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Latest effective Cisco 640-692 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
What is the difference between a CSU/DSU and a modem?
A. A CSU/DSU converts analog signals from a router to a leased line; a modem converts analog signals from a router to
a leased line.
B. A CSU/DSU converts analog signals from a router to a phone line; a modem converts digital signals from a router to
a leased line.
C. A CSU/DSU converts digital signals from a router to a phone line; a modem converts analog signals from a router to
a phone line.
D. A CSU/DSU converts digital signals from a router to a leased line; a modem converts digital signals from a router to a
phone line.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 2
Which two of the following statements are true? (Choose two)
A. Because FTP usually requires authentication, a Cisco router must be configured with the appropriate username and
password.
B. FTP uses UDP as its transport protocol.
C. The copy running-config ftp: command is used to copy a configuration file from an FTP server to the running
configuration.
D. A router can act as an FTP server.
E. FTP can be used to load Cisco IOS software to router in ROMMON mode.
Correct Answer: AD


QUESTION 3
Which address facilitates the routing of packets over an IP network?
A. MAC
B. transport
C. network
D. physical
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 4
Which command initiates the transfer of a Cisco IOS image over IP from ROMMON?
A. copy tftp: flash:
B. copy flash: tftp:
C. tftpdnld
D. xmodem
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 5
What are two ways to open a command prompt session on a Windows-based computer? (Choose two)
A. Click Start > Control Panel > Command Prompt
B. Click Start > All Programs > Accessories > Command Prompt
C. Click Start > All Programs > Command Prompt
D. Click Start > Run. Enter cmd and click OK
E. Click Start > All Programs > Accessories > Communications > Command Prompt
Correct Answer: BD


QUESTION 6
Which of the following best describes how to assign a static IP address to the Ethernet port on a computer?
A. From network Connections, click Create a New Connection and follow the network connection Wizard instructions.
B. From Network Connections, double-click Local Area Connection. Click Protocol (TCP/IP). Click the properties, click
the use the Following Address button, and then configure the IP information.
C. Click Start> Run Enter cmd and click OK. Enter ip address XXX.XXX.XXX.XXX.
D. From Network Connections, double-click Local Connection. Click Properties, click iPass Protocol (IEEE), click
properties and select static IP.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 7
Which two of the following are true? (Choose two)
A. Telnet is preferred over SSH for security reasons.
B. SSH is a protocol that provides a secure remote access connection to network devices.
C. When using HyperTerminal to communicate over a TCP/IP network, the SSH protocol is used.
D. A Telnet network management connection is dropped when a router reboots.
E. Telnet is a protocol that provides a secure remote access connection to network devices.
Correct Answer: BD


QUESTION 8
Which two of the following are installed fiber-optic connectors? (Choose two)
A. subscriber
B. crossover
C. multi-dimension
D. Lucent
Correct Answer: AD


QUESTION 9
Which of the following best describes the cable that is used to connect a laptop to the Console port on a Cisco router?
A. crossover
B. straight-through
C. fiber
D. rollover
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 10
While performing password recovery on a Cisco device, the configuration register should be which value in order to
bypass loading the startup configuration?
A. 0x2102
B. 0x2112
C. 0x2122
D. 0x2142
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 11
Which IEEE standard protocol is initiated as a result of successful DTP completion in a switch over Fast Ethernet?
A. 802.3ad
B. 802.1w
C. 802.1D
D. 802.1Q
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 12
Which bits represent the boot field in the configuration register value?
A. highest two bits
B. highest four bits
C. lowest two bits
D. lowest four bits
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 13
When using a modem to provide out-of-band access to a Cisco router, which cable is used to connect the modem to the
router?
A. DB-25 to RJ-45
B. RJ-45 to RJ-45
C. RJ-44 to RJ-45
D. DB-9 to RJ-45
E. DB-45 to RJ-45
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 14
Which three pieces of information about a device can be seen from the show version command? (Choose three)
A. CPU load
B. Device model
C. Installed DRAM
D. Installed flash
E. Locally configured IP addresses
Correct Answer: BCD


QUESTION 15
Which two of the following are component of WAN connection? (Choose two)
A. router
B. switch
C. CSU/DSU
D. Hub
E. Bridge
Correct Answer: AC


QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit.

lead4pass 640-692 exam question - q16

A. RJ-45 straight-through
B. RJ-45
C. RJ-45 rollover
D. RJ-11
E. RJ-45 crossover
Correct Answer: E


QUESTION 17
Refer to the exhibit.

lead4pass 640-692 exam question - q17

Into which port do you insert the card?
A. ATM
B. Gigabit Ethernet
C. Serial
D. Ethernet
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 18
Which statement about unique local IP addresses is true?
A. Summarization is not supported.
B. They require all prefixes to be unique.
C. Their global IDs are assigned sequentially.
D. They are routable to the public Internet.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 19
Which two commands are used to set the configuration register value? (Choose two)
A. Router(config)#config-register 0x2102
B. Router(config)#confreg 0x2102
C. rommon>config-register 0x2102
D. rommon>confreg 0x2102
E. Router(config)#configuration-register 0x2102
Correct Answer: AD


QUESTION 20
What are two ways to open Microsoft Notepad on a Windows-based computer? (Choose two)
A. Start > Run Enter Notepad and \\’Ink OK
B. Start > Control Panel > Notepad
C. Start > All Programs > Notepad
D. Start > All Programs > Accessories > Notepad
E. Start > All Programs > Microsoft Office > Notepad

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Latest effective Cisco 600-460 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
Which dial number patterns are needed on a Cisco Packaged Contact Center Enterprise deployment when configuring
Cisco Unified CVP?
A. agent device, network VRU, ringtone, error
B. ICM dialed number, network VRU, ring back, error
C. agent device, CUCM VRU, ringtone, survivability
D. ICM dialed number plan, network VRU, ringtone, error
E. agent device, network VRU, ringtone, survivability
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 2
Which option describes how many reason codes you can assign across all teams using Cisco Finesse Admin?
A. A total of 100 sign-out reason codes and not ready reason codes.
B. 50 sign-out reason codes and 50 not ready reason codes for a total of 100.
C. 100 sign-out reason codes and 100 not ready reason codes for a total of 200.
D. There is no limit. You can assign as many team-based reason codes as you like.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 3
Which command is used to examine detailed events processed by the call router with Cisco Unified Contact Center
Enterprise?
A. dumplog router
B. viewlogs rtr
C. dumplog rtr
D. showlogs rtr
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 4
Which two things can cause the “Send to VRU” to fail within an ICM script for Cisco Unified Customer Voice Portal?
(Choose two.)
A. No network VRU is configured for the routing client.
B. VRU PIM just got out of service.
C. Incorrect media file name.
D. Send to originator is not enabled.
E. Primary VRU peripheral gateway is out of service.
Correct Answer: AB


QUESTION 5
In the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise with Cisco Unified CVP, which two statements about how to increase the
Cisco Unified CVP availability are true? (Choose two.)
A. Must have SIP Proxy server to pass messages between the gateways and the Cisco Unified CVP servers.
B. Must have voice gateway TCL scripts to handle conditions where the gateways cannot contact the Cisco Unified CVP
Call Server to direct the call correctly.
C. Add load balancers to load balance .wav file requests across multiple Cisco Unified CVP Media Servers.
D. Dedicate duplexed VRU peripheral gateways for each Cisco Unified CVP call server.
E. For a single data center with centralized deployment, deploy Cisco Unified CVP with N:N redundancy.
Correct Answer: BC


QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 600-460 exam question - q6

Four calls enter the script in the exhibit but are queued due to no agents being available. Assume that the calls are
equally distributed across the A, B, C, and D path in that order using the % Allocation Node and that the Queue to Skill
Group
Node priority is left at its default setting.
Which call is answered first?
A. The call that traversed through the A path.
B. The call that traversed through the B path.
C. The call that traversed through the C path.
D. The call that traversed through the D path.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 7
You have deployed a VXML application named MyVXMLApp. Which variable name must be passed using one of the
user.microapp.ToExtVXML ECC variables?
A. appname=MyVXMLApp
B. app=MyVXMLapp
C. vxmlapp=MyVXMLApp
D. application=MyVXMLApp
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 8
Which three rules apply when configuring agent teams? (Choose three.)
A. An agent can be a member of only one agent team.
B. An agent can be a member of multiple agent teams.
C. An agent team can have only one primary supervisor.
D. An agent team can have multiple primary supervisors.
E. All agents that belong to an agent team and all supervisors for that agent team must be on the same peripheral.
F. All agents that belong to an agent team and all supervisors for that agent team can be on multiple peripherals.
G. An agent team can have only one primary supervisor but can be a member of multiple teams.
H. An agent team can have multiple primary supervisors but can only be a member of one teams.
Correct Answer: ACE


QUESTION 9
Which option lists the settings in the registry to enable IPsec logging with Cisco Unified ICM?
A. Add Key = IPSec; DWORD Value = Enable_Logging; DWORD Value = 0
B. Add Key = Oakley; DWORD Value = EnableLogging; DWORD Value = 1
C. Add Key = Security; DWORD Value = Enable-Logging; DWORD Value = 1
D. Add Key = Oak; DWORD Value = EnableLog; DWORD Value = 1
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 10
Which four items does the Cisco Finesse administrative application allow administrators to configure? (Choose four.)
A. connections to the CTI OS server and the Administration and Data server database
B. cluster settings for VOS replication
C. ready and login reason codes
D. wrap-up reasons and phonebooks
E. workflows and workflow actions
F. call variable and ECC variable layout
G. desktop layout and conference resources
H. upload third-party gadgets
Correct Answer: BDEF


QUESTION 11
The current operating status for multiple devices is displayed in the Cisco Unified Customer Voice Portal OAMP Control
Center tab within the Operations Console web page. Which three devices show an operating status? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco Unified Communications Manager
B. Cisco Unified CVP reporting server
C. SIP proxy server
D. Cisco Unified CVP call server
E. Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise server
F. VXML gateway
G. Cisco Unified CVP VXML server
Correct Answer: BDG


QUESTION 12
In Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise 10.0 Outbound Option, the Routing and Administrative scripts are needed for
the solution to work properly. Which two statements describe the functionality of the Administrative script? (Choose
two.)
A. enables and disables skill groups for an outbound campaign
B. reserves agents for specific outbound campaign
C. controls a percentage of agents to be used in a campaign skill group
D. transfers a call to IVR as a part of IVR campaign
E. transfers a call to IVR or Non-IVR for Answering Machine or abandon calls
Correct Answer: AC


QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 600-460 exam question - q13

In a Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise 10.0 Outbound Option with SIP dialer, you check the status of the Dialer
process from Diagnostic Framework Portico. What does the circled message “R” represent?
A. customer instance name
B. telephony port status
C. configured ports
D. ready ports
E. reserved ports
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 14
Which three objects are created by the Domain Manager tool in the Cisco Unified ICM? (Choose three.)
A. ICM Organizational Unit
B. ICM facility
C. ICM User Group policy
D. ICM Security policy
E. ICM instance
F. ICM agent users
Correct Answer: ABE


QUESTION 15
Which list of scripting objects is valid in a Consider If formula for Precision Queue?
A. Call, Attribute, SkillGroup, Call Type
B. Call, PQ, SkillGroup, Call Type
C. Call Type, PQ, Attribute, Call
D. Call, Call Type, Proficiency, SkillGroup
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 16
What is the maximum number of agents that can be configured within Cisco Packaged Contact Center Enterprise up to
release 10.5?
A. 500
B. 1000
C. 2000
D. 6000
E. 76,000
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 17
In a Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise deployment, callers report intermittent voice- quality issues. What might
cause this problem?
A. The Cisco voice gateways have too few trunks to accept the inbound calls.
B. The Cisco Finesse is locking up because of a virus.
C. The system has too few DSP transcoding resources to support all the calls across the WAN.
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager has too few conference bridge resources.
E. A different voice codec is used by the caller and the agent.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 18
Which Cisco Unified ICM Admin Workstation tool provides a live stream of errors as they are reported by the router?
A. Diagnostic Framework Portico
B. Script Editor
C. RTTest
D. Router Log Viewer
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 19
With Cisco Finesse, which two options list the two commands to stop and start the Tomcat service? (Choose two.)
A. To stop the Cisco Tomcat service, enter this CLI command: utils service stop Tomcat
B. To start the Cisco Tomcat service, enter this CLI command: utils service start Tomcat
C. To stop the Cisco Tomcat service, enter this CLI command: utils service start Tomcat
D. To start the Cisco Tomcat service, enter this CLI command: utils start Cisco Tomcat
E. To stop the Cisco Tomcat service, enter this CLI command: utils service stop Cisco Tomcat
F. To start the Cisco Tomcat service, enter this CLI command: utils service start Cisco Tomcat
Correct Answer: EF


QUESTION 20
Which option describes the steps to configure a non-global Not Ready code for a Cisco Unified ICM team using Contact
Center Enterprise solution with Cisco Finesse?
A. Add Not Ready reason code in Cisco Finesse (uncheck “Global?” check box), add reason code to team.
B. Add team in ICM, add Not Ready reason code in Cisco Finesse (uncheck “Global?” check box), add reason code to
team in Cisco Finesse.
C. Add team in ICM, add Not Ready reason code in Cisco Finesse, add reason code to team in Cisco Finesse.
D. Add team in ICM, add Not Ready reason code in ICM, add reason code to team in Cisco Finesse.
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
Which component is required to run FCoE?
A. converged network adapter
B. iSCSI gateway
C. host bus adapter
D. Fibre Channel adapter
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
Computers can connect to FCoE with converged network adapters (CNAs), which contain both Fibre Channel host bus adapter (HBA) and Ethernet Network Interface Card (NIC) functionality on the same adapter card. CNAs have one or more physical Ethernet ports. FCoE encapsulation can be done in software with a conventional Ethernet network interface card, however FCoE CNAs offload (from the CPU) the low level frame processing and SCSI protocol functions traditionally performed by Fibre Channel host bus adapters.

QUESTION 2
You have a Cisco Nexus 5500 Series switch. What is the default load-balancing hash mechanism for traffic on FCoE port channels?
A. the source MAC address
B. the source IP address and the destination IP address
C. the source MAC address and the destination MAC address
D. the source TCP or UDP port and the destination TCP or UDP port
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
On Nexus 5500 the default load balancing mechanism on the LACP port- channel for FCoE traffic is “source-destination”. In this default state, all the FCoE traffic takes the same link in the portchannel when the Nexus 5500 forwards frames over FCoE VE ports. In order to enable all links to be used in the port-channel for FCoE traffic, enter the port-channel load-balance ethernet source-dest-port command to configure Nexus 5500 “port-channel load balancing” to “source-dest-port”. With this configuration “source- destination-oxid” load balancing is used for FCoE traffic.

QUESTION 3
You must configure resiliency for Fibre Channel uplink ports on Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnects. Which feature should you configure?
A. an appliance port
B. vPC
C. a port channel
D. a unified storage port
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
What is the most common design requirement when creating a data center solution?
A. high availability with disaster recovery
B. multicore CPU servers
C. traffic inspection for inbound traffic
D. virtualization of network resources
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which two actions must be performed when you configure Cisco VN-Link in hardware? (Choose two.)
A. Create a distributed virtual switch in Cisco UCS Manager.
B. Add an ESX host to the distributed virtual switch in Cisco UCS Manager.
C. Create a port profile and profile clients in Cisco UCS Manager.
D. Create a standard switch on an ESXi host and map the network adapters to the switch.
E. Create a distributed virtual switch under the datacenter folder in VMware vCenter.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 6
Which two platforms support the FCoE protocol? 300-160 dumps (Choose two)
A. Cisco Nexus 2332TQ Series
B. Cisco MDS 9148S Series
C. Cisco Nexus 7010 Series
D. Cisco MDS 9222i Series
E. Cisco Nexus 2248TP Series
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 7
Spanning Tree Protocol runs at which functional layer of the data center?
A. core layer
B. access layer
C. application layer
D. network layer
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
You deploy new server infrastructure by using a Cisco UCS platform. Winch two design options can you use to increase the redundancy of the new compute solution’ (Choose two.)
A. a 10-Gb uplink port
B. a pin vNic in the server profile to a specific Fabric Interconnect node that has failover disabled
C. an uplink port in a port channel configuration
D. static pinning at the server ports
E. more than one server port to connect the Cisco UCS B-Series blade IOM
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 9
Which two options are supported on Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnects that use native Fibre Channel connectivity? (Choose two)
A. iSCSI
B. NFS
C. DAS
D. SAN
E. iFCP
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 10
Which technology provides the ability to use all links in a LAN topology by providing an active-active path to the upstream switch?
A. STP
B. vPC
C. PVST+
D. RSTP
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
When you configure FCIP, which two types of acceleration can you enable to maximize WAN link utilization? (Choose two)
A. SCSI write
B. link
C. SCSI tape
D. WAN
E. IP
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 12
What are two benefits of a service insertion that is mediated through the Cisco APIC instead of the classical Ethernet model? (Choose two.)
A. provides Layer 5 service insertion capability
B. provides Layer 7 service insertion capability
C. provides policies that can manage the network and service appliances
D. can automate the service insertion
E. provides built-in services, such as Cisco ACE Web Application Firewall and ADC
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 13
What are common switching protocols that are used in the data center? (Choose two.)
A. Token Ring
B. FDDI
C. Ethernet
D. MPLS
E. Frame Relay
F. APPN/APPI
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 14
You plan to use vPC+ in a FabricPath topology. What are two characteristics of a vPC+ switch ID? (Choose two.)
A. must he set to 255
B. must be set manually
C. can be reused in the FabricPath topology
D. must be the same on each vPC+ peer
E. must be different on each vPC+ peer
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 15
Which option can be used to provide a nonproprietary method of load balancing and redundancy between the access and aggregation layers in the data canter?
A. vPC
B. PAgP
C. LACP
D. host vPC
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
You must use one logical uplink for Fibre Channel traffic and Ethernet traffic on a Cisco UCS system.
Which type of port should you use to accomplish this task?
A. FCoE storage
B. server
C. FCoE uplink
D. uplink
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
Server and Uplink Ports on the Fabric Interconnect Each fabric interconnect has a set of ports in a fixed port module that you can configure as either server ports or uplink Ethernet ports. These ports are not reserved. They cannot be used by a Cisco UCS instance until you configure them. You can add expansion modules to increase the number of uplink ports on the fabric interconnect or to add uplink Fibre Channel ports to the fabric interconnect.
You need to create LAN pin groups and SAN pin groups to pin traffic from servers to an uplink port. Each fabric interconnect can include the following types of ports:
Server Ports
Server ports handle data traffic between the fabric interconnect and the adapter cards on the servers. You can only configure server ports on the fixed port module. Expansion modules do not include server ports.
Uplink Ethernet Ports
Uplink Ethernet ports handle Ethernet traffic between the fabric interconnect and the next layer of the network. All network-bound Ethernet traffic is pinned to one of these ports. By default, Ethernet ports are unconfigured. However, you can configure them to function in the following ways:
Server
Uplink
FCoE
Appliance
You can configure uplink Ethernet ports on either the fixed module or an expansion module.
Uplink Fibre Channel Ports
Uplink Fibre Channel ports handle FCoE traffic between the fabric interconnect and the next layer of the network. All network-bound FCoE traffic is pinned to one of these ports. By default, Fibre Channel ports are uplink. However, you can configure them to function as Fibre Channel storage ports. This is useful in cases where a Cisco UCS requires a connection to a Direct-Attached Storage (DAS) device. You can only configure uplink Fibre Channel ports on an expansion module. The fixed module does not include uplink Fibre Channel ports.

QUESTION 17
You use Cisco UCS Central to manage Cisco UCS. Which statement accurately describes how local and global policies are applied? 300-160 dumps
A. A local policy is applied by using Cisco UCS Central, and a global policy is applied by using Cisco UCS Director.
B. A local policy is applied by using Cisco UCS Manager, and a global policy is applied by using Cisco UCS Central.
C. A local policy is applied by using Cisco UCS Director, and a global policy is applied by using Cisco UCS Central.
D. A local policy is applied by using Cisco UCS Central, and a global policy is applied by using Cisco UCS Manager.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
Which technology uses TCP as a block I/O transport?
A. iSCSI
B. NFS v4
C. CIFS
D. FCoE
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
Which statement accurately describes VSAN-based QoS when the same flow is present in two class maps
that are associated to a policy map?
A. The highest QoS value is used.
B. The lowest QoS value is used.
C. The QoS value ot the class map that is attached first takes effect.
D. The QoS value ot the class map that is attached last takes effect.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
A customer is interested in endpoint security at the access layer, which option is Cisco recommended?
A. ACLs
B. DAI
C. TrustSec
D. stateful inspection
E. UDLD
Correct Answer: C

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Hot Microsoft Specialist 70-483 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (Q1-Q20)

QUESTION 1
You use the Task.Run() method to launch a long-running data processing operation. The data processing operation often fails in times of heavy network congestion.
If the data processing operation fails, a second operation must clean up any results of the first operation. You need to ensure that the second operation is invoked only if the data processing operation throws an unhandled exception.
What should you do?
A. Create a TaskCompletionSource<T> object and call the TrySetException() method of the object.
B. Create a task by calling the Task.ContinueWith() method.
C. Examine the Task.Status property immediately after the call to the Task.Run() method.
D. Create a task inside the existing Task.Run() method by using the AttachedToParent option.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
You are modifying an application that processes leases. The following code defines the Lease class. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)
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Leases are restricted to a maximum term of 5 years. The application must send a notification message if a lease request exceeds 5 years.
You need to implement the notification mechanism.
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
E. Option E
F. Option F
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 3
You are developing an application that uses structured exception handling. The application includes a class named ExceptionLogger.
The ExceptionLogger class implements a method named LogException by using the following code segment:
public static void LogException(Exception ex)
You have the following requirements:
Log all exceptions by using the LogException() method of the ExceptionLogger class.
Rethrow the original exception, including the entire exception stack.
You need to meet the requirements.
Which code segment should you use?
70-483 dumps
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
You are developing an application that includes a class named UserTracker. The application includes the following code segment. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)
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You need to add a user to the UserTracker instance.
What should you do?
70-483 dumps
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
You are adding a public method named UpdateScore to a public class named ScoreCard.
The code region that updates the score field must meet the following requirements:
• It must be accessed by only one thread at a time.
• It must not be vulnerable to a deadlock situation.
You need to implement the UpdateScore() method.
What should you do?
70-483 dumps
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
You are developing a C# application that has a requirement to validate some string input data by using the Regex class. 70-483 dumps
The application includes a method named ContainsHyperlink. The ContainsHyperlink() method will verify the presence of a URI and surrounding markup.
The following code segment defines the ContainsHyperlink() method. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)
70-483 dumps
The expression patterns used for each validation function are constant.
You need to ensure that the expression syntax is evaluated only once when the Regex object is initially instantiated.
Which code segment should you insert at line 04?
70-483 dumps
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
You are developing an application by using C#.
You have the following requirements:
• Support 32-bit and 64-bit system configurations.
• Include pre-processor directives that are specific to the system configuration.
• Deploy an application version that includes both system configurations to testers.
• Ensure that stack traces include accurate line numbers.
You need to configure the project to avoid changing individual configuration settings every time you deploy the application to testers.
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Update the platform target and conditional compilation symbols for each application configuration.
B. Create two application configurations based on the default Release configuration.
C. Optimize the application through address rebasing in the 64-bit configuration.
D. Create two application configurations based on the default Debug configuration.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 8
You are developing a method named CreateCounters that will create performance counters for an application.
The method includes the following code. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)
70-483 dumps
You need to ensure that Counter1 is available for use in Windows Performance Monitor (PerfMon).
Which code segment should you insert at line 16?
A. CounterType = PerformanccCounterType.RawBase
B. CounterType = PerformanceCounterType.AverageBase
C. CounterType = PerformanceCounterType.SampleBase
D. CounterType = PerformanceCounterType.CounterMultiBase
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
You are developing an application that will transmit large amounts of data between a client computer and a server.
You need to ensure the validity of the data by using a cryptographic hashing algorithm.
Which algorithm should you use?
A. HMACSHA256
B. RNGCryptoServiceProvider
C. DES
D. Aes
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
You are developing an assembly that will be used by multiple applications.
You need to install the assembly in the Global Assembly Cache (GAC).
Which two actions can you perform to achieve this goal? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)
A. Use the Assembly Registration tool (regasm.exe) to register the assembly and to copy the assembly to the GAC.
B. Use the Strong Name tool (sn.exe) to copy the assembly into the GAC.
C. Use Microsoft Register Server (regsvr32.exe) to add the assembly to the GAC.
D. Use the Global Assembly Cache tool (gacutil.exe) to add the assembly to the GAC.
E. Use Windows Installer 2.0 to add the assembly to the GAC.
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 11
You are debugging an application that calculates loan interest. The application includes the following code. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)
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You need to ensure that the debugger breaks execution within the CalculateInterest() method when the loanAmount variable is less than or equal to zero in all builds of the application.
What should you do?
A. Insert the following code segment at line 03:
Trace.Assert(loanAmount > 0);
B. Insert the following code segment at line 03:
Debug.Assert(loanAmount > 0);
C. Insert the following code segment at line 05:
Debug.Write(loanAmount > 0);
D. Insert the following code segment at line 05:
Trace.Write(loanAmount > 0);
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
You are developing an application that accepts the input of dates from the user.
Users enter the date in their local format. The date entered by the user is stored in a string variable named inputDate. The valid date value must be placed in a DateTime variable named validatedDate.
You need to validate the entered date and convert it to Coordinated Universal Time (UTC). The code must not cause an exception to be thrown.
Which code segment should you use?
70-483 dumps
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
You are developing an application by using C#. You provide a public key to the development team during development.
You need to specify that the assembly is not fully signed when it is built.
Which two assembly attributes should you include in the source code? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. AssemblyKeyNameAttribute
B. ObfuscateAssemblyAttribute
C. AssemblyDelaySignAttribute
D. AssemblyKeyFileAttribute
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 14
You are adding a public method named UpdateGrade to a public class named ReportCard.
The code region that updates the grade field must meet the following requirements:
• It must be accessed by only one thread at a time.
• It must not be vulnerable to a deadlock situation.
You need to implement the UpdateGrade() method.
What should you do?
70-483 dumps
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
You are developing an application that includes a class named BookTracker for tracking library books. 70-483 dumps The application includes the following code segment. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)
70-483 dumps
You need to add a user to the BookTracker instance. What should you do?
70-483 dumps
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
You are creating a console application by using C#.
You need to access the assembly found in the file named car.dll.
Which code segment should you use?
A. Assembly.Load();
B. Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly();
C. This.GetType();
D. Assembly.LoadFile(“car.dll”);
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 17
You are developing an application by using C#.
The application includes an object that performs a long running process.
You need to ensure that the garbage collector does not release the object’s resources until the process completes.
Which garbage collector method should you use?
A. WaitForFullGCComplete()
B. WaitForFullGCApproach()
C. KeepAlive()
D. WaitForPendingFinalizers()
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
An application includes a class named Person. The Person class includes a method named GetData.
You need to ensure that the GetData() method can be used only by the Person class and not by any class derived from the Person class.
Which access modifier should you use for the GetData() method?
A. Public
B. Protected internal
C. Internal
D. Private
E. Protected
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 19
You are creating an application that manages information about your company’s products. The application includes a class named Product and a method named Save.
The Save() method must be strongly typed. It must allow only types inherited from the Product class that use a constructor that accepts no parameters.
You need to implement the Save() method. Which code segment should you use?
70-483 dumps
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 20
You are developing an application. The application includes classes named Mammal and Animal and an interface named IAnimal.
The Mammal class must meet the following requirements:
• It must either inherit from the Animal class or implement the IAnimal interface.
• It must be inheritable by other classes in the application.
You need to ensure that the Mammal class meets the requirements.
Which two code segments can you use to achieve this goal? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)
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A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: AC

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Best Cisco CCNA Collaboration 210-060 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (Q1-Q30)

QUESTION 1
The Voice engineer in your company need to change IP address destination on SIP-Trunk on near side?
A. reset trunk on near side
B. reset trunk on far side
C. reset trunk on far and near side
D. restart call manager service
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
What is the recommended maximum one-way latency for voice and video networks?
A. 100 ms
B. 150 ms
C. 200 ms
D. 300 ms
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
An end user has an 7945 IP phone, but is unable to launch any of the IP phone applications. A network engineer has confirmed that the device is subscribed to the appropriate applications in Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
How should the engineer instruct the user to launch the IP phone applications?
A. Select the “?” button on the IP phone.
B. Select the globe button on the IP phone.
C. Select Settings > User Preferences.
D. Select Settings > Device Configuration.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Use the router console to view the configuration and answer the question.
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210-060 dumps
When a call is placed from the Branch Router phone to the PSTN number of 914085551212, the call is failing. What dial-peer is supposed to be used and why is the call failing? Select 2 (two)
A. dial-peer voice 910 pots
B. dial-peer voice 9 pots
C. dial-peer voice 9001 voip
D. destination pattern is incorrect
E. prefix is missing from the dial-peer
F. the port assignment is incorrect in the dial-peer
G. the port number is missing in the dial-peer
Correct Answer: BF

Explanation:
The dial 9, 910, and 9001 dial peer configurations are shown below:
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210-060 dumps
Here we see that dial peer 9 and 910 match the same destination pattern, but 9 will be used first. However, the port used should be 0/0/0:15 not 0/0/0:12.
210-060 dumps
QUESTION 5
An engineer receives a service ticket because a user cannot log into Cisco Unified CM User Options. Where can the engineer verify that the user account is active?
A. LDAP System Configuration
B. LDAP Directory
C. End User Configuration
D. LDAP Authentication
E. Route Plan Report
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
A user reports that several IP phones in a single department are displaying a continuous “registering” message. 210-060 dumps Which fault domain should be investigated?
A. network router
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager subscriber node
C. network switch
D. IP phones
E. SIP gateway
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
User A notices echo on a call with user B. Both users are using Cisco VoIP phones. User B is using a headset, and user A is using a handset. What is the most likely source of the echo?
A. user A handset
B. user B headset
C. disabled echo cancellation on user A phone profile
D. disabled echo cancellation on user B phone profile
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
What is needed to support SIP Early Media?
A. Media Termination Point
B. Transcoder
C. Annunciator
D. Conference Bridge
E. DSP
F. Route List
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which three characteristics are associated with voice? (Choose three.)
A. greedy
B. TCP retransmits
C. UDP priority
D. delay sensitive
E. drop insensitive
F. benign
G. benign or greedy
Correct Answer: CDF

QUESTION 10
With GETVPN, if a key server is configured to use multicast as the rekey transport mechanism, then under which of these conditions will the key server retransmit the rekey messages?
A. It never retransmit the rekey messages
B. it only retransmit the rekey message when it does not receive the rekey acknowledgment from at least one group member
C. it only retransmit the rekey message when it does not receive the rekey acknowledgment from all group member
D. it only retransmit the rekey message when DPD to the group members fails
E. it always retransmit the rekey message
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 11
In an effort to proactively manage IP telephony infrastructure, a network engineer wants to review usage reports that provide top five users, top five calls, and traffic summary. Which option describes where this information can be retrieved using Cisco Unified Communications Manager?
A. Navigate to Cisco Unified CM Administration > CDR Analysis and Reporting >System Reports > System Overview > Select desired reports.
B. Navigate to Cisco Unified Operating System Administration > Tools > System Reports > System Overview > Select desired reports.
C. Navigate to Cisco Unified Serviceability > Tools > CDR Analysis and Reporting > System Reports > System Overview > Select desired reports.
D. Navigate to Cisco Unified Reporting > Tools > System Reports > System Overview > Select desired reports.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
After getting reports that users cannot make calls out to the PSTN, a network administrator opens the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Administration web page and begins to review route patterns. Why would the administrator look here when troubleshooting PSTN connectivity troubles?
A. A route pattern contains a list of gateways that can reach the PSTN.
B. A route pattern contains dial plan information for calling the PSTN.
C. A route pattern contains the necessary privileges for calling the PSTN.
D. A route pattern contains a list of SIP trunks that can reach the PSTN.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
An engineer is adding a third-party video endpoint to Cisco Unified Communications Manager. Which third-party device type should be used when adding the system?
A. SCCP
B. SIP
C. MGCP
D. H.323
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
How can an administrator determine which codec is being used between two endpoints while a call is in progress? 210-060 dumps
A. Run the codec trace in Cisco Unified Communication Manager.
B. Use Cisco Unified Serviceability network trace.
C. Can only be seen in Cisco SDI traces.
D. Can only be seen in a sniffer trace.
E. Press the ? button twice on one of the IP phones.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 15
Which three network elements are crucial when deploying VoIP devices? (Choose three.)
A. Round-trip time
B. QoS markings
C. Bandwidth
D. Ethernet
E. Fibre
F. Token ring
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 16
Which type of data file is used for bulk import of users into Cisco Unity Connection?
A. .xls
B. .doc
C. .csv
D. .pdf
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
To control telephony costs, management wants to restrict who can place long distance calls. Which two options allow for this restriction? (Choose two.)
A. calling search space
B. partitions
C. route groups
D. SIP trunk
E. gateway
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 18
An end user reports that conference calls are failing. Which fault domain should be investigated first?
A. IP phone
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Media Resources
C. voice gateways
D. network routers and switches
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
Which two tools can be used to measure the quality of a VoIP call? (Choose two.)
A. QoS configuration tool
B. mean opinion score tool
C. bulk administration tool
D. jitter compensation tool
E. rFactor tool
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 20
Which three locations can an administrator import from to create users on Cisco Unity Connection? (Choose three.)
A. Bulk administration tool
B. LDAP
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager via AXL
D. Outlook
E. Presence
F. Cisco Compatible Extensions
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 21
Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager device report provides key information to determine if an additional gateway is needed?
A. Gateway utilization
B. Gateway summary
C. Gateway detail
D. Gateway and line group utilization
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 22
Which three choices are functions or features of Cisco Unity Connection? (Choose three.)
A. video-enabled messaging through converged networks
B. text-to-speech, which allows access to Exchange emails from a telephone
C. voice-enabled message navigation
D. voice-enabled dialing to external users
E. automated attendant capabilities
F. automated call rerouting to agents through round robin, longest idle, or broadcast
Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 23
A network engineer must set up an end-user account for a SIP device to use for authentication. Which end-user information is used for SIP authentication?
A. account ID
B. password
C. PIN
D. digest credentials
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 24
An engineer is configuring the Cisco Unified Communications Manager disaster recovery system. Which three statements about the disaster recovery system are true? (Choose three.)
A. It requires the use of schedules for backups.
B. Backup files are encrypted using the cluster security password.
C. If the backup device is listed in a backup schedule, it cannot be manually deleted.
D. If the backup does not complete within 40 hours, the backup times out.
E. Archiving backups to tape drives is supported.
F. SSL is used between the master and local agents.
Correct Answer: BCF

QUESTION 25
Which option is added number phone configuration is Cisco Unified Communicator Manager to add conference bridge resource to the phone
A. Media Resource Group
B. Conference Resource list
C. Conference Bridge
D. Media Resource Group List
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 26
End user is on a cisco telepresence session with remote participant and can control the camera at the remote endpoint. 210-060 dumps Which feature is underlying?
A. FECC
B. DTMF
C. FEC
D. PIP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 27
A voice engineer has installed an XML-based phone application from a third party and subscribed a user’s 7945 IP phone to the application. Which action does the user take to launch the new service on the IP phone?
A. Select the Applications button on the 7945 IP phone.
B. Select Settings > Applications.
C. Select Settings > Network > Applications.
D. Select the Services button on the 7945 IP phone.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 28
Which two explanations of DTMF dialing are true? (Choose two.)
A. DTMF dialing consists of simultaneous voice-band tones generated when a button is pressed on a telephone.
B. The use of DTMF enables support for advanced telephony services.
C. DTMF dialing uses INVITE messages to signal when the first digit is pressed in a new call.
D. DTMF dialing consists of a simultaneous digital-band pulse generated when a button is pressed on a telephone.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 29
A Cisco administrator is asked to set up two new end users in Cisco Unified Communication Manager. Which two fields are required? (Choose two.)
A. First Name
B. User ID
C. PIN
D. Telephone Number
E. Password
F. Last Name
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 30
A user reports that during calls they hear excessive hissing when neither party is talking.
Which option is one cause of this noise?
A. QoS
B. LoPS
C. VAD
D. EPL
E. SRST
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator updates all of the machines within a Delivery Group. After the update, an application stops working. The IT manager tells the administrator to revert all machines to the previous image. How should the administrator revert all machines to the previous image?
A. By selecting ‘Rollback machine update’ for the Delivery Group
B. By deleting the snapshot associated with the template virtual machine
C. By selecting ‘Rollback machine update’ for the Session Machine Catalog
D. By deleting the difference disks of the virtual machines within the Delivery Group
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
A Citrix Administrator must limit the Helpdesk team supporting Human Resources (HR) to only manage and view resources for the HR department.
Which two steps must the administrator complete within Citrix Studio to meet the requirements of the scenario? (Choose two.)
A. Apply the custom filter to the HR Helpdesk team.
B. Remove all current roles for the HR Helpdesk team.
C. Remove all current scopes for the HR Helpdesk team.
D. Create a new custom role and link it to the HR Helpdesk team.
E. Create a new custom scope and link it to the HR Helpdesk team.
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 3
Scenario: An application that renders locally and creates a large number of temporary files on the local drive is installed on the Desktop OS machines. A Citrix Administrator creates a vDisk in Private mode with this application installed. The administrator is in the process of updating a vDisk from Private mode to Standard mode and needs to determine the write cache type.
Which cache type would provide the best performance?
A. Cache on server
B. Cache on device hard drive
C. Cache on device hard drive encrypted
D. Cache in device RAM with overflow on hard disk
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
What is true about users’ access to Desktop OS machines when the XenDesktop SQL Server is offline?
A. New users may start sessions.
B. Only anonymous users may start new sessions.
C. Users may only start a new session to Desktop OS machines.
D. Users who have connected to their Desktop OS machine in the last 14 days are able to start sessions.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Scenario: Due to changes in the network infrastructure, the IP addresses of the Delivery Controllers will be changing.
There are 2000 Desktop OS machines in the environment.
What should a Citrix Administrator do to reduce the impact of the IP address changes on the environment?
A. Update the beacons in StoreFront to reflect the updated IP addresses.
B. Change the DNS entries for the Delivery Controllers to the new IP addresses.
C. Run the Provisioning Services Configuration Wizard and update the IP addresses of the Delivery Controllers.
D. Remove the Delivery Controller from the site, change the host file entries, and add the Delivery Controller back to the site.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator uses Citrix Director to determine that user logon times have increased by two minutes in the last three months. 1Y0-201 dumps The administrator wants to resolve this issue before the delay further impacts users. Which action could the administrator take to reduce the logon times?
A. Configure Folder Redirection.
B. Update Citrix Receiver on the endpoint.
C. Increase RAM on the Desktop OS machine.
D. Configure Citrix Profile Manager Active Writeback.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator who works for a hospital receives a request to set the display quality settings to the maximum possible quality for reviewing MRI scans. The hospital is using HDX 3D Pro within a XenDesktop 7.6 deployment.
What should the administrator do to enhance the display quality as required in the scenario?
A. Enable the Lossless policy
B. Enable the HDX3DPro Quality Settings policy
C. Apply the CLI command xevgpu-create vm-uuid=
D. Create a new catalog for the HDX 3D Pro Desktop OS machines
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator manages a XenDesktop site that consists of two Delivery Controllers. The Helpdesk team uses Citrix Director to perform support and monitoring tasks within the environment. A second XenDeskop site with two Delivery Controllers also exists in the environment.
How could the administrator integrate the first and second sites so that the Helpdesk team can support both sites from one Director Console?
A. Run PowerShell for Citrix Director on the Delivery Controller.
B. Add a load balancing vServer on the NetScaler and add all four Delivery Controllers to it.
C. Add the new Delivery Controllers to the List of Delivery Controllers using Citrix StoreFront.
D. Add the FQDN of the new Delivery Controller servers in the second site on the servers hosting Citrix Director in the first site.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator uses Provisioning Services to deploy a Windows 7 image in Standard mode. After updating the hosting infrastructure to the latest version, the XenServer tools within the vDisk need to be updated. Which method could the administrator use to update the XenServer tools?
A. Reverse the image and install tools.
B. Clone the master target device and install tools.
C. Place the vDisk in Private image mode and install tools.
D. Enable maintenance mode on the Delivery Group and install tools.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
A Citrix Administrator needs to configure email alerts on performance threshold events for a XenServer resource pool. Which three types of XenServer alerts could the administrator set in XenCenter? (Choose three.)
A. Disk usage
B. CPU usage
C. Memory usage
D. Network usage
E. Storage I/O usage
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 11
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator uses Machine Creation Services to provision Desktop OS machines in an environment. The administrator needs to update an application that is locally installed on the Desktop OS machines. Which action should the administrator take after updating the application to ensure that users are provided with the updatedapplication?
A. Update the master image, then update the Delivery Group.
B. Update the session machine catalog, then update the Delivery Group.
C. Update the master image, then update the appropriate session machine catalog.
D. Update the Desktop OS machines, then update the appropriate session machine catalog.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator initially set up Finance users with Desktop OS machines which are set to suspend during off-peak hours. Now, the administrator needs to change this setting to shut down the Desktop OS machines to free host resources.
Which PowerShell cmdlet should the administrator use to change the existing setting?
A. Set-BrokerCatalog
B. Set-BrokerMachine
C. Set-BrokerDesktop
D. Set-BrokerDesktopGroup
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator needs to reduce power consumption during off-peak hours. With the current configuration, the Desktop OS machines will remain powered-on when users disconnect at the end of the workday. How could the administratorreduce power consumption during off-peak hours?
A. Use the PowerShell cmdlet: Set-BrokerDesktopGroup.
B. Set the Reboot Schedule policy from within Citrix Studio.
C. Create a shutdown scheduled task on the Desktop OS machines.
D. Configure Power Management settings in an Active Directory Group Policy.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
Scenario: Employees in an organization work two separate shifts and use pooled-random Desktop OS machines. 1Y0-201 dumps When employees working at night end their shift, they disconnect from their Desktop OS machines. When employees working the day shift log on, their Desktop OS machines are NOT available.
What could a Citrix Administrator do to resolve this issue?
A. Configure the ‘Reboot Schedule’ in Citrix policies.
B. Set ‘When Disconnected’ to Suspend during peak hours.
C. Set ‘When Disconnected’ to Shutdown during peak hours.
D. Adjust Power Management settings in the Active Directory Group Policy.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator manages a XenDesktop environment where Provisioning Services is used to create and deploy Server and Desktop OS machines. The administrator needs to update the vDisk assigned to Desktop OS machines with a new version of an application.
What must the administrator do to initiate the update?
A. Merge the vDisk versions in the Provisioning Services Console.
B. Create a new vDisk version in the Provisioning Services Console.
C. Select ‘Update Machines’ on the Machine Catalog in Citrix Studio.
D. Select the Device Collection and restart the target device in the Provisioning Services Console.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator is informed of latency at a branch office. Users report they are experiencing slow mouse and keyboard responses, as well as slow screen refreshes, while working within their Desktop OS machines. Users at the branch office access their Desktop OS machines through the NetScaler Gateway. Which tool could the administrator use to monitor the user experience at the remote office?
A. Citrix Scout
B. Citrix Studio
C. Citrix Director
D. Citrix Command Center
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator needs to set up an alert on a service that is important for Desktop OS machine performance. The infrastructure includes 3000 Desktop OS machines and two Provisioning Services servers. Which service on the Provisioning Services server should the administrator monitor?
A. TFTP
B. BootP
C. Stream
D. Two-Stage Boot
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator needs to replicate a vDisk between two production Provisioning Services servers named PVS and PVS2. The Replication Status dialog box shows an orange warning signal with a message.
Click on the Exhibit button to view the dialog box.
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What could be the cause of this issue?
A. The SOAP service is NOT running on the PVS server.
B. The server time is NOT configured correctly on the PVS and PVS2 servers.
C. The Provisioning Services server does NOT have access to one of the vDisk locations.
D. The network card configurations on the PVS server do NOT match the configurations on the PVS2 server.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
Scenario: A high number of Desktop OS machines are displaying as ‘Unregistered’ in Citrix Studio.
However, Desktop OS machines that are registered are functioning as expected.
What is the likely cause of this issue?
A. The Delivery Controller is unable to register with DNS.
B. The Delivery Controller is NOT configured to trust XML requests.
C. A Digital certificate is NOT installed on the Desktop OS machines.
D. The affected Desktop OS machines are unable to register with DNS.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 20
Scenario: Auto-created client printers are enabled within a XenDesktop deployment. A Citrix Administrator receives complaints from users of the Finance group who say they do NOT have the option to print to tray three on their default printer. 1Y0-201 dumps The administrator decides to implement session printing for only the Finance users to resolve this issue.
Which two steps should the administrator take to meet the requirements of the scenario? (Choose two.)
A. Enable legacy client printer names.
B. Configure network printers on the client device.
C. Disable automatic installation of in-box printer drivers.
D. Install the printer drivers on the Desktop OS machine.
E. Configure a session printer policy within Citrix policies.
Correct Answer: AE

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New Cisco CCNA Cloud 210-451 Dumps Exam Practice Questions And Answers (Q1-Q40)

QUESTION 1
Which option is the correct steps to regenerate a UCS B-Series SSL certificate?
A. Open an SSH session to the CIMC IP # scope security # scope keyring default # set regenerate yes # commit-buffer
B. Open an SSH session to the CIMC IP # scope certificate # set regenerate yes # commit-buffer
C. Open an SSH session to the CIMC IP # scope security # scope certificate # set regenerate yes # commit-buffer
D. Using the UCSM GUI Navigate to the Admin tab Expand ALL andgt; Key Management Right-click Key Management and choose regenerate certificate Click OK
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
In an Openstack Cloud deployment which has a fibre channel SAN providing the block storage, which two options are valid fibre channel zone member types? (Choose two.)
A. FCID
B. DomainID
C. WWPN
D. OpenStack Volume ID
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 3
The Cisco InterCloud Fabric Director provides what functionality?
A. It is the single point of management and consumption for hybrid Cloud solutions.
B. It is the single point of management and consumption for public Cloud solutions.
C. It is the single point of management and consumption for private Cloud solutions.
D. It is a plugin of a Virtual Machine Manager to provide management and configuration for hybrid Cloud solutions.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which statement about the differences between vSwitch and DVS is true?
A. vSwitch supports Spanning Tree Protocol.
B. DVS supports Spanning Tree Protocol.
C. vSwitch supports private VLAN.
D. DVS supports private VLAN.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Which /etc/exports line will allow you to enable read-only access from the NFS client 192.168.1.100?
A. /images 192.168.1.100 (ro,async)
B. /images 192.168.1.100 (755,async)
C. /images 192.168.1.1/24 (755,no_root_squash,async)
D. /images 192.168.1.1/27 (ro,async)
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which Cloud service model is appropriate for a physical data center move to the Cloud?
A. Infrastructure as a Service
B. Platform as a Service
C. Compute as a Service
D. Software as a Service
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which three options are the advantages of VXLAN? 210-451 dumps (Choose three.)
A. Increase of VLAN address space
B. Support multi-tenancy
C. Connectivity across disparate virtual data centers
D. Uses Spanning Tree Protocol for loop prevention
E. Configure Portgroup Virtual port ID
F. Configure Portgroup Load Based Teaming
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 8
Which description of RAID6 is true?
A. block-level striping of data with double distributed parity
B. drive-level striping of data with double distributed parity
C. block-level striping of data with single distributed parity
D. block-level mirroring of data with double distributed parity
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which technology focuses on Layer 2 distributed data centers?
A. FabricPath
B. Adapter FEX
C. LISP
D. OTV
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Which option lists the Cloud deployment models?
A. public, community, private, hybrid
B. cluster, community, private, hybrid
C. public, performance, private, hybrid
D. public, community, secure, hybrid
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which option contains server hardware identifiers, firmware, state, configuration, and connectivity characteristics?
A. pools
B. policies
C. service profiles
D. resource groups
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Which Cisco product can provide an iSCSI target for an iSCSI initiator?
A. Cisco MDS 9710
B. Cisco Nexus 7010
C. Cisco UCS Invicta
D. Cisco Nexus 9510
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Which platform is ideally used to orchestrate a FlexPod from a single management platform?
A. Cisco UCS Manager
B. Cisco UCS Director
C. Cisco Prime Cloud Automation Manager
D. Cisco Application Centric Infrastructure Manager
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
Which option is used to manage Multi-Domain Cisco UCS?
A. Cisco UCS Manager
B. Cisco UCS Central
C. Cisco UCS B-Series
D. Cisco UCS C-Series
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
Which integrated infrastructure rely on OpenStack technology?
A. FlexPod
B. Vblock
C. VSPEX
D. OpenBlocks
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
SRIOV provides which of the following?
A. The host PCI bus is virtualized and these virtual PCIs are directly allocated to each guest
B. The host HBAs are virtualized and these virtual HBA are directly allocated to each guest for dedicated access
C. The hypervisor virtualizes the CPUs and PCI bus to provide directly allocated I/O to each guest
D. The host PCI bus is divided into pinned paths and these virtual paths are directly allocated to each guest for guranteed I/O
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
Which of the following is a feature that improves the performance of software applications that run on the Cisco UCS servers in a data center by bypassing the kernel when sending and receiving networking packets?
A. A, vPath
B. VM-FEX
C. usNIC
D. VMware PassThrough
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
Which of the following two storage technologies would require that its\’ block device be attached to an instance before you can perform any filesystem commands? (Choose two.)
A. SCSI LUN
B. Cinder Volume
C. NFS Filesystem Meta-Volume
D. Direct Object Block Device
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 19
210-451 dumps Which description of Cisco vPath is true?
A. a protocol that provides end-to-end path assurance for Cloud-based systems
B. an embedded intelligence in Cisco VEM that provides abstracted control and forward plane functionality
C. a service that provides forwarding plane abstraction for inline redirection of traffic for vServices
D. a vService that allows for security policy enforcement through transparent bridging
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
Which characteristic is an inoperative attribute of a private Cloud deployment?
A. self service and on demand
B. shared by many companies
C. highly scalable
D. metered for reporting or billing purposes
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 21
Which two technologies support running Linux and Windows virtual machines? (Choose two.)
A. KVM
B. LXD
C. Docker
D. Microsoft Hyper-V
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 22
Where is the Hypervisor installed?
A. Host operating system
B. Guest operating system
C. Control node
D. Computer node
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 23
Which two options are characteristics of NAS? (Choose two.)
A. NAS provides block-based storage only.
B. NAS provides storage and filesystems.
C. NAS requires no authentication.
D. SMB is a protocol that can be used for NAS.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 24
Cisco APICs utilize sharding to provide what function for an ACI fabric?
A. It provides scalability and reliability to the data sets generated and processed by the Distributed Policy Repository, the endpoint registry, the Observer, and the Topology Manager
B. It provides replication of application network policies across the APICs in the cluster
C. It provides a method for determining which APIC will act as the master in a fabric during the election process
D. It provides horizontal scaling ability for policy management on APICs
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 25
What is an invalid Cloud deployment model?
A. distributed
B. private
C. community
D. hybrid
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 26
Which three options are considered Cloud deployment models? (Choose three.)
A. Public Cloud
B. Hybrid Cloud
C. Open Cloud
D. Private Cloud
E. Stack Cloud
F. Distributed Cloud
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 27
Which API structure does Cisco UCS Manager support?
A. JSON
B. XML
C. RUBY
D. PERL
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 28
Which type of zoning is represented?
zone name zone1 vsan 10 member pwwn 20:00:00:55:a5:00:00:04 member pwwn 50:00:d3:10:00:18:e1:05 member pwwn 50:00:d3:10:00:18:e1:06
A. Single Initiator Multi Target
B. Multi Initiator Single Target
C. Single Target Single Initiator
D. Multi Initiator Multi Target
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 29
What are two characteristics of a LUN? (Choose two.)
A. A LUN must be fully comprised of one physical disk
B. A LUN handles file system creation
C. A LUN can be comprised of multiple physical disks
D. A LUN is a unique identifier
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 30
What best describes server virtualization?
A. Server virtualization is the masking of server resources (including the number and identity of individual physical servers, processors, and operating systems) from server users.
B. System virtualization is the use of software to allow a piece of hardware to run multiple operating system images at the same time.
C. A method of combining the available resources in a network by splitting up the available bandwidth into channels, each of which is independent from the others, and each of which can be assigned (or reassigned) to a particular server or device in real time.
D. Pooling of physical storage from multiple network storage devices into what appears to be a single storage device that is managed from a central console
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 31
Company ABC hosts all their applications internally. During one day of the month, the demand for their applications far exceeds the capacity of their datacenter. Which Cloud model should Company ABC consider using?
A. Community
B. Private
C. Hybrid
D. Public
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 32
IaaS is an acronym for what type of Cloud?
A. Instances as a Service
B. Infrastructure as a Service
C. Internet as a Service
D. Images as a Service
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 33
Which of the following statements best describes Atomic Inheritance?
A. It maintains a consistent configuration among the interfaces in a port profile and the entire port profile configuration is applied to its member interfaces
B. To maintain a consistent configuration among the sub-interfaces in a port profile
C. It tracks the packets among the interfaces in a port profile from the start of each flow until termination
D. To maintain a system VLAN connection to ensure communication between the VSM and VEM
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 34
210-451 dumps Which of these are hypervisors typically utilized in a modern data center?
A. VMware, HyperV, Linux
B. ESXi, HyperV, Linux
C. ESXi, HyperV, KVM
D. VMware, HyperV, KVM
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 35
Which option is one essential characteristic of Cloud computing?
A. It must use virtualization.
B. It must provide load balancing services.
C. It must provide on-demand self service.
D. It must run on open source software.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 36
Which two options are benefits of the Cisco InterCloud Solution? (Choose two.)
A. enforces standardization on a single hypervisor product
B. provides self service for hybrid resources
C. management of heterogeneous SAN solutions
D. secure connectivity between public and private Clouds
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 37
Which option describes what the use of no_root_squash does in an NFS environment?
A. It causes the NFS share to be mounted by a non-root user and is required for hypervisors that utilize RBAC for users.
B. It allows a NFS share to be mounted and written to as the root user by the hypervisor.
C. It allows a NFS share to be mounted by root, but all subsequent writes are as a non-root user.
D. It allows a NFS share to be mounted by a non-root user and all subsequent writes are as a non-root user.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 38
Which of the following best describes the order of operations of FCoE Initialization Protocol?
A. VLAN Discovery, FCF Discovery, FLOG I/F Discovery, FC Command
B. VLAN Discovery, FCF Discovery, PLOGI Discovery, FLOG I/F Discovery
C. FCF Discovery, PLOGI Discovery, FLOG I/F Discovery
D. VLAN Discovery, FCF Discovery, FLOG I/F Discovery
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 39
What are the key features of UCS?
A. 10 Gigabit unified network fabric, virtualization optimization, unified management, service profiles, flexible IO options
B. Gigabit network , virtualization optimization, unified management, service profiles, flexible IO options
C. 10 Gigabit unified network fabric, virtualization hardware, unified management, service profiles, performance IO options
D. 10 Gigabit unified network fabric, virtualization optimization, unified management, service profiles, performance IO options
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 40
Which three options are Common Cloud characteristics? (Choose three.)
A. single tenancy
B. elasticity
C. ubiquitous network access
D. metered service
E. QoS
Correct Answer: BCD

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Newest Microsoft MCTS 70-595 dumps exam questions and answers (1-10)

QUESTION 1
A BizTalk Server 2010 solution sends out XML invoices to a customer on a regular basis. The customer has sent you the public key part of their certificate. You installed this certificate on the server and set up a send port to use this certificate. The certification authority for the certificate is one that you already trust.
You need to ensure that all invoices sent to the customer are encrypted using the provided public key.
What should you do?
A. Create a custom pipeline that uses the MIME/SMIME encoder component. Set the Enable encryption property of the component to True.
B. Create a custom pipeline that uses the MIME/SMIME encoder component. Set the Add signing certification to message property of the component to True.
C. Create a custom pipeline that uses the MIME/SMIME encoder component. Set the Content transfer encoding property of the component to Base64.
D. Create a custom pipeline that uses the default XML assembler component. Use the default values for all properties of the component.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
An existing BizTalk Server 2010 messaging solution for processing orders has a send port group that contains two send ports. Send Port A is for Supplier A and Send Port B is for Supplier B. Each supplier receives only one copy of each order message. The order schema has a promoted property named OrderAmount that contains the total amount of the order. The send port group subscribes to all messages where a promoted property OrderAmount exists. The send ports do not have a filter defined. Messages with an order amount less than or equal to 1000 must be sent to Supplier A. Messages with an order amount greater than 1000 must be sent to Supplier B. Only a single message can be sent to either Supplier A or Supplier B. You need to modify the solution to route each order message to either Supplier A or Supplier B. What should you do?
A. Delete the existing filter condition on the send port group. Add a filter condition on the send port group to subscribe for messages where OrderAmount is <= 1000. Add a filter OR condition on the send port group to subscribe for messages where OrderAmount is > 1000.
B. Keep the existing filter condition on the send port group. Add a filter condition on the send port group to subscribe for messages where OrderAmount is <= 1000. Add a filter OR condition on the send port group to subscribe for messages where OrderAmount is > than 1000.
C. Set a filter on Send Port A to subscribe for messages where OrderAmount is <= 1000. Set a filter on Send Port B to subscribe for messages where OrderAmount is > 1000. Stop and start the send port group.
D. Set a filter on Send Port A to subscribe for messages where OrderAmount is <= 1000. Set a filter on Send Port B to subscribe for messages where OrderAmount is > 1000. Delete the send port group.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
You are developing applications for BizTalk Server 2010. The application processes orders for two vendors. These vendors have different message formats for their orders. You define BizTalk schemas for both vendors in separate projects and name the projects VendorA and VendorB. You promote the OrderType property in the schema of VendorA and the PurchaseType property in the schema of VendorB.
Then you deploy the application. You need to log messages to disk for shoe orders for VendorA and bike orders for VendorB. What should you do?
A. Add a FILE send port with the filter: VendorA.OrderType==Shoes And VendorB.PurchaseType==Bikes
B. Add a FILE send port with the filter: VendorA.OrderType==Shoes Or VendorB.PurchaseType==Bikes
C. Add a send port group with the filter: VendorA.OrderType==Shoes Or VendorB.PurchaseType==Bikes
D. Add a send port group with the filter: VendorA.OrderType==Shoes And
VendorB.PurchaseType==Bikes
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
A supplier sends messages that they sign with a certificate to a BizTalk Server 2010 application. 70-595 dumps You need to ensure that the received messages are signed with the certificate. What should you do?
A. Use the XMLTransmit pipeline.
B. Use a custom pipeline that leverages the MIME/SMIME encoder component.
C. Use a custom pipeline that leverages the MIME/SMIME decoder component.
D. Use the XMLReceive pipeline.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
A BizTalk Server 2010 solution transmits messages to a suppliers FTP server. The solution uses an FTP send port. The transport URI points to the main FTP server location. The supplier needs to receive the message immediately if the connection with the main FTP server cannot be established. You need to enable transmission redirection to an alternative FTP server. What should you do?
A. Set the Retry count to 1. Set the Backup Transport Type to FTP and the Backup Transport URI to the alternative FTP server location.
B. Enable ordered delivery for the send port.
C. Set the Retry count to 0. Set the Backup Transport Type to FTP and the Backup Transport URI to the alternative FTP server location.
D. Enable failed message routing for the send port.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
A BizTalk Server 2010 application sends purchase orders. Current applications use an existing mail server to send mail. The purchase order application should use a distribution list that is managed by a new mail server. Company IT policy does not allow you to create a new host for the new mail server. You need to create a BizTalk port that sends orders to the email distribution list through the new mail server. What should you do?
A. Create an SMTP send port configured to send to the email distribution list. Create a filter on the send port with the SMTP.SMTPHost context property equal to the new mail server.
B. Create an SMTP send port configured to send to the email distribution list. Specify the name of the new mail server in Microsoft Internet Information Services (IIS) Manager.
C. Create an SMTP send port configured to send to the email distribution list. Override the current SMTP send handler settings by entering the new mail server in the SMTP server name field in the Handler Override section of the port.
D. Create a send port group with an SMTP send port configured to send to the email distribution list. Create a filter on the send port group with the SMTP.SMTPHost context property equal to the new mail server.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
In a Microsoft Visual Studio solution, you include an existing shared BizTalk Server 2010 project that is used by more than one BizTalk application. You specify that the shared BizTalk project will be deployed to the same BizTalk application as the other BizTalk projects in the solution. During deployment of the BizTalk project from Visual Studio, you receive the following error: Failed to add resource(s). Resource (- Type=”System.BizTalk:BizTalkAssembly” -Luid=”Contoso.SharedComponent, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=c4b6d1ca34bb90c0″) is already in store and is either associated with another application or with another type. You need to deploy the projects of the solution that reference the shared BizTalk project without errors. What should you do?
A. Open Configuration Manager and clear the Deploy check box for all BizTalk projects. Then build and deploy the solution.
B. Use the BizTalk Administration console to import a copy of the MSI package of the shared component into every BizTalk application.
C. Use the BizTalk Administration console to export the assemblies as a Microsoft Windows Installer (MSI) package for the BizTalk solution.
D. Open Configuration Manager and clear the Deploy check box for the shared BizTalk project. Then build and deploy the solution.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
You are configuring a BizTalk Server 2010 environment with one server running Microsoft SQL Server for the BizTalk databases and Enterprise Single Sign-On (SSO) store. There are two BizTalk servers. All software has been installed. Both BizTalk servers will share a BizTalk group. You need to complete the installation in this environment. You start the BizTalk Server Configuration wizard on both BizTalk servers.
What should you do next?
A. On BizTalk Server 1, select and apply Basic Configuration. On BizTalk Server 2, select and apply Basic Configuration.
B. On BizTalk Server 1, select Custom Configuration. Create a new SSO system and BizTalk group on the server running SQL Server. On BizTalk Server 2, select Custom Configuration. Create a new SSO system and BizTalk group on the server running SQL Server.
C. On BizTalk Server 1, select Custom Configuration. Create a new SSO system and BizTalk group on the server running SQL Server. On BizTalk Server 2, select and apply Basic Configuration.
D. On BizTalk Server 1, select Custom Configuration. Create a new SSO system and BizTalk group on the server running SQL Server. On BizTalk Server 2, select Custom Configuration. Join the existing SSO system and BizTalk group.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
A BizTalk Server 2010 solution contains multiple applications. One of the applications sends EDI messages to trading partners. The trading partners are defined as parties in the BizTalk Administration console. 70-595 dumps You need to extract the binding and party information for only the EDI application in an XML file so that you can store that information in source code control. What should you do?
A. Create a binding file for one of the assemblies in the EDI application.
B. Create a binding file that contains the binding for the BizTalk group.
C. Create a binding file for the EDI application and include the party information.
D. Create a Microsoft Windows Installer (MSI) file for the EDI application and include the party information.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
A BizTalk Server 2010 application contains an orchestration with one receive port and one send port. You evaluate the runtime behavior of the orchestration by viewing the promoted properties of any inbound and outbound messages of the orchestration.
You need to modify the application so that you can view these promoted properties on the BizTalk Server Group Hub page. What should you do?
A. In the BizTalk Administration console, modify the orchestration properties. Under Track Message Properties, select the check boxes for incoming and outgoing messages.
B. In the BizTalk Administration console, modify the orchestration properties. Under Track Message Bodies, select Before orchestration processing and After orchestration processing.
C. In Orchestration Designer, change the Report To Analyst property to True. Redeploy the orchestration. Create filters on the receive port receive location that evaluate the messages promoted properties.
D. In Orchestration Designer, change the Type Modifier property to Public. Redeploy the orchestration.
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
A new client has contacted you to design a WLAN solution for a new 30-foot high-bay warehouse that will use high-lift electric forklifts. The warehouse is currently empty except for storage racks. The customer is planning to continue to use their existing wireless barcode scanners and also deploy wireless IP phones for communication. Which four issues do you need to consider prior to performing the site survey? (Choose four.)
A. Which protocol do the wireless barcode scanners and IP phones need to use?
B. What is the proximity to other warehouses?
C. Which types of goods will be stored in the warehouse and what is the expected average warehouse capacity?
D. Do any planned WLC locations exceed 100 meter cable distances?
E. Is there sufficient clearance between the roof and the top of the racks for placing APs?
F. What is the expected humidity level in the warehouse on average during the year?
G. Are there any secure enclosures that use chain-link fence that will require wireless access?
Correct Answer: ACEG

QUESTION 2
What is the result of a Cisco 1250 AP deployed for 802.11a/b/g/n using optimized power (16.8 W) with software version 7.0?
A. One spatial stream per radio
B. One spatial stream on 2.4 GHz and two spatial streams on 5 GHz
C. One spatial steam on 5 GHz and two spatial streams on 2.4 GHz
D. Reduced power on both radios
E. Reduced power on 2.4 GHz radio only
F. Reduced power on 5 GHz radio only
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 3
Which wireless tool would be most useful in planning a WLAN solution prior to performing a site survey?
A. Ekahau Survey
B. Air Magnet Survey
C. Air Magnet Wi-Fi Analyzer
D. Cisco Spectrum Expert
E. Cisco WCS
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.
642-732 dumps
After performing a Layer 1 survey using Cisco Spectrum Expert, what is the result indicated by the visual screen? 642-732 dumps
A. Normal 802.11g activity
B. Microwave oven interference
C. Video camera interference
D. Bluetooth device interference
E. RF jammer
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
642-732 dumps
Select and Place:
642-732 dumps
Correct Answer:
642-732 dumps
QUESTION 6
Which two types of information should be included in the installation inventory portion of the postinstallation report?(Choose two.)
A. All AP, controller, and MSE administrator credentials
B. The number and type of all WLAN clients and tags
C. The names, locations, IP addresses, MAC addresses, etc. for every AP, controller, and MSE in the WLAN
D. Results of the coverage audit performed with the site survey mapping tool
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 7
A customer has requested site surveys for data, voice, video, and location services for their location. The customer will be using RFID tags extensively. Which type of site survey should be conducted?
A. data
B. voice
C. video
D. location-based services
E. bridging
F. multi-survey
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
An engineer is performing a site survey for a 5 GHz mesh wireless network. The customer requires 300 Mbps data rates per radio, 2×3 MIMO technology, and legacy beamforming.
What Cisco access point should be recommended?
A. 1510
B. 1522
C. 1524
D. 1552
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.
642-732 dumps
After performing a Layer 1 survey using Cisco Spectrum Expert, what is the result indicated by the visual screen? 642-732 dumps
A. Normal 802.11b activity
B. Normal 802.11g activity
C. Microwave oven interference
D. Video camera interference
E. Bluetooth device interference
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 10
An engineer wants to provide coverage between warehouse shelving stocked with bulk metal materials.
What antenna would be adequate for performing this survey?
A. 5.5 dBi omni down tilt
B. 17 dBi grid
C. 2.2 dBi omni
D. 8.5 dBi patch
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
What is a typical attenuation value for a cinder block wall?
A. 3dB
B. 4dB
C. 6dB
D. 12dB
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
A Cisco engineer is troubleshooting a Cisco 1250 series 802.11n access point with a maximum throughput on 2.4 GHz that is limited to 72 Mbps. Why might the AP be operating in a limited capacity?
A. the switch providing PoE supports 802.3af
B. the switch providing PoE supports 802.3at
C. the 2.4 GHz bandwidth is 20 MHz wide
D. the 2.4 GHz is 40 MHz wide
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
What RF phenomenon results from a presence of metallic I-beams, conveyor belts, chain- link fences, and metallic shelves found in a warehousing environment?
A. multipath
B. free path loss
C. absorption
D. scattering
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
An engineer is planning for a 24 Mbps data rate for a new installation. If the environment and other factors are not taken into consideration, what is the coverage area from the AP?
A. 40 feet
B. 80 feet
C. 100 feet
D. 150 feet
E. 225 feet
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
What two tools can an engineer use to verify RF data rates and coverage after installation? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco WCS Planning Mode
B. Cisco WCS Location Readiness Tool
C. Cisco WCS Voice Audit Report
D. AirMagnet Passive Survey Mode
E. AirMagnet Active Survey Mode
F. AirMagnet Planner Mode
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 16
Which two are impacts of having 802.11b clients in an 802.11g network? 642-732 dumps (Choose two.)
A. 802.11b clients will degrade throughput of 802.11g clients
B. 802.11b is more susceptible to multipath than 802.11g
C. 802.11b operates over fewer channels than 802.11g
D. 802.11b uses 20 MHz wide channels, 802.11g uses 40 MHz wide channels
E. 802.11b is more susceptible to attenuation than 802.11g
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 17
Which hop count is Cisco’s maximum recommended for a client in a wireless Mesh network?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
In an outdoor mesh environment, which is the purpose of deploying one of the access points relatively higher than the others?
A. The MAPs need to be mounted higher than the first hop RAPs so that the mesh units can accomplish radio line of sight.
B. Elevated MAPs are connected to the switches, providing better bandwidth that all the RAPs utilize for client connectivity.
C. An AP deployed as a RAP needs to be mounted in a higher elevation to provide clear connectivity to first hop MAPs.
D. Root APs need clear line of sight to provide the best bandwidth to all of its RAPs, so the higher the better.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
An engineer is conducting a site calibration using Cisco WCS. The current network has 802.11a, 802.11b, 802.11g, and 802.11n devices. How many times should the calibration be done?
A. once for each band
B. once for each protocol
C. once per deployment
D. once using each data collection type
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
An engineer notes that some areas of a floor fail when using the Location Readiness Tool in Cisco WCS.
What criteria must be met for a point to be considered location ready?
A. one AP in each quadrant, with three less than 70 feet away
B. one AP in three quadrants, with two less than 70 feet away
C. one AP in each quadrant, with two less than 70 feet away
D. one AP in three quadrants, with one less than 70 feet away
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
Scenario: Before upgrading or expanding the Healthy Helping Hands environment, an architect wants to be sure that all current application issues are identified so they can be addressed.
Based on the assessment document, which two tools would be best suited to ensure all current issues have been identified before moving forward with the project? (Choose two.)
A. EdgeSight
B. Resource Manager
C. Windows Event Logs
D. Windows Performance Monitor
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 2
Based on the assessment document, which two actions must the architect take regarding Citrix licensing in order to properly assess the environment? (Choose two.)
A. Restart the IIS Service.
B. Restart the Citrix Licensing Service.
C. Add the REPORTLOG keyword to the options file.
D. Create a file called REPORT.LOG in C:\Program Files\Citrix\MyFiles.
E. Select a network share to which the local system account has write access.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 3
Scenario: The IT manager at Healthy Helping Hands decided to pilot EdgeSight on the existing Presentation Server 4.0 farm to gather information regarding the slow logon times that Human Resources users are experiencing. The administrators completed the following tasks:
1. Installed the EdgeSight Server on a Windows Server 2003 SP1 server with the appropriate software versions for all prerequisites documented in the EdgeSight Installation Guide
2. Installed the EdgeSight Web Server, SQL Server 2005 SP2 Database with Reporting Services and EdgeSight console on a single server for the pilot
3. Installed the EdgeSight agent on all eight of the servers in the Presentation Server 4.0 farm
4. Configured EdgeSight to use the default worker and agent settings
5. Verified that all eight of the agents reported to the EdgeSight console within the first 24 hours after installation
After seven days, the data is examined and the reports show the following:
Session information, such as Logon Time and Session ID, is captured and reported for all the user sessions. 1Y0-A16 dumps Detailed information about the logon experience, such as the Profile Load Time (PLSD) or Logon Script Execution time (LSESD), is displayed in the reports.
Which statement accurately describes why the End-User Experience Metrics (EUEM) is unavailable through the default reports on the EdgeSight Console?
A. These metrics are available but must be accessed by querying the agent’s local Firebird database directly.
B. These metrics are available in the EdgeSight SQL database; a custom report can be created through Reporting Services.
C. The Human Resource users are accessing the Presentation Server 4.0 environment using an unsupported Citrix plug-in that does not send the metrics.
D. The server running Presentation Server 4.0 does not support the collection of these metrics because the server is unaware of the EUEM virtual ICA channel.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
— Exhibit —
1Y0-A16 dumps
— Exhibit —
Scenario: Healthy Helping Hands has created a new pilot XenApp 5 Platinum Edition farm with applications delivered to 25 pilot users. The pilot farm includes all the applications that were previously published to the HR users and some additional applications to support Manufacturing. During the pilot week of September 14th, the users of the PositivelyPeople application reported that the application was responding slowly.
Fortunately, EdgeSight had been installed and configured in the pilot farm and was recording data during the pilot. Attached in the exhibit is the information gathered from the Transaction Network Delay report from EdgeSight.
Which theory effectively explains the data that is presented in the report?
A. The XenApp server is waiting on another host to respond, most likely the server hosting the PositivelyPeople database.
B. The XenApp server is waiting on the network packet queue to clear as evidenced by the 9ms network latency being reported.
C. The XenApp server is reaching maximum capacity, and the lack of physical resources on the XenApp server is causing the response delay.
D. The Network Delay on 9/19/2009 is probably the source of complaints from the HR Users. An average network latency of almost 9ms is unacceptable.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Healthy Helping Hands has decided to replace the PCs used by the Customer Service and Manufacturing teams with new thin clients, as the PCs are running operating systems which are no longer covered by extended support.
How many of these thin clients will need to be purchased?
A. 50
B. 250
C. 3000
D. 3050
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
How should an architect recommend delivering applications to the Manufacturing users at Healthy Helping Hands?
A. Publish the applications to new PCs.
B. Publish the applications to their existing devices.
C. Use XenDesktop to deliver disk-based thin clients.
D. Publish the applications to new diskless thin clients.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Scenario: The IT managers at Healthy Helping Hands are looking into making New York and San Francisco their two principal sites, each capable of failing over to the other. This will be one of the major requirements for the Citrix infrastructure design.
Which two backend infrastructure components need improvements in disaster recovery support as part of this project? (Choose two.)
A. HP SAN storage
B. User Profile server
C. PositivelyPeople database
D. Terminal Services license server
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 8
Which two components need to be included in the updated disaster recovery plan, given the current Disaster Recovery Plan as outlined in the assessment document? (Choose two.)
A. EdgeSight database
B. User data directories
C. Citrix XenApp servers
D. User profile directories
E. PositivelyPeople database
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 9
Scenario: In order to plan for the possibility of a pandemic flu, the HR department for Healthy Helping Hands has asked an architect to test whether the infrastructure could accommodate 300 key or “at risk” workers working from home over a two week period.
1Y0-A16 dumps Based on the information in the assessment document, can the existing infrastructure support such a situation?
A. No, there are insufficient licenses available to support this requirement.
B. Yes, sufficient capacity exists to support this temporary requirement; no action is required.
C. No, two additional servers are required to support the remote workers during this two week period.
D. No, the Secure Gateway/Web Interface server has insufficient capacity to support this requirement.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Scenario: As part of a government initiative to provide support to the general public during a global pandemic, Healthy Helping Hands is required to contribute to a national helpline service. This will require an additional 500 to 2000 users to be logged into the Healthy Helping Hands applications. To comply with this requirement, Healthy Helping Hands will need to provide the additional capacity within 24 hours of the request. The additional capacity must also be fully secure and fault tolerant.
Based on the current infrastructure, how would the architect meet the requirement in this scenario?
A. The current infrastructure would only require publishing additional applications in the current XenApp farm.
B. To meet capacity requirements, XenDesktop would be required to allow additional connections to be made.
C. The current infrastructure would only require the Secure Gateway/Web Interface components to be upgraded.
D. To meet capacity requirements a Provisioning Services server would be required to bring additional server capacity online when required.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Scenario: The IT managers at Healthy Helping Hands want to develop a new virtualized environment based out of their San Francisco and New York sites to provide applications to all of their staff. This represents a large increase in the number of servers and users from the current system.
Which option represents a technical challenge that needs to be overcome in order to meet this objective?
A. Disabled user Logon Scripts
B. Minimal set of Group Policy Objects
C. Local User Profiles on XenApp Servers
D. All Citrix servers isolated in a separate OU
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Based on the CIO’s WAN traffic requirement, users at which two locations would have a single point of failure when attempting to access applications? (Choose two.)
A. Hong Kong Site
B. Berlin Regional Office
C. Rome Sales Branch Office
D. New York Main Data Center
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 13
Based on the CIO’s WAN traffic requirement, users at which two locations would have a single point of failure when attempting to access to their applications? (Choose two.)
A. New York Main Site
B. San Francisco Office
C. Berlin Regional Office
D. Manchester Branch Sales Office
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 14
Scenario: The IT managers at Healthy Helping Hands are updating their environment. Recently the HR users have been experiencing intermittent outages in remote access to their application.
Which solution should be included in the project to address this problem?
A. Issue company laptops to HR users.
B. Replace the existing Secure Gateway server.
C. Add a second Secure Gateway server to the environment.
D. Request that HR users upgrade their Internet connections.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
Scenario: The Healthy Helping Hands infrastructure assessment identified that the Manufacturing team has access to locked-down terminals in order to complete their work. However, frequent breakdowns due to unauthorized software installations have caused productivity problems for the Manufacturing staff.
How can an architect reduce the breakdowns as the applications are moved to a virtual environment?
A. Upgrade the workstations to new computers.
B. Lock the workstations using local group policies.
C. Upgrade the workstations to diskless computers.
D. Deploy the Desktop Appliance Lock on all workstations.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
The IT managers at Healthy Helping Hands plan to move all application access to XenApp and request that all users are able to connect to published resources from their home computers. 1Y0-A16 dumps
After reviewing the infrastructure assessment, which risk may result in a user being unable to connect?
A. Client computer is an Apple Macintosh.
B. User only has a 512Kbps Internet connection.
C. Client files are not available on the Web Interface server.
D. User does not have administrative permissions on the client computer.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
In the future upgraded environment, Healthy Helping Hands wants to provide the IT department with the ability to interact with user sessions for training and troubleshooting without compromising security demands.
How can an architect meet the needs of the Healthy Helping Hands IT department?
A. Enable shadowing in the current environment.
B. Use Group Policy to enable Microsoft Remote Support.
C. Purchase licenses for a third party remote viewing software.
D. Enable shadowing once the environment is migrated to XenApp 5.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
Scenario: Several users in the HR user group will be traveling to trade conferences this year to meet industry training requirements and stay current on developing trends in the field. While working remotely, these users will need to upload presentations and training material distributed during the conferences onto sponsored USB keys.
Based on the analysis document, how can an architect ensure that the current environment allows the HR user group to meet this need?
A. Edit the HR Users policy to allow client mappings.
B. Provide a secure FTP site for presentation and training material uploads.
C. Maintain the current environment since it currently allows users to map their drives.
D. Move the Secure Gateway/Web Interface server to the DMZ in the environment to allow for remote connections.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
Scenario: In order to ensure that additional servers and client desktops can be made available as quickly as possible, Healthy Helping Hands is eager to take advantage of the functionality of Provisioning Services to provide virtual hard drives for virtual servers and workstations. However, one of the main requirements from Healthy Helping Hands is that virtualized applications should seamlessly failover to the designated backup datacenter when necessary.
What should an architect suggest for the storage of desktop and/or server vDisks in order to comply with the company’s requirement?
A. A distributed SAN to store all virtual hard drives
B. A centralized SAN to store all virtual hard drives
C. The local hard drive of the user’s file or profile server to store the virtual hard drives
D. The local hard drive of the first Provisioning Services server installed to store the virtual hard drives
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
Due to difficulties with the current Secure Gateway environment, an architect has been asked to ensure that remote users will only have to enter their credentials once in order to gain secure access to all of their resources.
Which architectural components are required to best achieve this goal?
A. Web Interface with 128-bit SSL enabled and Password Manager
B. Access Gateway, Advanced Access Control and Password Manager
C. Web Interface with 128-bit SSL, Advanced Access Control and Password Manager
D. Access Gateway, Web Interface, Advanced Access Control and Password Manager
Correct Answer: D

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