For the ARP cache to function, you must enable either the DHCP probe or the RADIUS
probe. The DHCP and RADIUS probes carry the IP addresses and the MAC addresses of endpoints in the payload
data. The DHCP-requested address attribute in the DHCP probe and the Framed-IP-address attribute in the RADIUS
probe carries the IP addresses of endpoints, along with their MAC addresses, which can be mapped and stored in the
ARP cache.
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/ise/2-1/admin_guide/b_ise_admin_guide_21/b_ise_admin_guide_20_chapter_010100.html

QUESTION 3
What allows an endpoint to obtain a digital certificate from Cisco ISE during a BYOD flow?
A. Network Access Control
B. My Devices Portal
C. Application Visibility and Control
D. Supplicant Provisioning Wizard
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which two events trigger a CoA for an endpoint when CoA is enabled globally for ReAuth? (Choose two.)
A. endpoint marked as lost in My Devices Portal
B. addition of endpoint to My Devices Portal
C. endpoint profile transition from Aop.e-dev.ee to Apple-iPhone
D. endpoint profile transition from Unknown to Windows 10-Workstation
E. updating of endpoint dACL.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 5
Which profiling probe collects the user-agent string?
A. DHCP
B. AD
C. HTTP
D. NMAP
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which two components are required for creating a Native Supplicant Profile within a BYOD flow? (Choose two )
A. Windows Settings
B. Connection Type
C. iOS Settings
D. Redirect ACL
E. Operating System
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 7
In which two ways can users and endpoints be classified for TrustSec?
(Choose two.)
A. VLAN
B. SXP
C. dynamic
D. QoS
E. SGACL
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 8
Which two endpoint compliance statuses are possible? (Choose two.)
A. unknown
B. known
C. invalid
D. compliant
E. valid
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 9
Which default endpoint identity group does an endpoint that does not match any profile in Cisco ISE become a member
of?
A. Endpoint
B. unknown
C. blacklist
D. white list
E. profiled
Correct Answer: B
If you do not have a matching profiling policy, you can assign an unknown profiling policy. The endpoint is therefore
profiled as Unknown. The endpoint that does not match any profile is grouped within the Unknown identity group. The
endpoint profiled to the Unknown profile requires that you create a profile with an attribute or a set of attributes collected
for that endpoint.
https://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/security/ise/1.0/user_guide/ise10_man_identities.html

QUESTION 10
If a user reports a device lost or stolen, which portal should be used to prevent the device from accessing the network
while still providing information about why the device is blocked?
A. Client Provisioning
B. Guest
C. BYOD
D. Blacklist
Correct Answer: D
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/Enterprise/Borderless_Networks/Unified_Access/BYOD_Design_Guide/Managing_Lost_or_Stolen_Device.html#90273
The Blacklist identity group is system generated and maintained by ISE to prevent access to lost or stolen devices. In
this design guide, two authorization profiles are used to enforce the permissions for wireless and wired devices within
the Blacklist:
1.
Blackhole WiFi Access
2.
Blackhole Wired Access

QUESTION 11
Which two task types are included in the Cisco ISE common tasks support for TACACS+ profiles?
(Choose two.)
A. Firepower
B. WLC
C. IOS
D. ASA
E. Shell
Correct Answer: BE
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/ise/2-1/admin_guide/b_ise_admin_guide_21/b_ise_admin_guide_20_chapter_0100010.html
TACACS+ ProfileTACACS+ profiles control the initial login session of the device administrator. A session refers to each
individual authentication, authorization, or accounting request. A session authorization request to a network device
elicits
an ISE response. The response includes a token that is interpreted by the network device, which limits the commands
that may be executed for the duration of a session. The authorization policy for a device administration access service
can
contain a single shell profile and multiple command sets.
The TACACS+ profile definitions are split into two components:
1.
Common tasks
2.
Custom attributes
There are two views on the TACACS+ Profiles page (Work Centers > Device Administration > Policy Elements > Results
> TACACS Profiles)–Task Attribute View and Raw View. Common tasks can be entered using the Task Attribute View
and custom attributes can be created in the Task Attribute View as well as the Raw View.
The Common Tasks section allows you to select and configure the frequently used attributes for a profile. The attributes
that are included here are those defined by the TACACS+ protocol draft specifications. However, the values can be
used
in the authorization of requests from other services. In the Task Attribute View, the ISE administrator can set the
privileges that will be assigned to the device administrator. The common task types are:
1.
Shell
2.
WLC
3.
Nexus
4.
Generic
The Custom Attributes section allows you to configure additional attributes. It provides a list of attributes that are not
recognized by the Common Tasks section. Each definition consists of the attribute name, an indication of whether the
attribute is mandatory or optional, and the value for the attribute. In the Raw View, you can enter the mandatory
attributes using an equal to (=) sign between the attribute name and its value, and optional attributes are entered using an
asterisk (*) between the attribute name and its value. The attributes entered in the Raw View are reflected in the Custom
Attributes section in the Task Attribute View and vice versa. The Raw View is also used to copy-paste the attribute list
(for example, another product\\’s attribute list) from the clipboard onto ISE. Custom attributes can be defined for
nonshell services.

QUESTION 12
What is needed to configure wireless guest access on the network?
A. endpoint already profiled in ISE
B. WEBAUTH ACL for redirection
C. valid user account in Active Directory
D. Captive Portal Bypass turned on
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
Which description of the use of low-impact mode in a Cisco ISE deployment is correct?
A. It continues to use the authentication open capabilities of the switch port, which allows traffic to enter the switch
before an authorization result.
B. Low-impact mode must be the final phase in deploying Cisco ISE into a network environment using the phased
approach.
C. It enables authentication (with authentication open), sees exactly which devices fail and which succeed, andcorrects
the failed authentications before they
D. The port does not allow any traffic before the authentication (except for EAP, Cisco Discovery Protocol, and LDP),
and then the port is assigned to specific authorization results after the authentication
Correct Answer: C

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Examvcesoftware Exam Table of Contents:

latest updated Cisco 300-710 exam questions and answers

QUESTION 1
Which Firepower feature allows users to configure bridges in routed mode and enables devices to perform Layer 2
switching between interfaces?
A. FlexConfig
B. BDI
C. SGT
D. IRB
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/620/relnotes/Firepower_System_Release_Notes_Version_620/new_features_and_functionality.html

QUESTION 2
How many report templates does the Cisco Firepower Management Center support?
A. 20
B. 10
C. 5
D. unlimited
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/60/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guidev60/Working_with_Reports.html

QUESTION 3
After deploying a network-monitoring tool to manage and monitor networking devices in your organization, you realize
that you need to manually upload a MIB for the Cisco FMC. In which folder should you upload the MIB file?
A. /etc/sf/DCMIB.ALERT
B. /sf/etc/DCEALERT.MIB
C. /etc/sf/DCEALERT.MIB
D. system/etc/DCEALERT.MIB
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firesight/541/firepower-module-user-guide/asa-firepower
module-user-guide-v541/Intrusion-External-Responses.pdf

QUESTION 4
Which command is entered in the Cisco FMC CLI to generate a troubleshooting file?
A. show running-config
B. show tech-support chassis
C. system support diagnostic-cli
D. sudo sf_troubleshoot.pl
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/sourcefire-defense-center/117663-technoteSourceFire-00.html

QUESTION 5
Which two actions can be used in an access control policy rule? (Choose two.)
A. Block with Reset
B. Monitor
C. Analyze
D. Discover
E. Block ALL
Correct Answer: AB
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firesight/541/firepower-module-user-guide/asa-firepowermodule-user-guide-v541/AC-Rules-Tuning-Overview.html#71854

QUESTION 6
Which two features of Cisco AMP for Endpoints allow for an uploaded file to be blocked? (Choose two.)
A. application blocking
B. simple custom detection
C. file repository
D. exclusions
E. application whitelisting
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 7
Which report template field format is available in Cisco FMC?
A. box lever chart
B. arrow chart
C. bar chart
D. benchmark chart
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/60/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guidev60/Working_with_Reports.html

QUESTION 8
What is the result of specifying of QoS rule that has a rate limit that is greater than the maximum throughput of an
interface?
A. The rate-limiting rule is disabled.
B. Matching traffic does not rate limited.
C. The system rate-limits all traffic.
D. The system repeatedly generates warnings.
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/620/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guidev62/quality_of_service_qos.pdf

QUESTION 9
Which two routing options are valid with Cisco Firepower Threat Defense? (Choose two.)
A. BGPv6
B. ECMP with up to three equal-cost paths across multiple interfaces
C. ECMP with up to three equal-cost paths across a single interface
D. BGPv4 in transparent firewall mode
E. BGPv4 with nonstop forwarding
Correct Answer: AC
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/601/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guidev601/fpmc-config-guide-v60_chapter_01100011.html#ID-2101-0000000e

QUESTION 10
Which two types of objects are reusable and supported by Cisco FMC? (Choose two.)
A. dynamic key mapping objects that help link HTTP and HTTPS GET requests to Layer 7 application protocols.
B. reputation-based objects that represent Security Intelligence feeds and lists, application filters based on category and
reputation, and file lists
C. network-based objects that represent IP address and networks, port/protocols pairs, VLAN tags, security zones, and
origin/destination country
D. network-based objects that represent FQDN mappings and networks, port/protocol pairs, VXLAN tags, security
zones and origin/destination country
E. reputation-based objects, such as URL categories
Correct Answer: BC
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/620/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guidev62/reusable_objects.html#ID-2243-00000414

QUESTION 11
When do you need the file-size command option during troubleshooting with packet capture?
A. when capture packets are less than 16 MB
B. when capture packets are restricted from the secondary memory
C. when capture packets exceed 10 GB
D. when capture packets exceed 32 MB
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/620/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guidev62/troubleshooting_the_system.html

QUESTION 12
Which limitation applies to Cisco Firepower Management Center dashboards in a multidomain environment?
A. Child domains can view but not edit dashboards that originate from an ancestor domain.
B. Child domains have access to only a limited set of widgets from ancestor domains.
C. Only the administrator of the top ancestor domain can view dashboards.
D. Child domains cannot view dashboards that originate from an ancestor domain.
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/60/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guidev60/Using_Dashboards.html

QUESTION 13
Within Cisco Firepower Management Center, where does a user add or modify widgets?
A. dashboard
B. reporting
C. context explorer
D. summary tool
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/60/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guidev60/Using_Dashboards.html

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