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Latest updates Cisco 350-501 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1

lead4pass 350-501 exam questions q1

Refer to the exhibit. Which effect of this configuration is true?
A. It enables MPLS on the interface.
B. It creates a pseudowire class named cisco.
C. It enables AToM on interface gigabitethernet1/0.
D. It enables tagging for VLAN 12 on the interface.
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://community.cisco.com/t5/service-providers-documents/configuration-example-atom-any-transport-overmpls-for-like-to/ta-p/3144810

QUESTION 2

lead4pass 350-501 exam questions q2

Refer to the exhibit. If the NetFlow configuration is updated to version 9, which additional piece of information can be
reported?
A. IPv4 flow information
B. BGP AS information
C. IPv6 flow information
D. flow sequence numbers
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/ipv6/configuration/12-2sx/ipv6-12-2sxbook/ip6-netflow.html

QUESTION 3
An engineer working for a telecommunication company needs to secure the LAN network using a prefix-list. Which best
practice should the engineer follow when he implements a prefix-list?

A. An engineer must identify the prefix list with a number only.
B. The final entry in a prefix list must be /32.
C. An engineer must include only the prefixes for which he needs to log activity.
D. An engineer must use nonsequential sequence numbers in the prefix-list so that he can insert additional entries later.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
How can shared services in an MPLS Layer 3 VPN provide Internet access to the Customers of a central service
provider?
A. Static routes on CE routers allow route leakage from a PE global routing table.
B. The CE router can establish a BGP peering to a PE router and use the PE device to reach the Internet.
C. The customer VRF uses route targets to import and export routes to and from a shared services VRF.
D. Route distinguishers are used to identify the routes that CEs can use to reach the Internet.
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://community.cisco.com/t5/service-providers-documents/providing-internet-access-for-mpls-l3-vpns/tap/3109924

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit. What does this value mean when it is received in XML?
A. It indicates a value assigned by a network administrator to tag a route.
B. It indicates a break in a sequence.
C. It means a data field is blank.
D. It shows the ending of the script.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Which statement about LDP Session Protection and LDP-IGP sync is true?
A. Both LDP features cannot be used at the same time in an MPLS LDP enabled network
B. LDP Session Protection re-exchanges label information when a down-up event occurs; LDP-IGP sync keeps the
adjacency and label information in a down-up event

C. LDP-IGP sync re-exchanges label information when a down-up event occurs; LDP Session Protection keeps the
adjacency and label information in a down-up event
D. Both LDP features must be used together to increase fast convergence on an MPLS LDP-enabled network
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7

lead4pass 350-501 exam questions q7

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is configuring customer edge routers to finalize a L2VPN over MPLS
deployment. Assume that the AToM L2VPN service that connects the two CEs is configured correctly on the service
provider network.
Which action causes the solution to failing?
A. OSPF does not work with L2VPN services.
B. The routing protocol network types are not compatible.
C. A loopback with a /32 IP address has not been used.
D. The connect statement has not been defined.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8

DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the functionalities from the left onto the correct target fields on the right.
Select and Place:

lead4pass 350-501 exam questions q7

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 350-501 exam questions q8-1

QUESTION 9

lead4pass 350-501 exam questions q9

Refer to the exhibit. This configuration is being applied to an IOS XR router. Which statement about this configuration is
true?
A. It is used to enable gRPC.
B. It is used to create a streaming subscription with a 600-second interval.
C. It is used to set up the configuration to poll network data.
D. It is used to create a streaming subscription with a 60-Second interval.
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/routers/asr9000/software/telemetry/b-telemetry-cg-asr9000-62x/btelemetry-config-guide-asr9000_chapter_01.html

QUESTION 10

lead4pass 350-501 exam questions q10

Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about the IS-IS topology are true? (Choose two.)
A. R1 and R4 are Level 2 neighbors.
B. All four routers are operating as Level 1-2 routers.
C. All four routers are operating as Level 2 routers only.
D. All four routers are operating as Level 1 routers only.
E. R1 and R2 are Level 2 neighbors.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 11
An engineer is setting up overlapping VPNs to allow VRF ABC and XYZ to communicate with VRF CENTRAL but wants
to make sure that VRF ABC and XYZ cannot communicate. Which configuration accomplishes these objectives?

lead4pass 350-501 exam questions q11
lead4pass 350-501 exam questions q11-1

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Which configuration enables BGP FlowSpec client function and installation of policies on all local interfaces?
A. flowspec address-family ipv4 local-install interface-all
B. flowspec address-family ipv4 install interface-all local
C. flowspec address-family ipv4 install interface-all
D. flowspec address-family ipv4 local-install all-interface
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/iproute_bgp/configuration/xe-16-6/irg-xe-16-6-book/C3PLBGP-Flowspec-Client.html

QUESTION 13
A customer of an ISP request supports to set up a BGP routing policy. Which BGP attribute should be configured to
choose specific BGP speakers as preferred points for the customer AS?
A. lowest multi-exit discriminator
B. highest local preference outbound
C. lowest local preference inbound
D. highest local preference inbound
Correct Answer: B

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Latest updates Cisco 350-401 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
What is the correct EBGP path attribute list, ordered from most preferred to the least preferred, that the BGP best-path Does algorithm use?
A. weight. AS path, local preference. MED
B. weight, local preference AS path, MED
C. local preference weight AS path, MED
D. local preference, weight MED, AS path
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the correct routing protocol types on the right.
Select and Place:

lead4pass 350-401 exam questions q1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 350-401 exam questions q1-1

QUESTION 3
At which Layer does the Cisco DNA Center support REST controls?
A. EEM applets or scripts
B. Session layer
C. YMAL output from responses to API calls
D. Northbound APIs
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
A network is being migrated from IPV4 to IPV6 using a dual-stack approach. Network management is already 100%
IPV6 enabled.
In a dual-stack network with two dual-stack NetFlow collections, how many flow exporters are needed per network device in the flexible NetFlow configuration?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which two descriptions of FlexConnect mode for Cisco APs are true? (Choose two.)
A. APS that operate in FlexConnect mode cannot detect rogue APs.
B. FlexConnect mode is used when the APs are set up in a mesh environment and used to bridge between each other.
C. FlexConnect mode is a feature that is designed to allow specified CAPWAP-enabled APs to exclude themselves from
managing data traffic between clients and infrastructure.
D. When connected to the controller, FlexConnect APs can tunnel traffic back to the controller.
E. FlexConnect mode is a wireless solution for branch office and remote office deployments.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 6
To increase total throughput and redundancy on the links between the wireless controller and switch, the customer
enabled LAG on the wireless controller. Which EtherChannel mode must be configured on the switch to allow the WLC
to connect?
A. Auto
B. Active
C. On
D. Passive
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.

lead4pass 350-401 exam questions q7

Assuming that R is a CE router, which VRF is assigned to Gi0/0 on R1?
A. VRF VPN_B
B. Default VRF
C. Management VRF
D. VRF VPN_A
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Which statement about agent-based versus agentless configuration management tools is true?
A. Agentless tools require no messaging systems between masters and slaves.
B. Agentless tools use proxy nodes to interface with slave nodes.
C. Agent-based tools do not require a high-level language interpreter such as Python or Ruby on slave nodes.
D. Agent-based tools do not require the installation of additional software packages on the slave nodes.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which LISP infrastructure device provides connectivity between non-sites and LISP sites by receiving non-LISP traffic
with a LISP site destination?
A. PETR
B. PITR
C. map resolver
D. map server
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10

lead4pass 350-401 exam questions q10

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is designing a guest portal on Cisco ISE using the default configuration. During the
testing phase, the engineer receives a warning when displaying the guest portal. Which issue is occurring?
A. The server that is providing the portal has an expired certificate
B. The server that is providing the portal has a self-signed certificate
C. The connection is using an unsupported protocol
D. The connection is using an unsupported browser
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which technology provides a secure communication channel for all traffic at Layer 2 of the OSI model?
A. MACsec
B. IPsec
C. SSL
D. Cisco Trusts
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Which two pieces of information are necessary to compute SNR? (Choose two.)
A. EIRP
B. noise floor
C. antenna gain
D. RSSI
E. transmit power
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 13
Which behavior can be expected when the HSRP versions is changed from 1 to 2?
A. Each HSRP group reinitializes because the virtual MAC address has changed.
B. No changes occur because version 1 and 2 use the same virtual MAC OUI.
C. Each HSRP group reinitializes because the multicast address has changed.
D. No changes occur because the standby router is upgraded before the active router.
Correct Answer: A

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Latest Updates Juniper JN0-334 Exam Practice Questions and Answers

QUESTION 1

Which two statements describe how rules are used with Juniper Secure Analytics? (Choose two.)
A. When a rule is triggered, JSA can respond by sending an e-mail to JSA administrators.
B. Rules are defined on Junos Space Security Director and then pushed to JSA log collectors.
C. A rule defines matching criteria and actions that should be taken when an event matches the rule.
D. When a rule is triggered, JSA can respond by blocking all traffic from a specific source address.

Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 2

What are the two types of attack objects used by IPS on SRX Series devices? (Choose two.)
A. protocol anomaly-based attacks
B. spam-based attacks
C. signature-based attacks
D. DDoS-based attacks

Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 3

A routing change occurs on an SRX Series device that involves choosing a new egress interface.
In this scenario, which statement is true for all affected current sessions?
A. The current session is torn down only if the policy-rematch option has been enabled.
B. The current sessions do not change.
C. The current sessions are torn down and go through first path processing based on the new route.
D. The current sessions might change based on the corresponding security policy.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4

Your manager asks you to find employees that are watching YouTube during office hours.
Which AppSecure component would you configure to accomplish this task?
A. AppQoE
B. AppFW
C. AppTrack
D. AppQoS

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5

When referencing an SSL proxy profile in a security policy, which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)
A. A security policy can reference both a client-protection SSL proxy profile and a server-protection proxy profile.
B. If you apply an SSL proxy profile to a security policy and forget to apply any Layer7 services to the security policy,
any encrypted traffic that matches the security policy is not decrypted.
C. A security policy can only reference a client-protection SSL proxy profile or a server-protection SSL proxy profile.
D. If you apply an SSL proxy profile to a security policy and forget to apply any Layer7 services to the security policy,
any encrypted traffic that matches the security policy is decrypted.

Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 6

Which two statements are correct about server-protection SSP proxy? (Choose two.)
A. The server-protection SSL proxy intercepts the server certificate.
B. The server-protection SSL proxy is also known as an SSL reverse proxy.
C. The server-protection SSL proxy forwards the server certificate after modification.
D. The server-protection SSL proxy acts as the server from the client\’s perspective.

Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 7

You must fine-tune an IPS security policy to eliminate false positives. You want to create exemptions to the normal
traffic examination for specific traffic.
Which two parameters are required to accomplish this task? (Choose two.)
A. source IP address
B. destination IP address
C. destination port
D. source port

Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 8

You must configure JSA to accept events from an unsupported third-party log source.
In this scenario, what should you do?
A. Separate event collection and flow collection on separate collectors.
B. Configure an RPM for a third-party device service module.
C. Configure JSA to silently discard unsupported log types.
D. Configure a universal device service module.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9

You are asked to improve resiliency for individual redundancy groups in an SRX4600 chassis cluster.
Which two features would accomplish this task? (Choose two.)
A. IP address monitoring
B. control link recovery
C. interface monitoring
D. dual fabric links

Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 10

Click the Exhibit button.

examvcesoftware jn0-334 q10

You have implemented SSL proxy client protection. After implementing this feature, your users are complaining about
the warning message is shown in the exhibit.
Which action must you perform to eliminate the warning message?
A. Configure the SRX Series device as a trusted site in the client Web browsers.
B. Regenerate the SRX self-signed CA certificate and include the correct organization name.
C. Import the SRX self-signed CA certificate into the client Web browsers.
D. Import the SRX self-signed CA certificate into the SRX certificate public store.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11

Click the Exhibit button.

examvcesoftware jn0-334 q11

Referring to the exhibit, which statement is true?
A. Hosts are always able to communicate through the SRX Series device no matter the threat score assigned to them
on the infected host feed.
B. Hosts are unable to communicate through the SRX Series device after being placed on the infected host feed with a
high enough threat score.
C. Malicious HTTP file downloads are never blocked.
D. Malicious HTTP file downloads are always blocked.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12

When considering managed sessions, which configuration parameter determines how full the session table must be to
implement the early age-out function?
A. session service timeout
B. high watermark
C. low watermark
D. policy rematch

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13

What is the maximum number of supported interfaces on a vSRX hosted in a VMware environment?
A. 4
B. 10
C. 3
D. 12

Correct Answer: B

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Latest Updates Juniper JN0-103 Exam Practice Questions and Answers

QUESTION 1

Which statement describes transit traffic?
A. Traffic addressed to the chassis that requires some form of special handling by the RE before it can be forwarded out
an egress port.
B. Traffic that enters an ingress port, is compared against the forwarding table and is forwarded out an egress port.
C. Any traffic that requires the generation of an ICMP message.
D. Traffic that requires some form of special attention and does not pass through the device.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2

examvcesoftware jn0-103 q2

Referring to the exhibit, which command will cause this event message?
A. request system halt
B. request system logout
C. request system recover
D. request system commit

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3

When you display the routing table by entering the show route command, what does the * indicate?
A. The route is a direct route.
B. The route was selected as active.
C. The route is a default route.
D. The route was learned using a dynamic routing protocol.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4

Which parameter of the monitor traffic command should be used with caution when considering storage space on a Junos device?
A. write-file
B. layer2-headers
C. extensive
D. detail

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5

When configuring more than one archival site, which statement is true?
A. The system will first attempt the transfer using the URL configured last.
B. The system will transfer the configuration to each archival site.
C. The system will not transfer to a secondary site unless the previous site fails.
D. The system will transfer using a secure copy protocol (SCP) before attempting FTP.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6

Given the host IP address of 192.168.100.60 and a network mask of 255.255.255.224 (or /27), which address
represents the correct network address for the referenced host?
A. 192.168.100.48
B. 192.168.100.16
C. 192.168.100.0
D. 192.168.100.32

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7

Which command causes the Junos OS to temporarily to activate a configuration?
A. commit check
B. commit synchronize
C. commit confirmed
D. commit and-quit

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8

What is the decimal equivalent of 00000100?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 9
D. 12

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9

Which two statements about subnet masks are true? (Choose two.)
A. If a bit is turned on (1), the corresponding bit in the IP address is used for the host portion.
B. If a bit is turned off (0), the corresponding bit in the IP address is used for the host portion.
C. If a bit is turned on (1), the corresponding bit in the IP address is used for the network prefix.
D. If a bit is turned off (0), the corresponding bit in the IP address is used for the network prefix.

Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 10

Which two commands will provide the current configuration of the MX1-PE1 BGP group on your router? (Choose two.)
A. [email protected]# show groups | display set | match MX1-PE1
B. [email protected]> show configuration | display set | match MX1-PE1
C. [email protected]> show configuration | match set | match MX1-PE1
D. [email protected]# show | display set | match MX1-PE1

Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 11

The marketing team needs access to a server on a subnet 172.0.46.0/24. The next-hop router is 10.0.4.2/30. A static
route on their gateway has been configured to accomplish the task. You want to keep the static route from being
redistributed into dynamic routing protocols.
Which command will satisfy this requirement?
A. Set routing-options static route 172.0.46.0/24 next-hop 10.0.4.2/30 no-resolve
B. Set routing-options static route 172.0.46.0/24 next-hop 10.0.4.2/30
C. Set routing-options static route 172.0.46.0/24 next-hop 10.0.4.2/30 no-readvertise
D. Set routing-options static route 172.0.46.0/24 next-hop 10.0.4.2/30 no-redistribute

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12

Which layer in the OSI model is responsible for translating frames into bits?
A. Application Layer
B. Presentation Layer
C. Data Link Layer
D. Physical Layer

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13

Which three SONET network elements are used for troubleshooting? (Choose three.)
A. line
B. path
C. circuit
D. section
E. segment

Correct Answer: ABD

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Latest Updates Juniper JN0-420 Exam Practice Questions and Answers

QUESTION 1

What are two message types that compose the message layer of the Juniper NETCONF implementation? (Choose
two?)
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 2

You are asked by your manager to automatically switch traffic from the primary link to the backup link on the MX Series
device at the branch site whenever latency is above 300 ms over a 5-minute period. Which type of Junos script would
you use in this scenario?
A.Op
B. SNMP
C. Commit
D. Event

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.juniper.net/documentation/en_US/junos/topics/concept/junos-script-automation-overview.html

QUESTION 3

Your organization is creating a custom YANG module. You are asked to create a leaf node called timeout with a data
type of duration. In this scenario, what is the appropriate syntax for this leaf node?

juniper JN0-420 q3
juniper JN0-420 q3-1

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4

Which messaging protocol do JET service APIs use to interface with the Junos OS?
A. NETCONF
B. MQTT
C. RabbitMQ
D. gRPC

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.juniper.net/documentation/en_US/jet1.0/information-products/pathway-pages/jet-developerguide.html

QUESTION 5

By default, Python event scripts and SNMP scripts configured on a Junos device execute as which user?
A. wheel
B. snmpd
C. nobody
D. root

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6

Click the Exhibit button. Exhibit:

examvcesoftware juniper JN0-420 q6

The Ansible playbook shown in the exhibit is executed against a set of Junos network devices. Each Junos device is
configured with a user account in the super-user login class. The user account uses SSH-key-based authentication with
a
a passphrase of user123.
What is the result of executing this playbook against the Junos network devices?
A. The playbook executes but fails with a “ConnectAuthError” due to the missing passphrase argument to the
junos_get_facts module
B. The playbook fails due to a YAML syntax error.
C. The playbook executes and prints the version of Junos running on each network device as the value of
response.facts.version
D. The playbook executes and prints “VARIABLE IS NOT DEFINED!” as the value response.facts.version

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7

Click the Exhibit button. Exhibit:

examvcesoftware jn0-420 q7

An automation developer is using command-line scripting and wants to briefly survey NETCONF capabilities before
running a new task. Referring to the exhibit, how does the automation developer end the current NETCONF session and
go to the next one?
A. Use the command.
B. Use the quit command
C. Use the logout command
D. Use the command.

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.juniper.net/documentation/en_US/junos/topics/task/operational/netconf-session-closing.html

QUESTION 8

Click the Exhibit button. Exhibit: You need to programmatically extract interface information using PyEZ from your MX
Series devise. You log in and use the show interfaces terse | display XML RPC command and see the information shown
in the exhibit. What is the correct PyEZ syntax to accomplish this task?

examvcesoftware jn0-420 q8

A. dev.rpc.get-interface-information()
B. dev.rpc.get_interface_information(terse=True)
C. dev.rpc.get-interface-information(terse=True)
D. dev.rpc.get_interface_information()

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9

With which three processes does the JET service process communicate? (Choose three)
A. snmpd
B. ancpd
C. cosd
D. mgd
E. rpd

Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 10

Click the Exhibit button. Exhibit:

examvcesoftware jn0-420 q10

Referring to the exhibit, how would you solve this issue?
A. Enable trace options under the NETCONF configuration hierarchy
B. Enable protocol-version v1 under the SSH configuration hierarchy
C. Enable outbound-ssh with services netconf under the SSH configuration hierarchy
D. Enable ssh under the NETCONF configuration hierarchy

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.juniper.net/documentation/en_US/junos/topics/topic-map/netconf-ssh-connection.html

QUESTION 11

What are two format distinctions to know when using YAML? (Choose two)
A. white space indentation sensitive
B. tab indentation not allowed
C. tab indentation allowed
D. white space indentation insensitive

Correct Answer: AB

Because YAML is white-space sensitive and indentation is significant (not allowed), you should always use spaces
rather than tabs when creating playbooks. In YAML, items preceded by a hyphen (-) are considered list items, and the
key: value notation represents a hash. Reference: https://www.juniper.net/documentation/en_US/junosansible1.0/topics/task/program/junos-ansible-playbooks-creating-executing.html

QUESTION 12

A customer has a control machine with a default Ansible installation. During the execution of an Ansible module against a
Junos devise, the Ansible control machine generates the msg: unable to connect to router1.example.com:
ConnectRefusedError (router1.example.com) error.
What is the cause of this error?
A. router1.example.com was not defined in /etc/hosts on the control machine
B. Ansible cannot connect to the device through NETCONF
C. router1.example.com was not defined in /etc/ansible/inventory/hosts on the control machine
D. Ansible cannot authenticate to the device

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.juniper.net/documentation/en_US/junos-ansible1.0/information-products/pathway-pages/junosansible.pdf

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Latest updates Cisco CCNP Enterprise 300-425 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
An engineer must ensure that the new wireless LAN deployment can support seamless roaming between access points
using a standard based on an amendment to the 802.11 protocol. Which protocol must the engineer select?
A. 802.11i
B. 802.11ac
C. 802.11r
D. 802.11e
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 2
A wireless engineer is utilizing the voice readiness tool in Cisco Prime for a customer that wants to deploy Cisco IP
phones. Which dBm range is the network inspected against?
A. -78 to -65 dBm
B. -72 to -67 dBm
C. -85 to -65 dBm
D. -85 to -67 dBm
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 3
An engineer is reducing the subnet size of the corporate WLAN by segmenting the VLAN into smaller subnets. Clients
will be assigned a subnet by location. Which type of groups can the engineer use to map the smaller subnets to the
corporate WLAN?
A. WLC port groups
B. RF groups
C. AP groups
D. interface groups
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 4
During a client roaming event, which device is responsible for communicating the new Layer 2 EID mapping of a
wireless supplicant to the fabric domain?
A. WLC
B. BN
C. CP2
D. CP1
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 5
Which non-Wi-Fi interferer can be identified by Metageek Chanalyzer?
A. PDAs
B. jammers
C. smartphones
D. printers
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 6
Which two considerations must a network engineer have when planning for voice over wireless roaming? (Choose two.)
A. Full reauthentication introduces gaps in a voice conversation.
B. Roaming time increases when using 802.1x + Cisco Centralized Key Manegement.
C. Roaming occurs when the phone has seen at least four APs.
D. Roaming occurs when the phone has reached -80 dBs or below.
E. Roaming with only 802.1x authentication requires full reauthentication.
Correct Answer: AE

 

QUESTION 7
When conducting a site survey for real-time traffic over wireless, which two design capabilities of smartphones and
tablets must be considered? (Choose two.)
A. no support for 802.11ac
B. higher data rates than laptops
C. fewer antennas than laptops
D. no support for 802.11r
E. lower data rates than laptops
Correct Answer: BC

 

QUESTION 8
An engineer must decide the cell overlap for a wireless voice deployment. Which Cisco measurement recommendation
should be considered?
A. The edge of the cell should be -67 dBm.
B. The edge of the cell should be below 35 RSSI.
C. The measurement should be done on the 2.4-GHz band.
D. One AP should be deployed per 3000 square feet.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 9
A wireless deployment in a high-density environment is being used by vendors to process credit card payment
transactions via handheld mobile scanners. The scanners are having problems roaming between access points in the
environment. Which feature on the wireless controller should have been incorporated in the design?
A. RX SOP
B. 802.11w
C. AP Heartbeat Timeout
D. Application Visibility Control
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 10
An engineer has configured guest anchoring for a newly created SSD however, the mobility tunnels are not up, and
EPING is failing from the foreign WLC to the anchor WLC. Which traffic flow must be allowed at the firewall to enable
the communication?
A. UDP port 16666
B. IP protocol 97
C. UDP port 97
D. TCP port 97
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 11
Clustering Cisco WLCs into a single RF group enables the RRM algorithms to scale beyond the capabilities of a single
Cisco WLC. How many WLC and APs in an RF group can the controller software scale up to in WLC release 8.9
depending on the platform?
A. up to 20 WLCs and 1000 APs
B. up to 20 WLCs and 3000 APs
C. up to 20 WLCs and 4000 APs
D. up to 20 WLCs and 6000 APs
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 12
A customer is running a guest WLAN with a foreign/export-anchor setup. There is one anchor WLC in the US and two in
Europe. Anchor WLC priorities are used to prefer local anchors. During a routine network audit, it is discovered that a
large number of guest client sessions in the US are anchored to the WLCs in Europe. Which reason explains this
behavior?
A. The foreign WLC failed and recovered.
B. The US anchor WLC failed and recovered.
C. The US anchor WLC is anchored to itself with a priority value of zero.
D. The anchor WLC is in the same mobility group.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 13
A customer is concerned about mesh backhaul link security. Which level of ecnryption does the backhaul link use?
A. hash
B. AES
C. WEP
D. 3DES
Correct Answer: B

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Latest updates Cisco CCNP Enterprise 300-420 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
Which feature is required for graceful restart to recover from a processor failure?
A. Cisco Express Forwarding
B. Virtual Switch System
C. Stateful Switchover
D. Bidirectional Forwarding Detection
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 2
Which nonproprietary mechanism can be used to automate rendezvous point distribution in a large PIM domain?
A. Embedded RP
B. BSR
C. Auto-RP
D. Static RP
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 3
An infrastructure team is concerned about the shared memory utilization of a device, and for this reason, they need to
monitor the device state. Which solution limits impact on the device and provides the required data?
A. IPFIX
B. static telemetry
C. on-change subscription
D. periodic subscription
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 4
Which control-plane technology allows the same subnet to exist across multiple network locations?
A. LISP
B. VXLAN
C. FabricPath
D. ISE mobility services
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 5
Which design consideration must be made when using IPv6 overlay tunnels?
A. Overlay tunnels that connect isolated IPv6 networks can be considered a final IPv6 network architecture.
B. Overlay tunnels should only be considered as a transition technique toward a permanent solution.
C. Overlay tunnels can be configured only between border devices and require only the IPv6 protocol stack.
D. Overlay tunneling encapsulates IPv4 packets in IPv6 packets for delivery across an IPv6 infrastructure.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 6
An engineer is designing an enterprise campus network. The LAN infrastructure consists of switches from multiple
vendors, and Spanning Tree must be used as a Layer 2 loop prevention mechanism. All configured VLANs must be
grouped in two SIP instances. Which standards-based Spanning Tree technology supports this design solution?
A. MSTP
B. RSTP
C. Rapid PVST
D. STP
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 7
When a first hop redundancy solution is designed, which protocol ensures that load balancing occurs over multiple
routers using a single virtual IP address and multiple virtual MAC addresses?
A. GLBP
B. IRDP
C. VRRP
D. HSRP
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 8
An engineer is looking for a standards-driven YANG model to manage a multivendor network environment. Which model
must the engineer choose?
A. Native
B. OpenConfig
C. IETF
D. IEEE NETCONF
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 9
Which two best practices must be followed when designing an out-of-band management network? (Choose two.)
A. Enforce access control
B. Facilitate network integration
C. Back up data using the management network
D. Ensure that the management network is a backup to the data network
E. Ensure network isolation
Correct Answer: AE

 

QUESTION 10
Which two BGP features will result in successful route exchanges between eBGP neighbors sharing the same AS
number? (Choose two.)
A. advertise-best-external
B. bestpath as-path ignore
C. client-to-client reflection
D. as-override
E. allow-as-in
Correct Answer: DE


QUESTION 11
When a network is designed using IS-IS protocol, which two circuit types are supported? (Choose two.)
A. nonbroadcast multiaccess
B. multiaccess
C. point-to-multipoint
D. nonbroadcast
E. point-to-point
Correct Answer: BE

 

QUESTION 12
Which method will filter routes between EIGRP neighbors within the same autonomous system?
A. distribute-list
B. policy-based routing
C. leak-map
D. route tagging
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 13
Company A recently acquired another company. Users of the newly acquired company must be able to access a server
that exists on Company A\\’s network, both companies use overlapping IP address ranges. Which action conserves IP
address space and provides access to the server?
A. Use a single IP address to create overload NAT
B. Use a single IP address to create a static NAT entry
C. Build one-to-one NAT translation for every user that needs access
D. Re-IP overlapping address space in the acquired company
Correct Answer: A

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  • Storage
  • Compute platforms
  • Management and operations

Latest updates Cisco 300-180 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
A customer is configuring VSANs in a Cisco UCS domain. After configuring the VSANs 3840, 3841, and 3842 in FC end-
host mode, the customer sees that these VSANs are not operational and that Cisco UCS Manager is raising faults.
What is the cause of this problem?
A. VSANs 3840, 3841, and 3842 should be in the allowed list on the trunk to clear the fault.
B. VSANs 3840 to 4079 cannot be used in Fibre Channel end-host mode in a Cisco UCS domain.
C. The fabric interconnect needs to be configured in switching mode and the VSANs need to be allowed on the trunk.
D. Use the UCS CLI to clear the fault on the VSAN trunk to forward the VSANs with faults.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which statement is true about the show cfs merge status name command?
A. In a successful merge, all switches in the fabric are shown separately.
B. The command shows the complete Cisco Fabric Services region database.
C. The merge master is selected based on the highest sWWN in the fabric.
D. In a successful merge, all switches are shown in a local fabric.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which two actions do you need to take to configure jumbo frames on UCS Manager? (Choose two.)
A. Choose QoS Policy Jumbo, choose the LAN tab, and set the MTU value to 9000.
B. Choose QoS System Class, choose the LAN tab, and set the MTU value to 9000.
C. Choose LAN Uplinks Manager, choose the LAN tab, and set the MTU value to the uplinks VLANs to 9000.
D. Choose the vNIC, and on the Server Profile set the MTU value to 9000.
E. On the Admin tab, under Global Policy, enable Jumbo MTU Bytes.
F. Go the fabric interconnect on the Equipment tab, right-click the port, and set the MTU value to 9000.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 4
Which two maintenance policy options can you use to specify when the Cisco UCS Manager deploys a service profile
change? (Choose two.)
A. when acknowledged by any user
B. immediately
C. on the next reboot
D. when acknowledged by a user with root privileges
E. when acknowledged by a user with administrator privileges
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 5
You successfully install VMware ESXi 5.0 U1 on a Cisco UCS B200 M3 server to a Fibre Channel LUN. When you
reboot the server, you see the message “Reboot and Select Proper Boot device or insert Boot Media in selected Boot
device and press a key.” What are the first two pieces of information you should gather to troubleshoot the boot failure?
(Choose two.)
A. Connect to the NX-OS shell via the CLI and run the show npv flogi-table command.
B. SSH to the MDS 9124 and run the show flogi database command.
C. Validate the boot target WWPN and LUN ID in the service profile.
D. Validate the correct source WWPN in the service profile vHBA definition.
E. Validate zoning for your WWPN on the Cisco MDS 9124.
F. Validate that the boot order indicates the vHBA as the first device.
G. Ensure LUN masking is correctly configured on the storage controller.
Correct Answer: CF

QUESTION 6
A customer has a Cisco UCS Center cluster. The customer configures LDAP as the AAA protocol and enables SSL for
LDAP. The LDAP authentication fails. Which issue is the cause of the failure?
A. The LDAP client passed an incorrect from the trustpoint.
B. The ca certificate is missing from the trustpoints.
C. The LDAP server limit that is set by an administrative authority was exceeded.
D. The LDAP time limit that is specified by either the client or the server was exceeded.
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/servers-unified-computing/ucs-infrastructure-ucs-manager-software/200092-UCSM-LDAP-Troubleshooting-guide.html

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 300-180 exam question q7

You are configuring a Cisco APIC for access. Which task is being performed in the exhibit?
A. configuring APIC management EpG
B. creating the LDAP logjn domain
C. creating the LDAP provider
D. creating the LDAP provider group
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
You are configuring a Cisco Nexus 9000 Series Switch. Which configuration can be implemented for VXLAN BGP
EVPN?
A. VXLAN BGP EVPN by using an NVE interface in a default VRF
B. RACLs on the Layer 3 uplinks for the VXLAN traffic
C. QoS classification for the VXLAN traffic on all of the interfaces
D. DHCP snooping on the VXLAN VLANs
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
What can prevent you from adding an interface to a pre-existing port-channel on a CISCO Nexus N7K device?
A. The port-channel is In LACP passive mode
B. The interface already assigned to a different port-channel,
C. The interface has been allocated to a different VOC
D. no shutdown was issued on the interface.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Which actions on a Cisco UCS Server can be performed under the Cisco IMC utilities? (Choose Four.)
A. export tech support information to a remote host
B. download a tech support file locally
C. reboot the Cisco IMC
D. recover a corrupt BIOS
E. install firmware updates
Correct Answer: ABCD

QUESTION 11
Storage VDC creation has failed. Which two steps should be taken before creating the storage VDC? (Choose two.)
A. Check that the F1 module has the FCoE license installed.
B. Check that the FCoE feature is enabled on the N7K.
C. Check that you have allocated the interfaces of the F module on the VDC.
D. Check that the network QoS non-drop policy is configured for FCoE traffic.
E. Check that the FCoE VLANs are allocated on the VDC.
F. Check that the M2 module has the FCoE license installed.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 12
Which command output shows the interface assigned as the designated receiver of each VLAN?
A. show system vlan reserved
B. show vlan internal bd-info bd-to-vlan all-bd
C. show port internal info all
D. show platform software enm internal info vlandb all
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
Two fabric interconnects fail during a Cisco UCS firmware upgrade. Drag and drop the recovery steps from the left into
the correct order on the right.
Select and Place:lead4pass 300-175 exam question q13

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 300-175 exam question q13-1

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100-105 ICND1 – Cisco: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/100-105-icnd1.html

This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge and skills related to network fundamentals, LAN switching technologies, routing technologies, infrastructure services, and infrastructure maintenance.

Last date to test: February 23, 2020
The 100-105 ICND1 exam will be retired on February 23, 2020.

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Latest updates Cisco 100-105 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
Which two configuration steps will prevent an unauthorized PC from accessing the corporate network? (Choose two.)
A. set the port security aging time to 0
B. create the port as a protected port and statically assign the MAC address to the address table
C. configure the switch to discover new MAC addresses after a set time of inactivity
D. enable port security on the switch
E. create the port as an access port and statically assign the MAC address to the address table
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit. If the router Cisco returns the given output and has not had its router ID set manually, what value
will OSPF use as its router ID?lead4pass 100-105 exam question q2

A. 192.168.1.1
B. 172.16.1.1
C. 1.1.1.1
D. 2.2.2.2
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
From which of the following attacks can Message Authentication Code (MAC) shield your network?
A. DoS
B. DDoS
C. spoofing
D. SYN floods
Correct Answer: C
Message Authentication Code (MAC) can shield your network from spoofing attacks. Spoofing, also known as
masquerading, is a popular trick in which an attacker intercepts a network packet, replaces the source address of the
packets header with the address of the authorized host, and reinserts fake information which is sent to the receiver. This
type of attack involves modifying packet contents. MAC can prevent this type of attack and ensure data integrity by
ensuring that no data has changed. MAC also protects against frequency analysis, sequence manipulation, and
ciphertext-only attacks. MAC is a secure message digest that requires a secret key shared by the sender and receiver,
making it impossible for sniffers to change both the data and the MAC as the receiver can detect the changes. A denial-
of-service (DoS) attack floods the target system with unwanted requests, causing the loss of service to users. One form
of this attack generates a flood of packets requesting a TCP connection with the target, tying up all resources and
making the target unable to service other requests. MAC does not prevent DoS attacks. Stateful packet filtering is the
most common defense against a DoS attack. A Distributed Denial of Service attack (DDoS) occurs when multiple
systems are used to flood the network and tax the resources of the target system. Various intrusion detection systems,
utilizing stateful packet filtering, can protect against DDoS attacks. In a SYN flood attack, the attacker floods the target
with spoofed IP packets and causes it to either freeze or crash. A SYN flood attack is a type of denial of service attack
that exploits the buffers of a device that accept incoming connections and therefore cannot be prevented by MAC.
Common defenses against a SYN flood attack include filtering, reducing the SYN-RECEIVED timer, and implementing
SYN cache or SYN cookies.

QUESTION 4
Which three statements about IPv6 address fd14:920b:f83d:4079::/64 are true? (Choose three)
A. The subnet ID is 14920bf83d
B. The subnet ID is 4079
C. The global ID is 14920bf83d
D. The address is a link-local address
E. The global ID is 4079
F. The address is a unique local address
Correct Answer: BCF

QUESTION 5
This topology contains 3 routers and 1 switch. Complete the topology.
Drag the appropriate device icons to the labeled Device
Drag the appropriate connections to the locations labeled Connections.
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Drag the appropriate IP addresses to the locations labeled IP address
(Hint: use the given host addresses and Main router information)
To remove a device or connection, drag it away from the topology.
Use information gathered from the Main router to complete the configuration of any additional routers.
No passwords are required to access the Main router. The config terminal command has been disabled for the HQ
router. The router does not require any configuration.lead4pass 100-105 exam question q5

Configure each additional router with the following:
Configure the interfaces with the correct IP address and enable the interfaces.
Set the password to allow console access to consolepw
Set the password to allow telnet access to telnetpw
Set the password to allow privilege mode access to privpw
Not E: Because routes are not being added to the configurations, you will not be able to ping through the internetwork.
All devices have cable autosensing capabilities disabled.
All hosts are PC\\’s
Correct Answer:
Answer: Specify appropriate devices and drag them on the “Device” boxes For the device at the bottom-right box, we
notice that it has 2 interfaces Fa0/2 and Fa0/4; moreover the link connects the PC on the right with the device on the
bottom-right is a straight-through link -> it is a switch
The question stated that this topology contains 3 routers and 1 switch -> two other devices are routers Place them on
appropriate locations as following:
(Host D and host E will be automatically added after placing two routers. Click on them to access neighboring routers)
Specify appropriate connections between these devices:
+ The router on the left is connected with the Main router through FastEthernet interfaces: use a crossover cable
+ The router on the right is connected with the Main router through Serial interfaces: use a serial cable
+ The router on the right and the Switch: use a straight-through cable
+ The router on the left and the computer: use a crossover cable (To remember which type of cable you should use,
follow these tips:
-To connect two serial interfaces of 2 routers we use serial cable
-To specify when we use crossover cable or straight-through cable, we should remember:
Group 1: Router, Host, Server
Group 2: Hub, Switch
One device in group 1 + One device in group 2: use straight-through cable
Two devices in the same group: use crossover cable
For example, we use straight-through cable to connect switch to router, switch to host, hub to host, hub to server… and
we use crossover cable to connect switch to switch, switch to hub, router to router, host to host.)
Assign appropriate IP addresses for interfaces:
From Main router, use show running-config command. (Notice that you may see different IP addresses in the real CCNA
exam, the ones shown above are just used for demonstration)
From the output we learned that the ip address of Fa0/0 interface of the Main router is 192.168.152.177/28. This
address belongs to a subnetwork which has:
Increment: 16 (/28 = 255.255.255.240 or 1111 1111.1111 1111.1111 1111.1111 0000) Network address:
192.168.152.176 (because 176 = 16 * 11 and 176
192.168.152.190 and assign it to the Fa0/0 interface the router on the left Use the same method for interface Serial0/0
with an ip address of 192.168.152.161 Increment: 16 Network address: 192.168.152.160 (because 160 = 16 * 10 and
160 and we choose 192.168.152.174 for Serial0/0 interface of the router on the right Interface Fa0/1 of the router on
the left IP (of the computer on the left) : 192.168.152.129/28 Increment: 16 Network address: 192.168.152.128 (because
128 = 16 * 8 and 128 we choose 192.168.152.142 from the list Interface Fa0/0 of the router on the right IP (of the
computer on the left) : 192.168.152.225/28 Increment: 16 Network address: 192.168.152.224 (because 224 = 16 * 14
and 224 we choose 192.168.152.238 from the list Let\\’s have a look at the picture below to summarize Configure two
routers on the left and right with these commands: Router1 = router on the left Assign appropriate IP addresses to Fa0/0
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and Fa0/1 interfaces:
Router1>enable
Router1#configure terminal
Router1(config)#interface fa0/0
Router1(config-if)#ip address 192.168.152.190 255.255.255.240
Router1(config-if)#no shutdown
Router1(config-if)#interface fa0/1
Router1(config-if)#ip address 192.168.152.142 255.255.255.240
Router1(config-if)#no shutdown Set passwords (configure on two routers)
+ Console password:
Router1(config-if)#exit
Router1(config)#line console 0
Router1(config-line)#password consolepw
Router1(config-line)#login
Router1(config-line)#exit
+ Telnet password:
Router1(config)#line vty 0 4
Router1(config-line)#password telnetpw
Router1(config-line)#login
Router1(config-line)#exit
+ Privilege mode password:
Router1(config)#enable password privpw Save the configuration:
Router1(config)#exit
Router1#copy running-config startup-config Configure IP addresses of Router2 (router on the right) Router2>enable
Router2#configure terminal
Router2(config)#interface fa0/0
Router2(config-if)#ip address 192.168.152.238 255.255.255.240
Router2(config-if)#no shutdown
Router2(config-if)#interface serial0/0
Router2(config-if)#ip address 192.168.152.174 255.255.255.240
Router2(config-if)#no shutdown
Then set the console, telnet and privilege mode passwords for Router2 as we did for Router1, remember to save the
configuration when you finished.

QUESTION 6
Which two attributes of a packet change at every router along the path from source to destination? (Choose two.)
A. destination IP address
B. source MAC address
C. packet MTU
D. source IP address
E. destination MAC address
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 7
Which form of NAT maps multiple private IP addresses to a single registered IP address by using different ports?
A. static NAT
B. dynamic NAT
C. overloading
D. overlapping
E. port loading
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which IP addresses are valid for hosts belonging to the 10.1.160.0/20 subnet? (Choose three.)
A. 10.1.168.0
B. 10.1.176.1
C. 10.1.174.255
D. 10.1.160.255
E. 10.1.160.0
F. 10.1.175.255
Correct Answer: ACD
All IP address in IP ranges between: 10.1.160.1 and 10.1.175.254 are valid as shown below Address: 10.1.160.0
00001010.00000001.1010 0000.00000000 Netmask:255.255.240.0 = 2011111111.11111111.1111 0000.00000000
Wildcard:0.0.15.25500000000.00000000.0000 1111.11111111 Which implies that Network: 10.1.160.0/20
00001010.00000001.1010 0000.00000000 HostMin:10.1.160.100001010.00000001.1010 0000.00000001
HostMax:10.1.175.25400001010.00000001.1010 1111.11111110 Broadcast:10.1.175.25500001010.00000001.1010
1111.11111111

QUESTION 9
Which statements describe the routing protocol OSPF? (Choose three)
A. It supports VLSM.
B. It is used to route between autonomous systems.
C. It confines network instability to one area of the network.
D. It increases routing overhead on the network.
E. It allows extensive control of routing updates.
F. It is simpler to configure than RIP v2.
Correct Answer: ACE
The OSPF protocol is based on link-state technology, which is a departure from the Bellman-Ford vector based
algorithms used in traditional Internet routing protocols such as RIP. OSPF has introduced new concepts such as
authentication
of routing updates, Variable Length Subnet Masks (VLSM), route summarization, and so forth.
OSPF uses flooding to exchange link-state updates between routers. Any change in routing information is flooded to all
routers in the network. Areas are introduced to put a boundary on the explosion of link-state updates. Flooding and
calculation of the Dijkstra algorithm on a router is limited to changes within an area.

QUESTION 10
Which configuration must you perform to enable VTP in a switching domain?
A. Configure a switch as a client.
B. Configure a switch with a VTP domain.
C. Configure a switch with VTP mode off to serve as the server switch.
D. Configure a switch in transparent mode.
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Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Which port security violation mode allows traffic from valid mac address to pass but block traffic from invalid mac
address?
A. protect
B. shutdown
C. shutdown vlan
D. restrict
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
All protocols on a network are using their default administrative distances with no redistribution. In which two different
ways can you modify them so that OSPF and RIPv2 learned routes are preferred over EIGRP-learned routes? (Choose
two.)
A. Change the OSPF administrative distance to 5.
B. Change the RIP administrative distance to 70.
C. Change the EIGRP administrative distance to 70.
D. Change the RIP administrative distance to 100.
E. Change the EIGRP administrative distance to 100.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 13
How are MAC addresses removed from a MAC address table?
A. They are removed automatically if they remain inactive for the duration of the switch aging timer.
B. They are removed automatically on a FIFO basis when the address-table limit has been reached.
C. They must be manually cleared from the table.
D. They are removed automatically if they remain inactive for the duration of the global MAC address timer.
Correct Answer: D

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Exam 70-464: Developing Microsoft SQL Server Databases: https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-70-464.aspx

Skills measured

This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below.

  • Implement database objects (30–35%)
  • Implement programming objects (15-20%)
  • Design database objects (25–30%)
  • Optimize and troubleshoot queries (25–30%)

Who should take this exam?

This exam is intended for database professionals who build and implement databases across organizations and who ensure high levels of data availability. Their responsibilities include creating database files, data types, and tables; planning, creating, and optimizing indexes; ensuring data integrity; implementing views, stored procedures, and functions; and managing transactions and locks.

Latest updates Microsoft 70-464 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1

You administer a SQL Server 2014 instance. 

The server is capable of 10000 IO/second (IOPS). During the time period when the second process executes, the disk

IO can reach 7000 IOPS, and CPU use can average 30% over the eight processors. 

The first process summarizes the day\\’s activity executed by a login of [SummaryReportLogin]. The second process

submits transactions executed by a login of [ETLLogin]. 

A Resource Governor classifier function has been created to return WG_Low for connections from the [ETLLogin] and

[SummaryReportLogin]. 

You need to set up the Resource Group and Workgroup Pools on the instance. 

You have the following requirements: 

1. 

Both processes must never use more than 50 percent of the CPU at any one time. 

2. 

The number of active queries that these processes can execute simultaneously should be limited to a maximum of 10. 

3. 

The SummaryReportLogin process must always achieve the minimum IOPS required to be minimally affected during

executing the ETLLogin processes. 

Develop the solution by selecting and arranging the required code blocks in the correct order. 

You may not need all of the code blocks. 

Select and Place:lead4pass 70-464 exam question q1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 70-464 exam question q1-1

Note:
CREATE WORKLOAD RESOURCE POOL
*
Resource pools. A resource pool, represents the physical resources of the server. You can think of a pool as a virtual
SQL Server instance inside of a SQL Server instance.
*
Workload groups. A workload group serves as a container for session requests that have similar classification criteria.
A workload allows for aggregate monitoring of the sessions, and defines policies for the sessions. Each workload group
is
in a resource pool.
*
CAP_CPU_PERCENT =value
Specifies a hard cap on the CPU bandwidth that all requests in the resource pool will receive. Limits the maximum CPU
bandwidth level to be the same as the specified value. value is an integer with a default setting of 100. The allowed
range
for value is from 1 through 100.
*
MIN_IOPS_PER_VOLUME =value
Specifies the minimum I/O operations per second (IOPS) per disk volume to reserve for the resource pool.
*
GROUP_MAX_REQUESTS =value
Specifies the maximum number of simultaneous requests that are allowed to execute in the workload group. value must
be a 0 or a positive integer.

QUESTION 2
You have a database named database1. Each table in database1 has one index per column.
Users often report that creating items takes a long time.
You need to perform the following maintenance tasks:
Identify unused indexes.
Identify indexes that need to be defragmented.
What should you use?
To answer, drag the appropriate function to the correct management task in the answer area. (Answer choices may be
used once, more than once, or not at all.)
Select and Place:lead4pass 70-464 exam question q2

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 70-464 exam question q2-1

*
sys.dm_db_index_usage_stats
Returns counts of different types of index operations and the time each type of operation was last performed.
*
sys.dm_db_index_physical_stats
Returns size and fragmentation information for the data and indexes of the specified table or view.

QUESTION 3
You run the following code:lead4pass 70-464 exam question q3

You need to ensure that the root node of the XML data stored in the Details column is .
What should you implement?
More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.
A. A user-defined data type
B. An XML index
C. A Data Definition Language (DDL) trigger
D. A Data Manipulation Language (DML) trigger
E. An XML schema collection
Correct Answer: E
http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms187856.aspx

QUESTION 4
You need to implement a solution that meets the data recovery requirements. You update each stored procedure to
accept a parameter named @transactionID. What should you add next to the beginning of each stored procedure?
A. SAVE TRANSACTION WITH MARK @transactionID
B. ROLLBACK DISTRIBUTED TRANSACTION @transactionID
C. BEGIN TRANSACTION WITH MARK @transactionID
D. COMMIT TRANSACTION @transactionID
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
You have a database for a mission-critical web application. The database is stored on a SQL Server 2012 instance and
is the only database on the instance.
The application generates all T-SQL statements dynamically and does not use stored procedures. You need to
maximize the amount of memory available for data caching.
Which advanced server option should you modify?
A. Optimize for Ad hoc Workloads
B. Enable Contained Databases
C. Allow Triggers to Fire Others
D. Scan for Startup Procs
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
You need to encapsulate a T-SQL script into a reusable user-defined object.
The object must meet the following requirements:
Permit insertions into a table variable.
Support structured exception handling.
Prevent changes to the definition of referenced objects.
Support the use of the APPLY operator on the output of the object.
Which type of object should you use?
A. An inline table-valued function
B. A stored procedure
C. A scalar user-defined function
D. A multi-statement table-valued function
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 7
You have a database named database1. Each table in database1 has one index per column.
Users often report that creating items takes a long time.
You need to perform the following maintenance tasks:
Identify unused indexes.
Identify indexes that need to be defragmented.
What should you use?
To answer, drag the appropriate function to the correct management task in the answer area. (Answer choices may be
used once, more than once, or not at all.)
Select and Place:lead4pass 70-464 exam question q7

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 70-464 exam question q7-1

Note:
*
sys.dm_db_index_usage_stats
Returns counts of different types of index operations and the time each type of operation was last performed.
*
sys.dm_db_index_physical_stats
Returns size and fragmentation information for the data and indexes of the specified table or view.


QUESTION 8
You have a Microsoft SQL Azure database. You have the following stored procedure:lead4pass 70-464 exam question q8

You discover that the stored procedure periodically fails to update HR.Employees.
You need to ensure that HR.Employees is always updated when up_employees executes.
The solution must minimize the amount of time required for the stored procedure to execute and the number of locks
held.
What should you do?
A. Add the following line of code to line 05: SET TRANSACTION ISOLATION LEVEL SNAPSHOT
B. Add the following line of code to line 13: WITH (UPDLOCK)
C. Add the following line of code to line 05: SET TRANSACTION ISOLATION LEVEL SERIALIZABLE
D. Add the following line of code to line 08: WITH (UPDLOCK)
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
You execute the following code:lead4pass 70-464 exam question q9

You need to select the task that has an IsFinished value of true from the Project that has an Id value of 1. Which code
segment should you use?

lead4pass 70-464 exam question q9-1

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 10
You have a server that has SQL Server 2012 installed.
You need to identify which parallel execution plans are running in serial.
Which tool should you use?
A. Performance Monitor
B. Database Engine Tuning Advisor
C. Data Profile Viewer
D. Extended Events
Correct Answer: D
References: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb677278.aspx http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-
us/library/bb630282.aspx http://www.sql-server-performance.com/2006/query-execution-plan-analysis/
http://www.simple-talk.com/sql/learn-sql-server/understanding-and-using-parallelism-in-sqlserver/ http://www.sqlserverc
entral.com/articles/SQL+Server+2012/At+last%2c+execution+plans+show+true+thread+reservations./92458/
http://sqlblog.com/blogs/paul_white/archive/2011/12/23/forcing-a-parallel-query-executionplan.aspx
http://sqlblog.com/blogs/paul_white/archive/2012/05/02/parallel-row-goals-gone-rogue.aspx
http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb895310.aspx http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb895313.aspx
http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/hh231122.aspx

QUESTION 11
You have a SQL Server instance named SQL\Instance1. Instance1 contains a database named Database1.
You need to recommend an index defragmentation solution for an index on a disk-based table named ContentIndex.
ContentIndex must meet the following requirements:
1.
Remain online during the defragmentation.
2.
Update distribution statistics.
3.
Perform defragmentation as quickly as possible.
Which type of index defragmentation solution should you include in the recommendation? More than one answer choice
may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.
A. DBCC DBREINDEX
B. REORGANIZE
C. REBUILD
D. DBCC INDEXDEFRAG
Correct Answer: B

The REORGANIZE operation is always performed online. Incorrect Answers:
C: With the REBUILD command, the data is “offline” and unavailable during the rebuild. References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/t-sql/statements/alter-index-transact-sql

QUESTION 12
You have a database named DB1.
You plan to configure change data capture on the existing tables in DB1.
The database file settings for the DB1 are shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)lead4pass 70-464 exam question q12

You need to minimize disk contention caused by change data capture.
What should you do?
More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.
A. Increase the autogrowth value of the database file.
B. Set the database recovery model to simple.
C. Increase the autogrowth value of the log file.
D. Configure change data capture to use to a secondary filegroup.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
You discover that the usp_GetOrdersAndItems stored procedure takes a long time to complete while usp_AddOrder or
usp_AddXMLOrder run.
You need to ensure that usp_GetOrdersAndItems completes as quickly as possible.
What should you do? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Set the isolation level of the usp_GetOrdersAndItems stored procedure to SERIALIZABLE.
B. Execute the ALTER DATABASE Sales SET ALLOW_SNAPSHOT_ISOLATION ON statement.
C. Set the isolation level of the usp_AddOrder stored procedure to SERIALIZABLE.
D. Set the isolation level of the usp_GetOrdersAndItems stored procedure to SNAPSHOT.
E. Set the isolation level of the usp_AddOrder stored procedure to SNAPSHOT.
F. Execute the ALTER DATABASE Sales SET ALLOW_SNAPSHOT_ISOLATION OFF statement.
Correct Answer: BD

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