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QUESTION 1
What are two ways that Cisco helps customers secure loT deployments? (Choose two.)
A. network analysis
B. secure remote access
C. segmentation and visibility
D. cross-architecture automation
E. limited access points
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 2
Which statement best embodies trust-centric security?
A. Protect users from attacks by enabling strict security policies.
B. Prevent attacks via an intelligence-based policy then detect, investigate, and remediate.
C. Verify before granting access via identity-based policies for users, devices, apps, and locations.
D. Verify before granting access via MDM software.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
In which two ways should companies modernize their security philosophies? (Choose two.)
A. Expand their IT departments
B. Decrease internal access and reporting
C. Complement threat-centric tactics with trust-centric methods
D. Reinforce their threat-centric security tactics
E. Rebuild their security portfolios with new solutions
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 4
In the Campus NGFW use case, which capability is provided by NGFW and NGIPS?
A. Flexible AAA Options
B. Identity Services Engine
C. Differentiated Mobile Access
D. High throughput maintained while still protecting domains against threats
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
What are two steps customers can take to evolve to a trust-centric security philosophy? (Choose two.)
A. Require and install agents on mobile devices.
B. Block BYOD devices.
C. Limit internal access to networks
D. Always verify and never trust everything inside and outside the perimeter.
E. Only grant access to authorized users and devices.
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 6
What are three key benefits of Cisco NGFW? (Choose three.)
A. Reduces throughput
B. Prepares defenses
C. Reduces complexity
D. Identifies anomalous traffic
E. Detects and remediates threats faster
F. Increases traffic latency
Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 7
Which feature of AnyConnect provides better access security across wired and wireless connections with 802.1X?
A. Trusted Network Detection
B. Secure Layer 2 Network Access
C. Flexible AAA Options
D. AnyConnect with AMP
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
What are two key capabilities of Meraki? (Choose two.)
A. application visibility and control
B. security automation
C. contextual awareness
D. device profiling
E. identity-based and device-aware security
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 9
What does Cisco provide via Firepower\\’s simplified, consistent management?
A. Reduced complexity
B. Improved speed to security
C. Reduced downtime
D. Higher value
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
What is a key feature of Duo?
A. Provides SSL VPN
B. Authenticates user identity for remote access
C. Automates policy creation for IT staff
D. Supports pxGrid
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which two loT environment layers are protected by AMP for Endpoints? (Choose two.)
A. Internet/Cloud
B. Control Layer
C. Data Center
D. Access Points
E. Things
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 12
Which two Cisco products help manage data access policy consistently? (Choose two.)
A. Duo
B. Cloudlock
C. AMPforEndpoints
D. pxGrid
E. Steathwatch
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 13
Which two loT environment layers are protected by Stealthwatch? (Choose two.)
A. Things
B. Endpoints
C. Internet/Cloud
D. Access Points
E. Control Layer
Correct Answer: AD

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QUESTION 1
Which Cisco ISE service allows an engineer to check the compliance of endpoints before connecting to the network?
A. personas
B. Qualys
C. nexpose
D. posture
Correct Answer: D
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/ise/2-1/admin_guide/b_ise_admin_guide_21/b_ise_admin_guide_20_chapter_010110.html
Posture is a service in Cisco Identity Services Engine (Cisco ISE) that allows you to check the state, also known as
posture, of all the endpoints that are connecting to a network for compliance with corporate security policies. This allows
you to control clients to access protected areas of a network.

QUESTION 2
Which two probes must be enabled for the ARP cache to function in the Cisco ISE profile service so that a user can
reliably bind the IP address and MAC addresses of endpoints? (Choose two.)
A. NetFlow
B. SNMP
C. HTTP
D. DHCP
E. RADIUS
Correct Answer: DE
Cisco ISE implements an ARP cache in the profiling service so that you can reliably map the IP addresses and the
MAC addresses of endpoints. For the ARP cache to function, you must enable either the DHCP probe or the RADIUS
probe. The DHCP and RADIUS probes carry the IP addresses and the MAC addresses of endpoints in the payload
data. The DHCP-requested address attribute in the DHCP probe and the Framed-IP-address attribute in the RADIUS
probe carries the IP addresses of endpoints, along with their MAC addresses, which can be mapped and stored in the
ARP cache.
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/ise/2-1/admin_guide/b_ise_admin_guide_21/b_ise_admin_guide_20_chapter_010100.html

QUESTION 3
What allows an endpoint to obtain a digital certificate from Cisco ISE during a BYOD flow?
A. Network Access Control
B. My Devices Portal
C. Application Visibility and Control
D. Supplicant Provisioning Wizard
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which two events trigger a CoA for an endpoint when CoA is enabled globally for ReAuth? (Choose two.)
A. endpoint marked as lost in My Devices Portal
B. addition of endpoint to My Devices Portal
C. endpoint profile transition from Aop.e-dev.ee to Apple-iPhone
D. endpoint profile transition from Unknown to Windows 10-Workstation
E. updating of endpoint dACL.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 5
Which profiling probe collects the user-agent string?
A. DHCP
B. AD
C. HTTP
D. NMAP
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which two components are required for creating a Native Supplicant Profile within a BYOD flow? (Choose two )
A. Windows Settings
B. Connection Type
C. iOS Settings
D. Redirect ACL
E. Operating System
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 7
In which two ways can users and endpoints be classified for TrustSec?
(Choose two.)
A. VLAN
B. SXP
C. dynamic
D. QoS
E. SGACL
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 8
Which two endpoint compliance statuses are possible? (Choose two.)
A. unknown
B. known
C. invalid
D. compliant
E. valid
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 9
Which default endpoint identity group does an endpoint that does not match any profile in Cisco ISE become a member
of?
A. Endpoint
B. unknown
C. blacklist
D. white list
E. profiled
Correct Answer: B
If you do not have a matching profiling policy, you can assign an unknown profiling policy. The endpoint is therefore
profiled as Unknown. The endpoint that does not match any profile is grouped within the Unknown identity group. The
endpoint profiled to the Unknown profile requires that you create a profile with an attribute or a set of attributes collected
for that endpoint.
https://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/security/ise/1.0/user_guide/ise10_man_identities.html

QUESTION 10
If a user reports a device lost or stolen, which portal should be used to prevent the device from accessing the network
while still providing information about why the device is blocked?
A. Client Provisioning
B. Guest
C. BYOD
D. Blacklist
Correct Answer: D
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/Enterprise/Borderless_Networks/Unified_Access/BYOD_Design_Guide/Managing_Lost_or_Stolen_Device.html#90273
The Blacklist identity group is system generated and maintained by ISE to prevent access to lost or stolen devices. In
this design guide, two authorization profiles are used to enforce the permissions for wireless and wired devices within
the Blacklist:
1.
Blackhole WiFi Access
2.
Blackhole Wired Access

QUESTION 11
Which two task types are included in the Cisco ISE common tasks support for TACACS+ profiles?
(Choose two.)
A. Firepower
B. WLC
C. IOS
D. ASA
E. Shell
Correct Answer: BE
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/ise/2-1/admin_guide/b_ise_admin_guide_21/b_ise_admin_guide_20_chapter_0100010.html
TACACS+ ProfileTACACS+ profiles control the initial login session of the device administrator. A session refers to each
individual authentication, authorization, or accounting request. A session authorization request to a network device
elicits
an ISE response. The response includes a token that is interpreted by the network device, which limits the commands
that may be executed for the duration of a session. The authorization policy for a device administration access service
can
contain a single shell profile and multiple command sets.
The TACACS+ profile definitions are split into two components:
1.
Common tasks
2.
Custom attributes
There are two views on the TACACS+ Profiles page (Work Centers > Device Administration > Policy Elements > Results
> TACACS Profiles)–Task Attribute View and Raw View. Common tasks can be entered using the Task Attribute View
and custom attributes can be created in the Task Attribute View as well as the Raw View.
The Common Tasks section allows you to select and configure the frequently used attributes for a profile. The attributes
that are included here are those defined by the TACACS+ protocol draft specifications. However, the values can be
used
in the authorization of requests from other services. In the Task Attribute View, the ISE administrator can set the
privileges that will be assigned to the device administrator. The common task types are:
1.
Shell
2.
WLC
3.
Nexus
4.
Generic
The Custom Attributes section allows you to configure additional attributes. It provides a list of attributes that are not
recognized by the Common Tasks section. Each definition consists of the attribute name, an indication of whether the
attribute is mandatory or optional, and the value for the attribute. In the Raw View, you can enter the mandatory
attributes using an equal to (=) sign between the attribute name and its value, and optional attributes are entered using an
asterisk (*) between the attribute name and its value. The attributes entered in the Raw View are reflected in the Custom
Attributes section in the Task Attribute View and vice versa. The Raw View is also used to copy-paste the attribute list
(for example, another product\\’s attribute list) from the clipboard onto ISE. Custom attributes can be defined for
nonshell services.

QUESTION 12
What is needed to configure wireless guest access on the network?
A. endpoint already profiled in ISE
B. WEBAUTH ACL for redirection
C. valid user account in Active Directory
D. Captive Portal Bypass turned on
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
Which description of the use of low-impact mode in a Cisco ISE deployment is correct?
A. It continues to use the authentication open capabilities of the switch port, which allows traffic to enter the switch
before an authorization result.
B. Low-impact mode must be the final phase in deploying Cisco ISE into a network environment using the phased
approach.
C. It enables authentication (with authentication open), sees exactly which devices fail and which succeed, andcorrects
the failed authentications before they
D. The port does not allow any traffic before the authentication (except for EAP, Cisco Discovery Protocol, and LDP),
and then the port is assigned to specific authorization results after the authentication
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
Which Firepower feature allows users to configure bridges in routed mode and enables devices to perform Layer 2
switching between interfaces?
A. FlexConfig
B. BDI
C. SGT
D. IRB
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/620/relnotes/Firepower_System_Release_Notes_Version_620/new_features_and_functionality.html

QUESTION 2
How many report templates does the Cisco Firepower Management Center support?
A. 20
B. 10
C. 5
D. unlimited
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/60/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guidev60/Working_with_Reports.html

QUESTION 3
After deploying a network-monitoring tool to manage and monitor networking devices in your organization, you realize
that you need to manually upload a MIB for the Cisco FMC. In which folder should you upload the MIB file?
A. /etc/sf/DCMIB.ALERT
B. /sf/etc/DCEALERT.MIB
C. /etc/sf/DCEALERT.MIB
D. system/etc/DCEALERT.MIB
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firesight/541/firepower-module-user-guide/asa-firepower
module-user-guide-v541/Intrusion-External-Responses.pdf

QUESTION 4
Which command is entered in the Cisco FMC CLI to generate a troubleshooting file?
A. show running-config
B. show tech-support chassis
C. system support diagnostic-cli
D. sudo sf_troubleshoot.pl
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/sourcefire-defense-center/117663-technoteSourceFire-00.html

QUESTION 5
Which two actions can be used in an access control policy rule? (Choose two.)
A. Block with Reset
B. Monitor
C. Analyze
D. Discover
E. Block ALL
Correct Answer: AB
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firesight/541/firepower-module-user-guide/asa-firepowermodule-user-guide-v541/AC-Rules-Tuning-Overview.html#71854

QUESTION 6
Which two features of Cisco AMP for Endpoints allow for an uploaded file to be blocked? (Choose two.)
A. application blocking
B. simple custom detection
C. file repository
D. exclusions
E. application whitelisting
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 7
Which report template field format is available in Cisco FMC?
A. box lever chart
B. arrow chart
C. bar chart
D. benchmark chart
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/60/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guidev60/Working_with_Reports.html

QUESTION 8
What is the result of specifying of QoS rule that has a rate limit that is greater than the maximum throughput of an
interface?
A. The rate-limiting rule is disabled.
B. Matching traffic does not rate limited.
C. The system rate-limits all traffic.
D. The system repeatedly generates warnings.
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/620/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guidev62/quality_of_service_qos.pdf

QUESTION 9
Which two routing options are valid with Cisco Firepower Threat Defense? (Choose two.)
A. BGPv6
B. ECMP with up to three equal-cost paths across multiple interfaces
C. ECMP with up to three equal-cost paths across a single interface
D. BGPv4 in transparent firewall mode
E. BGPv4 with nonstop forwarding
Correct Answer: AC
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/601/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guidev601/fpmc-config-guide-v60_chapter_01100011.html#ID-2101-0000000e

QUESTION 10
Which two types of objects are reusable and supported by Cisco FMC? (Choose two.)
A. dynamic key mapping objects that help link HTTP and HTTPS GET requests to Layer 7 application protocols.
B. reputation-based objects that represent Security Intelligence feeds and lists, application filters based on category and
reputation, and file lists
C. network-based objects that represent IP address and networks, port/protocols pairs, VLAN tags, security zones, and
origin/destination country
D. network-based objects that represent FQDN mappings and networks, port/protocol pairs, VXLAN tags, security
zones and origin/destination country
E. reputation-based objects, such as URL categories
Correct Answer: BC
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/620/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guidev62/reusable_objects.html#ID-2243-00000414

QUESTION 11
When do you need the file-size command option during troubleshooting with packet capture?
A. when capture packets are less than 16 MB
B. when capture packets are restricted from the secondary memory
C. when capture packets exceed 10 GB
D. when capture packets exceed 32 MB
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/620/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guidev62/troubleshooting_the_system.html

QUESTION 12
Which limitation applies to Cisco Firepower Management Center dashboards in a multidomain environment?
A. Child domains can view but not edit dashboards that originate from an ancestor domain.
B. Child domains have access to only a limited set of widgets from ancestor domains.
C. Only the administrator of the top ancestor domain can view dashboards.
D. Child domains cannot view dashboards that originate from an ancestor domain.
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/60/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guidev60/Using_Dashboards.html

QUESTION 13
Within Cisco Firepower Management Center, where does a user add or modify widgets?
A. dashboard
B. reporting
C. context explorer
D. summary tool
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/60/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guidev60/Using_Dashboards.html

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QUESTION 1
A month ago, Jason, a software developer at a reputed IT firm was surfing through his company\\’s website. He was
visiting random pages of the company\\’s website and came to find confidential information about the company was
posted on
one of the web pages. Jason forgot to report the issue. Jason contacted John, another member of the Security Team,
and discussed the issue. John visited the page but found nothing wrong.
What should John do to see past versions and pages of a website that Jason saw one month back?
A. John should use SmartWhois to recover the old pages of the website
B. John should recover cashed pages of the website from the Google search engine cache
C. John should run the Web Data Extractor tool to recover the old data
D. John can go to Archive.org to see past versions of the company website
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which of the following pen-testing reports provides detailed information about all the tasks performed during penetration testing?

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A. Client-Side Test Report
B. Activity Report
C. Host Report
D. Vulnerability Report
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
John, the penetration testing manager in a pen testing firm, needs to prepare a pen testing pricing report for a client.
Which of the following factors does he need to consider while preparing the pen testing pricing report? lead4pass ecsav10 practice test q3

A. Number of employees in the client organization
B. Complete structure of the organization
C. Number of client computers to be tested and resources required to perform a pen test
D. Number of servers available in the client organization
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
An attacker with a malicious intention decided to hack confidential data from the target organization. For acquiring such
information, he started testing IoT devices that are connected to the target network. He started monitoring the network
traffic passing between the IoT devices and the network to verify whether credentials are being transmitted in cleartext.
Further, he also tried to crack the passwords using well-known keywords across all the interfaces.
Which of the following IoT threats the attacker is trying to exploit?
A. Poor physical security
B. Poor authentication
C. Privacy concerns
D. Insecure firmware
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Jason is a penetration tester, and after completing the initial penetration test, he wanted to create a final penetration test
report that consists of all activities performed throughout the penetration testing process. Before creating the final
penetration testing report, which of the following reports should Jason prepare in order to verify if any crucial information
is missed from the report?
A. Activity report
B. Host report
C. User report
D. Draft report
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Rule of Engagement (ROE) is the formal permission to conduct a pen-test. It provides top-level guidance for conducting penetration testing. Various factors are considered while preparing the scope of ROE which clearly explains the limits associated with the security test.

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Which of the following factors is NOT considered while preparing the scope of the Rules of Engagement (ROE)?
A. A list of employees in the client organization
B. A list of acceptable testing techniques
C. Specific IP addresses/ranges to be tested
D. Points of contact for the penetration testing team
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
An organization recently faced a cyberattack where an attacker captured legitimate user credentials and gained access
to the critical information systems. He also led other malicious hackers in gaining access to the information systems. To
defend and prevent such attacks in the future, the organization has decided to route all the incoming and outgoing network
traffic through a centralized access proxy apart from validating user credentials.
Which of the following defensive mechanisms the organization is trying to strengthen?
A. Authentication
B. Serialization
C. Encryption
D. Hashing
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which one of the following is a useful formatting token that takes an int * as an argument, and writes the number of
bytes already are written, to that location?
A. “%n”
B. “%s”
C. “%p”
D. “%w”
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
What are placeholders (or markers) in an HTML document that the webserver will dynamically replace with data just
before sending the requested documents to a browser?
A. Server Side Includes
B. Sort Server Includes
C. Server Sort Includes
D. Slide Server Includes
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
You are running through a series of tests on your network to check for any security vulnerabilities. After normal working
hours, you initiate a DoS attack against your external firewall. The firewall quickly freezes up and becomes unusable.
You then initiate an FTP connection from an external IP into your internal network. The connection is successful even
though you have FTP blocked at the external firewall. What has happened?
A. The firewall failed-open
B. The firewall failed-bypass
C. The firewall failed-closed
D. The firewall ACL has been purged
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Martin works as a professional Ethical Hacker and Penetration Tester. He is an ESCA certified professional and was
following the LPT methodology to perform penetration testing. He is assigned a project for information gathering on
a
client\\’s network. He started penetration testing and was trying to find out the company\\’s internal URLs, (mostly by trial
and error), looking for any information about the different departments and business units. Martin was unable to find
any
information.
What should Martin do to get the information he needs?
A. Martin should use email tracking tools such as eMailTrackerPro to find the company\\’s internal URLs
B. Martin should use online services such as netcraft.com to find the company\\’s internal URLs
C. Martin should use WayBackMachine in Archive.org to find the company\\’s internal URLs
D. Martin should use website mirroring tools such as HTTrack Web Site Copier to find the company\\’s internal URLs
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Windows stores user passwords in the Security Accounts Manager database (SAM), or in the Active Directory database
in domains. Passwords are never stored in clear text; passwords are hashed and the results are stored in the SAM.
NTLM and LM authentication protocols are used to securely store a user\\’s password in the SAM database using
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The SAM file in Windows Server 2008 is located in which of the following locations?
A. c:\windows\system32\config\SAM
B. c:\windows\system32\drivers\SAM
C. c:\windows\system32\Setup\SAM
D. c:\windows\system32\Boot\SAM
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
Richard, a penetration tester was asked to assess a web application. During the assessment, he discovered a file
upload field where users can upload their profile pictures. While scanning the page for vulnerabilities, Richard found a
file
upload exploit on the website. Richard wants to test the web application by uploading a malicious PHP shell, but the
web page denied the file upload. Trying to get around the security, Richard added the `jpg\\’ extension to the end of the
file.
The new file name ended with `.php.jpg\\’. He then used the Burp suite tool and removed the `jpg\\’\\’ extension from the
request while uploading the file. This enabled him to successfully upload the PHP shell.
Which of the following techniques has Richard implemented to upload the PHP shell?
A. Session stealing
B. Cookie tampering
C. Cross-site scripting
D. Parameter tampering
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1

Refer to the exhibit. Which effect of this configuration is true?
A. It enables MPLS on the interface.
B. It creates a pseudowire class named cisco.
C. It enables AToM on interface gigabitethernet1/0.
D. It enables tagging for VLAN 12 on the interface.
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://community.cisco.com/t5/service-providers-documents/configuration-example-atom-any-transport-overmpls-for-like-to/ta-p/3144810

QUESTION 2

Refer to the exhibit. If the NetFlow configuration is updated to version 9, which additional piece of information can be
reported?
A. IPv4 flow information
B. BGP AS information
C. IPv6 flow information
D. flow sequence numbers
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/ipv6/configuration/12-2sx/ipv6-12-2sxbook/ip6-netflow.html

QUESTION 3
An engineer working for a telecommunication company needs to secure the LAN network using a prefix-list. Which best
practice should the engineer follow when he implements a prefix-list?

A. An engineer must identify the prefix list with a number only.
B. The final entry in a prefix list must be /32.
C. An engineer must include only the prefixes for which he needs to log activity.
D. An engineer must use nonsequential sequence numbers in the prefix-list so that he can insert additional entries later.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
How can shared services in an MPLS Layer 3 VPN provide Internet access to the Customers of a central service
provider?
A. Static routes on CE routers allow route leakage from a PE global routing table.
B. The CE router can establish a BGP peering to a PE router and use the PE device to reach the Internet.
C. The customer VRF uses route targets to import and export routes to and from a shared services VRF.
D. Route distinguishers are used to identify the routes that CEs can use to reach the Internet.
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://community.cisco.com/t5/service-providers-documents/providing-internet-access-for-mpls-l3-vpns/tap/3109924

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit. What does this value mean when it is received in XML?
A. It indicates a value assigned by a network administrator to tag a route.
B. It indicates a break in a sequence.
C. It means a data field is blank.
D. It shows the ending of the script.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Which statement about LDP Session Protection and LDP-IGP sync is true?
A. Both LDP features cannot be used at the same time in an MPLS LDP enabled network
B. LDP Session Protection re-exchanges label information when a down-up event occurs; LDP-IGP sync keeps the
adjacency and label information in a down-up event

C. LDP-IGP sync re-exchanges label information when a down-up event occurs; LDP Session Protection keeps the
adjacency and label information in a down-up event
D. Both LDP features must be used together to increase fast convergence on an MPLS LDP-enabled network
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is configuring customer edge routers to finalize a L2VPN over MPLS
deployment. Assume that the AToM L2VPN service that connects the two CEs is configured correctly on the service
provider network.
Which action causes the solution to failing?
A. OSPF does not work with L2VPN services.
B. The routing protocol network types are not compatible.
C. A loopback with a /32 IP address has not been used.
D. The connect statement has not been defined.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8

DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the functionalities from the left onto the correct target fields on the right.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 9

Refer to the exhibit. This configuration is being applied to an IOS XR router. Which statement about this configuration is
true?
A. It is used to enable gRPC.
B. It is used to create a streaming subscription with a 600-second interval.
C. It is used to set up the configuration to poll network data.
D. It is used to create a streaming subscription with a 60-Second interval.
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/routers/asr9000/software/telemetry/b-telemetry-cg-asr9000-62x/btelemetry-config-guide-asr9000_chapter_01.html

QUESTION 10

Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about the IS-IS topology are true? (Choose two.)
A. R1 and R4 are Level 2 neighbors.
B. All four routers are operating as Level 1-2 routers.
C. All four routers are operating as Level 2 routers only.
D. All four routers are operating as Level 1 routers only.
E. R1 and R2 are Level 2 neighbors.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 11
An engineer is setting up overlapping VPNs to allow VRF ABC and XYZ to communicate with VRF CENTRAL but wants
to make sure that VRF ABC and XYZ cannot communicate. Which configuration accomplishes these objectives?

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Which configuration enables BGP FlowSpec client function and installation of policies on all local interfaces?
A. flowspec address-family ipv4 local-install interface-all
B. flowspec address-family ipv4 install interface-all local
C. flowspec address-family ipv4 install interface-all
D. flowspec address-family ipv4 local-install all-interface
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/iproute_bgp/configuration/xe-16-6/irg-xe-16-6-book/C3PLBGP-Flowspec-Client.html

QUESTION 13
A customer of an ISP request supports to set up a BGP routing policy. Which BGP attribute should be configured to
choose specific BGP speakers as preferred points for the customer AS?
A. lowest multi-exit discriminator
B. highest local preference outbound
C. lowest local preference inbound
D. highest local preference inbound
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
What is the correct EBGP path attribute list, ordered from most preferred to the least preferred, that the BGP best-path Does algorithm use?
A. weight. AS path, local preference. MED
B. weight, local preference AS path, MED
C. local preference weight AS path, MED
D. local preference, weight MED, AS path
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the correct routing protocol types on the right.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 3
At which Layer does the Cisco DNA Center support REST controls?
A. EEM applets or scripts
B. Session layer
C. YMAL output from responses to API calls
D. Northbound APIs
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
A network is being migrated from IPV4 to IPV6 using a dual-stack approach. Network management is already 100%
IPV6 enabled.
In a dual-stack network with two dual-stack NetFlow collections, how many flow exporters are needed per network device in the flexible NetFlow configuration?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which two descriptions of FlexConnect mode for Cisco APs are true? (Choose two.)
A. APS that operate in FlexConnect mode cannot detect rogue APs.
B. FlexConnect mode is used when the APs are set up in a mesh environment and used to bridge between each other.
C. FlexConnect mode is a feature that is designed to allow specified CAPWAP-enabled APs to exclude themselves from
managing data traffic between clients and infrastructure.
D. When connected to the controller, FlexConnect APs can tunnel traffic back to the controller.
E. FlexConnect mode is a wireless solution for branch office and remote office deployments.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 6
To increase total throughput and redundancy on the links between the wireless controller and switch, the customer
enabled LAG on the wireless controller. Which EtherChannel mode must be configured on the switch to allow the WLC
to connect?
A. Auto
B. Active
C. On
D. Passive
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.

Assuming that R is a CE router, which VRF is assigned to Gi0/0 on R1?
A. VRF VPN_B
B. Default VRF
C. Management VRF
D. VRF VPN_A
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Which statement about agent-based versus agentless configuration management tools is true?
A. Agentless tools require no messaging systems between masters and slaves.
B. Agentless tools use proxy nodes to interface with slave nodes.
C. Agent-based tools do not require a high-level language interpreter such as Python or Ruby on slave nodes.
D. Agent-based tools do not require the installation of additional software packages on the slave nodes.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which LISP infrastructure device provides connectivity between non-sites and LISP sites by receiving non-LISP traffic
with a LISP site destination?
A. PETR
B. PITR
C. map resolver
D. map server
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is designing a guest portal on Cisco ISE using the default configuration. During the
testing phase, the engineer receives a warning when displaying the guest portal. Which issue is occurring?
A. The server that is providing the portal has an expired certificate
B. The server that is providing the portal has a self-signed certificate
C. The connection is using an unsupported protocol
D. The connection is using an unsupported browser
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which technology provides a secure communication channel for all traffic at Layer 2 of the OSI model?
A. MACsec
B. IPsec
C. SSL
D. Cisco Trusts
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Which two pieces of information are necessary to compute SNR? (Choose two.)
A. EIRP
B. noise floor
C. antenna gain
D. RSSI
E. transmit power
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 13
Which behavior can be expected when the HSRP versions is changed from 1 to 2?
A. Each HSRP group reinitializes because the virtual MAC address has changed.
B. No changes occur because version 1 and 2 use the same virtual MAC OUI.
C. Each HSRP group reinitializes because the multicast address has changed.
D. No changes occur because the standby router is upgraded before the active router.
Correct Answer: A

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Latest Updates Juniper JN0-334 Exam Practice Questions and Answers

QUESTION 1

Which two statements describe how rules are used with Juniper Secure Analytics? (Choose two.)
A. When a rule is triggered, JSA can respond by sending an e-mail to JSA administrators.
B. Rules are defined on Junos Space Security Director and then pushed to JSA log collectors.
C. A rule defines matching criteria and actions that should be taken when an event matches the rule.
D. When a rule is triggered, JSA can respond by blocking all traffic from a specific source address.

Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 2

What are the two types of attack objects used by IPS on SRX Series devices? (Choose two.)
A. protocol anomaly-based attacks
B. spam-based attacks
C. signature-based attacks
D. DDoS-based attacks

Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 3

A routing change occurs on an SRX Series device that involves choosing a new egress interface.
In this scenario, which statement is true for all affected current sessions?
A. The current session is torn down only if the policy-rematch option has been enabled.
B. The current sessions do not change.
C. The current sessions are torn down and go through first path processing based on the new route.
D. The current sessions might change based on the corresponding security policy.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4

Your manager asks you to find employees that are watching YouTube during office hours.
Which AppSecure component would you configure to accomplish this task?
A. AppQoE
B. AppFW
C. AppTrack
D. AppQoS

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5

When referencing an SSL proxy profile in a security policy, which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)
A. A security policy can reference both a client-protection SSL proxy profile and a server-protection proxy profile.
B. If you apply an SSL proxy profile to a security policy and forget to apply any Layer7 services to the security policy,
any encrypted traffic that matches the security policy is not decrypted.
C. A security policy can only reference a client-protection SSL proxy profile or a server-protection SSL proxy profile.
D. If you apply an SSL proxy profile to a security policy and forget to apply any Layer7 services to the security policy,
any encrypted traffic that matches the security policy is decrypted.

Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 6

Which two statements are correct about server-protection SSP proxy? (Choose two.)
A. The server-protection SSL proxy intercepts the server certificate.
B. The server-protection SSL proxy is also known as an SSL reverse proxy.
C. The server-protection SSL proxy forwards the server certificate after modification.
D. The server-protection SSL proxy acts as the server from the client\’s perspective.

Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 7

You must fine-tune an IPS security policy to eliminate false positives. You want to create exemptions to the normal
traffic examination for specific traffic.
Which two parameters are required to accomplish this task? (Choose two.)
A. source IP address
B. destination IP address
C. destination port
D. source port

Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 8

You must configure JSA to accept events from an unsupported third-party log source.
In this scenario, what should you do?
A. Separate event collection and flow collection on separate collectors.
B. Configure an RPM for a third-party device service module.
C. Configure JSA to silently discard unsupported log types.
D. Configure a universal device service module.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9

You are asked to improve resiliency for individual redundancy groups in an SRX4600 chassis cluster.
Which two features would accomplish this task? (Choose two.)
A. IP address monitoring
B. control link recovery
C. interface monitoring
D. dual fabric links

Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 10

Click the Exhibit button.

You have implemented SSL proxy client protection. After implementing this feature, your users are complaining about
the warning message is shown in the exhibit.
Which action must you perform to eliminate the warning message?
A. Configure the SRX Series device as a trusted site in the client Web browsers.
B. Regenerate the SRX self-signed CA certificate and include the correct organization name.
C. Import the SRX self-signed CA certificate into the client Web browsers.
D. Import the SRX self-signed CA certificate into the SRX certificate public store.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11

Click the Exhibit button.

Referring to the exhibit, which statement is true?
A. Hosts are always able to communicate through the SRX Series device no matter the threat score assigned to them
on the infected host feed.
B. Hosts are unable to communicate through the SRX Series device after being placed on the infected host feed with a
high enough threat score.
C. Malicious HTTP file downloads are never blocked.
D. Malicious HTTP file downloads are always blocked.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12

When considering managed sessions, which configuration parameter determines how full the session table must be to
implement the early age-out function?
A. session service timeout
B. high watermark
C. low watermark
D. policy rematch

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13

What is the maximum number of supported interfaces on a vSRX hosted in a VMware environment?
A. 4
B. 10
C. 3
D. 12

Correct Answer: B

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Latest Updates Juniper JN0-103 Exam Practice Questions and Answers

QUESTION 1

Which statement describes transit traffic?
A. Traffic addressed to the chassis that requires some form of special handling by the RE before it can be forwarded out
an egress port.
B. Traffic that enters an ingress port, is compared against the forwarding table and is forwarded out an egress port.
C. Any traffic that requires the generation of an ICMP message.
D. Traffic that requires some form of special attention and does not pass through the device.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2

Referring to the exhibit, which command will cause this event message?
A. request system halt
B. request system logout
C. request system recover
D. request system commit

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3

When you display the routing table by entering the show route command, what does the * indicate?
A. The route is a direct route.
B. The route was selected as active.
C. The route is a default route.
D. The route was learned using a dynamic routing protocol.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4

Which parameter of the monitor traffic command should be used with caution when considering storage space on a Junos device?
A. write-file
B. layer2-headers
C. extensive
D. detail

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5

When configuring more than one archival site, which statement is true?
A. The system will first attempt the transfer using the URL configured last.
B. The system will transfer the configuration to each archival site.
C. The system will not transfer to a secondary site unless the previous site fails.
D. The system will transfer using a secure copy protocol (SCP) before attempting FTP.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6

Given the host IP address of 192.168.100.60 and a network mask of 255.255.255.224 (or /27), which address
represents the correct network address for the referenced host?
A. 192.168.100.48
B. 192.168.100.16
C. 192.168.100.0
D. 192.168.100.32

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7

Which command causes the Junos OS to temporarily to activate a configuration?
A. commit check
B. commit synchronize
C. commit confirmed
D. commit and-quit

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8

What is the decimal equivalent of 00000100?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 9
D. 12

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9

Which two statements about subnet masks are true? (Choose two.)
A. If a bit is turned on (1), the corresponding bit in the IP address is used for the host portion.
B. If a bit is turned off (0), the corresponding bit in the IP address is used for the host portion.
C. If a bit is turned on (1), the corresponding bit in the IP address is used for the network prefix.
D. If a bit is turned off (0), the corresponding bit in the IP address is used for the network prefix.

Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 10

Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 11

The marketing team needs access to a server on a subnet 172.0.46.0/24. The next-hop router is 10.0.4.2/30. A static
route on their gateway has been configured to accomplish the task. You want to keep the static route from being
redistributed into dynamic routing protocols.
Which command will satisfy this requirement?
A. Set routing-options static route 172.0.46.0/24 next-hop 10.0.4.2/30 no-resolve
B. Set routing-options static route 172.0.46.0/24 next-hop 10.0.4.2/30
C. Set routing-options static route 172.0.46.0/24 next-hop 10.0.4.2/30 no-readvertise
D. Set routing-options static route 172.0.46.0/24 next-hop 10.0.4.2/30 no-redistribute

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12

Which layer in the OSI model is responsible for translating frames into bits?
A. Application Layer
B. Presentation Layer
C. Data Link Layer
D. Physical Layer

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13

Which three SONET network elements are used for troubleshooting? (Choose three.)
A. line
B. path
C. circuit
D. section
E. segment

Correct Answer: ABD

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Latest Updates Juniper JN0-420 Exam Practice Questions and Answers

QUESTION 1

What are two message types that compose the message layer of the Juniper NETCONF implementation? (Choose
two?)
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 2

You are asked by your manager to automatically switch traffic from the primary link to the backup link on the MX Series
device at the branch site whenever latency is above 300 ms over a 5-minute period. Which type of Junos script would
you use in this scenario?
A.Op
B. SNMP
C. Commit
D. Event

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.juniper.net/documentation/en_US/junos/topics/concept/junos-script-automation-overview.html

QUESTION 3

Your organization is creating a custom YANG module. You are asked to create a leaf node called timeout with a data
type of duration. In this scenario, what is the appropriate syntax for this leaf node?

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4

Which messaging protocol do JET service APIs use to interface with the Junos OS?
A. NETCONF
B. MQTT
C. RabbitMQ
D. gRPC

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.juniper.net/documentation/en_US/jet1.0/information-products/pathway-pages/jet-developerguide.html

QUESTION 5

By default, Python event scripts and SNMP scripts configured on a Junos device execute as which user?
A. wheel
B. snmpd
C. nobody
D. root

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6

Click the Exhibit button. Exhibit:

The Ansible playbook shown in the exhibit is executed against a set of Junos network devices. Each Junos device is
configured with a user account in the super-user login class. The user account uses SSH-key-based authentication with
a
a passphrase of user123.
What is the result of executing this playbook against the Junos network devices?
A. The playbook executes but fails with a “ConnectAuthError” due to the missing passphrase argument to the
junos_get_facts module
B. The playbook fails due to a YAML syntax error.
C. The playbook executes and prints the version of Junos running on each network device as the value of
response.facts.version
D. The playbook executes and prints “VARIABLE IS NOT DEFINED!” as the value response.facts.version

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7

Click the Exhibit button. Exhibit:

An automation developer is using command-line scripting and wants to briefly survey NETCONF capabilities before
running a new task. Referring to the exhibit, how does the automation developer end the current NETCONF session and
go to the next one?
A. Use the command.
B. Use the quit command
C. Use the logout command
D. Use the command.

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.juniper.net/documentation/en_US/junos/topics/task/operational/netconf-session-closing.html

QUESTION 8

Click the Exhibit button. Exhibit: You need to programmatically extract interface information using PyEZ from your MX
Series devise. You log in and use the show interfaces terse | display XML RPC command and see the information shown
in the exhibit. What is the correct PyEZ syntax to accomplish this task?

A. dev.rpc.get-interface-information()
B. dev.rpc.get_interface_information(terse=True)
C. dev.rpc.get-interface-information(terse=True)
D. dev.rpc.get_interface_information()

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9

With which three processes does the JET service process communicate? (Choose three)
A. snmpd
B. ancpd
C. cosd
D. mgd
E. rpd

Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 10

Click the Exhibit button. Exhibit:

Referring to the exhibit, how would you solve this issue?
A. Enable trace options under the NETCONF configuration hierarchy
B. Enable protocol-version v1 under the SSH configuration hierarchy
C. Enable outbound-ssh with services netconf under the SSH configuration hierarchy
D. Enable ssh under the NETCONF configuration hierarchy

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.juniper.net/documentation/en_US/junos/topics/topic-map/netconf-ssh-connection.html

QUESTION 11

What are two format distinctions to know when using YAML? (Choose two)
A. white space indentation sensitive
B. tab indentation not allowed
C. tab indentation allowed
D. white space indentation insensitive

Correct Answer: AB

Because YAML is white-space sensitive and indentation is significant (not allowed), you should always use spaces
rather than tabs when creating playbooks. In YAML, items preceded by a hyphen (-) are considered list items, and the
key: value notation represents a hash. Reference: https://www.juniper.net/documentation/en_US/junosansible1.0/topics/task/program/junos-ansible-playbooks-creating-executing.html

QUESTION 12

A customer has a control machine with a default Ansible installation. During the execution of an Ansible module against a
Junos devise, the Ansible control machine generates the msg: unable to connect to router1.example.com:
ConnectRefusedError (router1.example.com) error.
What is the cause of this error?
A. router1.example.com was not defined in /etc/hosts on the control machine
B. Ansible cannot connect to the device through NETCONF
C. router1.example.com was not defined in /etc/ansible/inventory/hosts on the control machine
D. Ansible cannot authenticate to the device

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.juniper.net/documentation/en_US/junos-ansible1.0/information-products/pathway-pages/junosansible.pdf

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[2020.3] Cisco CCNP Enterprise 300-425 exam exercise questions and the latest updates 300-425 dumps

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Latest updates Cisco CCNP Enterprise 300-425 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
An engineer must ensure that the new wireless LAN deployment can support seamless roaming between access points
using a standard based on an amendment to the 802.11 protocol. Which protocol must the engineer select?
A. 802.11i
B. 802.11ac
C. 802.11r
D. 802.11e
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
A wireless engineer is utilizing the voice readiness tool in Cisco Prime for a customer that wants to deploy Cisco IP
phones. Which dBm range is the network inspected against?
A. -78 to -65 dBm
B. -72 to -67 dBm
C. -85 to -65 dBm
D. -85 to -67 dBm
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
An engineer is reducing the subnet size of the corporate WLAN by segmenting the VLAN into smaller subnets. Clients
will be assigned a subnet by location. Which type of groups can the engineer use to map the smaller subnets to the
corporate WLAN?
A. WLC port groups
B. RF groups
C. AP groups
D. interface groups
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
During a client roaming event, which device is responsible for communicating the new Layer 2 EID mapping of a
wireless supplicant to the fabric domain?
A. WLC
B. BN
C. CP2
D. CP1
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which non-Wi-Fi interferer can be identified by Metageek Chanalyzer?
A. PDAs
B. jammers
C. smartphones
D. printers
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Which two considerations must a network engineer have when planning for voice over wireless roaming? (Choose two.)
A. Full reauthentication introduces gaps in a voice conversation.
B. Roaming time increases when using 802.1x + Cisco Centralized Key Manegement.
C. Roaming occurs when the phone has seen at least four APs.
D. Roaming occurs when the phone has reached -80 dBs or below.
E. Roaming with only 802.1x authentication requires full reauthentication.
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 7
When conducting a site survey for real-time traffic over wireless, which two design capabilities of smartphones and
tablets must be considered? (Choose two.)
A. no support for 802.11ac
B. higher data rates than laptops
C. fewer antennas than laptops
D. no support for 802.11r
E. lower data rates than laptops
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 8
An engineer must decide the cell overlap for a wireless voice deployment. Which Cisco measurement recommendation
should be considered?
A. The edge of the cell should be -67 dBm.
B. The edge of the cell should be below 35 RSSI.
C. The measurement should be done on the 2.4-GHz band.
D. One AP should be deployed per 3000 square feet.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
A wireless deployment in a high-density environment is being used by vendors to process credit card payment
transactions via handheld mobile scanners. The scanners are having problems roaming between access points in the
environment. Which feature on the wireless controller should have been incorporated in the design?
A. RX SOP
B. 802.11w
C. AP Heartbeat Timeout
D. Application Visibility Control
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
An engineer has configured guest anchoring for a newly created SSD however, the mobility tunnels are not up, and
EPING is failing from the foreign WLC to the anchor WLC. Which traffic flow must be allowed at the firewall to enable
the communication?
A. UDP port 16666
B. IP protocol 97
C. UDP port 97
D. TCP port 97
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Clustering Cisco WLCs into a single RF group enables the RRM algorithms to scale beyond the capabilities of a single
Cisco WLC. How many WLC and APs in an RF group can the controller software scale up to in WLC release 8.9
depending on the platform?
A. up to 20 WLCs and 1000 APs
B. up to 20 WLCs and 3000 APs
C. up to 20 WLCs and 4000 APs
D. up to 20 WLCs and 6000 APs
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
A customer is running a guest WLAN with a foreign/export-anchor setup. There is one anchor WLC in the US and two in
Europe. Anchor WLC priorities are used to prefer local anchors. During a routine network audit, it is discovered that a
large number of guest client sessions in the US are anchored to the WLCs in Europe. Which reason explains this
behavior?
A. The foreign WLC failed and recovered.
B. The US anchor WLC failed and recovered.
C. The US anchor WLC is anchored to itself with a priority value of zero.
D. The anchor WLC is in the same mobility group.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
A customer is concerned about mesh backhaul link security. Which level of ecnryption does the backhaul link use?
A. hash
B. AES
C. WEP
D. 3DES
Correct Answer: B

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