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Cisco 100-105 Exam Video

Table of Contents:

Latest Cisco 100-105 google drive

[PDF] Free Cisco 100-105 pdf dumps download from Google Drive: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1REClolP4lmKuaSoo6CDd7IgiU58yFPcU

100-105 ICND1 – Cisco: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/100-105-icnd1.html

This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge and skills related to network fundamentals, LAN switching technologies, routing technologies, infrastructure services, and infrastructure maintenance.

Last date to test: February 23, 2020
The 100-105 ICND1 exam will be retired on February 23, 2020.

Latest Cisco Exams

cisco latest network system 2020 update: https://www.dumpinside.com/cisco-latest-network-system-2020-update/

cisco ccna 2020

200-301 CCNA – Cisco: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/ccna-200-301.html

lead4pass 200-301 exam dumps: https://www.lead4pass.com/200-301.html

Latest updates Cisco 100-105 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
Which two configuration steps will prevent an unauthorized PC from accessing the corporate network? (Choose two.)
A. set the port security aging time to 0
B. create the port as a protected port and statically assign the MAC address to the address table
C. configure the switch to discover new MAC addresses after a set time of inactivity
D. enable port security on the switch
E. create the port as an access port and statically assign the MAC address to the address table
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit. If the router Cisco returns the given output and has not had its router ID set manually, what value
will OSPF use as its router ID?lead4pass 100-105 exam question q2

A. 192.168.1.1
B. 172.16.1.1
C. 1.1.1.1
D. 2.2.2.2
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
From which of the following attacks can Message Authentication Code (MAC) shield your network?
A. DoS
B. DDoS
C. spoofing
D. SYN floods
Correct Answer: C
Message Authentication Code (MAC) can shield your network from spoofing attacks. Spoofing, also known as
masquerading, is a popular trick in which an attacker intercepts a network packet, replaces the source address of the
packets header with the address of the authorized host, and reinserts fake information which is sent to the receiver. This
type of attack involves modifying packet contents. MAC can prevent this type of attack and ensure data integrity by
ensuring that no data has changed. MAC also protects against frequency analysis, sequence manipulation, and
ciphertext-only attacks. MAC is a secure message digest that requires a secret key shared by the sender and receiver,
making it impossible for sniffers to change both the data and the MAC as the receiver can detect the changes. A denial-
of-service (DoS) attack floods the target system with unwanted requests, causing the loss of service to users. One form
of this attack generates a flood of packets requesting a TCP connection with the target, tying up all resources and
making the target unable to service other requests. MAC does not prevent DoS attacks. Stateful packet filtering is the
most common defense against a DoS attack. A Distributed Denial of Service attack (DDoS) occurs when multiple
systems are used to flood the network and tax the resources of the target system. Various intrusion detection systems,
utilizing stateful packet filtering, can protect against DDoS attacks. In a SYN flood attack, the attacker floods the target
with spoofed IP packets and causes it to either freeze or crash. A SYN flood attack is a type of denial of service attack
that exploits the buffers of a device that accept incoming connections and therefore cannot be prevented by MAC.
Common defenses against a SYN flood attack include filtering, reducing the SYN-RECEIVED timer, and implementing
SYN cache or SYN cookies.

QUESTION 4
Which three statements about IPv6 address fd14:920b:f83d:4079::/64 are true? (Choose three)
A. The subnet ID is 14920bf83d
B. The subnet ID is 4079
C. The global ID is 14920bf83d
D. The address is a link-local address
E. The global ID is 4079
F. The address is a unique local address
Correct Answer: BCF

QUESTION 5
This topology contains 3 routers and 1 switch. Complete the topology.
Drag the appropriate device icons to the labeled Device
Drag the appropriate connections to the locations labeled Connections.
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Drag the appropriate IP addresses to the locations labeled IP address
(Hint: use the given host addresses and Main router information)
To remove a device or connection, drag it away from the topology.
Use information gathered from the Main router to complete the configuration of any additional routers.
No passwords are required to access the Main router. The config terminal command has been disabled for the HQ
router. The router does not require any configuration.lead4pass 100-105 exam question q5

Configure each additional router with the following:
Configure the interfaces with the correct IP address and enable the interfaces.
Set the password to allow console access to consolepw
Set the password to allow telnet access to telnetpw
Set the password to allow privilege mode access to privpw
Not E: Because routes are not being added to the configurations, you will not be able to ping through the internetwork.
All devices have cable autosensing capabilities disabled.
All hosts are PC\\’s
Correct Answer:
Answer: Specify appropriate devices and drag them on the “Device” boxes For the device at the bottom-right box, we
notice that it has 2 interfaces Fa0/2 and Fa0/4; moreover the link connects the PC on the right with the device on the
bottom-right is a straight-through link -> it is a switch
The question stated that this topology contains 3 routers and 1 switch -> two other devices are routers Place them on
appropriate locations as following:
(Host D and host E will be automatically added after placing two routers. Click on them to access neighboring routers)
Specify appropriate connections between these devices:
+ The router on the left is connected with the Main router through FastEthernet interfaces: use a crossover cable
+ The router on the right is connected with the Main router through Serial interfaces: use a serial cable
+ The router on the right and the Switch: use a straight-through cable
+ The router on the left and the computer: use a crossover cable (To remember which type of cable you should use,
follow these tips:
-To connect two serial interfaces of 2 routers we use serial cable
-To specify when we use crossover cable or straight-through cable, we should remember:
Group 1: Router, Host, Server
Group 2: Hub, Switch
One device in group 1 + One device in group 2: use straight-through cable
Two devices in the same group: use crossover cable
For example, we use straight-through cable to connect switch to router, switch to host, hub to host, hub to server… and
we use crossover cable to connect switch to switch, switch to hub, router to router, host to host.)
Assign appropriate IP addresses for interfaces:
From Main router, use show running-config command. (Notice that you may see different IP addresses in the real CCNA
exam, the ones shown above are just used for demonstration)
From the output we learned that the ip address of Fa0/0 interface of the Main router is 192.168.152.177/28. This
address belongs to a subnetwork which has:
Increment: 16 (/28 = 255.255.255.240 or 1111 1111.1111 1111.1111 1111.1111 0000) Network address:
192.168.152.176 (because 176 = 16 * 11 and 176
192.168.152.190 and assign it to the Fa0/0 interface the router on the left Use the same method for interface Serial0/0
with an ip address of 192.168.152.161 Increment: 16 Network address: 192.168.152.160 (because 160 = 16 * 10 and
160 and we choose 192.168.152.174 for Serial0/0 interface of the router on the right Interface Fa0/1 of the router on
the left IP (of the computer on the left) : 192.168.152.129/28 Increment: 16 Network address: 192.168.152.128 (because
128 = 16 * 8 and 128 we choose 192.168.152.142 from the list Interface Fa0/0 of the router on the right IP (of the
computer on the left) : 192.168.152.225/28 Increment: 16 Network address: 192.168.152.224 (because 224 = 16 * 14
and 224 we choose 192.168.152.238 from the list Let\\’s have a look at the picture below to summarize Configure two
routers on the left and right with these commands: Router1 = router on the left Assign appropriate IP addresses to Fa0/0
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and Fa0/1 interfaces:
Router1>enable
Router1#configure terminal
Router1(config)#interface fa0/0
Router1(config-if)#ip address 192.168.152.190 255.255.255.240
Router1(config-if)#no shutdown
Router1(config-if)#interface fa0/1
Router1(config-if)#ip address 192.168.152.142 255.255.255.240
Router1(config-if)#no shutdown Set passwords (configure on two routers)
+ Console password:
Router1(config-if)#exit
Router1(config)#line console 0
Router1(config-line)#password consolepw
Router1(config-line)#login
Router1(config-line)#exit
+ Telnet password:
Router1(config)#line vty 0 4
Router1(config-line)#password telnetpw
Router1(config-line)#login
Router1(config-line)#exit
+ Privilege mode password:
Router1(config)#enable password privpw Save the configuration:
Router1(config)#exit
Router1#copy running-config startup-config Configure IP addresses of Router2 (router on the right) Router2>enable
Router2#configure terminal
Router2(config)#interface fa0/0
Router2(config-if)#ip address 192.168.152.238 255.255.255.240
Router2(config-if)#no shutdown
Router2(config-if)#interface serial0/0
Router2(config-if)#ip address 192.168.152.174 255.255.255.240
Router2(config-if)#no shutdown
Then set the console, telnet and privilege mode passwords for Router2 as we did for Router1, remember to save the
configuration when you finished.

QUESTION 6
Which two attributes of a packet change at every router along the path from source to destination? (Choose two.)
A. destination IP address
B. source MAC address
C. packet MTU
D. source IP address
E. destination MAC address
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 7
Which form of NAT maps multiple private IP addresses to a single registered IP address by using different ports?
A. static NAT
B. dynamic NAT
C. overloading
D. overlapping
E. port loading
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which IP addresses are valid for hosts belonging to the 10.1.160.0/20 subnet? (Choose three.)
A. 10.1.168.0
B. 10.1.176.1
C. 10.1.174.255
D. 10.1.160.255
E. 10.1.160.0
F. 10.1.175.255
Correct Answer: ACD
All IP address in IP ranges between: 10.1.160.1 and 10.1.175.254 are valid as shown below Address: 10.1.160.0
00001010.00000001.1010 0000.00000000 Netmask:255.255.240.0 = 2011111111.11111111.1111 0000.00000000
Wildcard:0.0.15.25500000000.00000000.0000 1111.11111111 Which implies that Network: 10.1.160.0/20
00001010.00000001.1010 0000.00000000 HostMin:10.1.160.100001010.00000001.1010 0000.00000001
HostMax:10.1.175.25400001010.00000001.1010 1111.11111110 Broadcast:10.1.175.25500001010.00000001.1010
1111.11111111

QUESTION 9
Which statements describe the routing protocol OSPF? (Choose three)
A. It supports VLSM.
B. It is used to route between autonomous systems.
C. It confines network instability to one area of the network.
D. It increases routing overhead on the network.
E. It allows extensive control of routing updates.
F. It is simpler to configure than RIP v2.
Correct Answer: ACE
The OSPF protocol is based on link-state technology, which is a departure from the Bellman-Ford vector based
algorithms used in traditional Internet routing protocols such as RIP. OSPF has introduced new concepts such as
authentication
of routing updates, Variable Length Subnet Masks (VLSM), route summarization, and so forth.
OSPF uses flooding to exchange link-state updates between routers. Any change in routing information is flooded to all
routers in the network. Areas are introduced to put a boundary on the explosion of link-state updates. Flooding and
calculation of the Dijkstra algorithm on a router is limited to changes within an area.

QUESTION 10
Which configuration must you perform to enable VTP in a switching domain?
A. Configure a switch as a client.
B. Configure a switch with a VTP domain.
C. Configure a switch with VTP mode off to serve as the server switch.
D. Configure a switch in transparent mode.
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Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Which port security violation mode allows traffic from valid mac address to pass but block traffic from invalid mac
address?
A. protect
B. shutdown
C. shutdown vlan
D. restrict
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
All protocols on a network are using their default administrative distances with no redistribution. In which two different
ways can you modify them so that OSPF and RIPv2 learned routes are preferred over EIGRP-learned routes? (Choose
two.)
A. Change the OSPF administrative distance to 5.
B. Change the RIP administrative distance to 70.
C. Change the EIGRP administrative distance to 70.
D. Change the RIP administrative distance to 100.
E. Change the EIGRP administrative distance to 100.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 13
How are MAC addresses removed from a MAC address table?
A. They are removed automatically if they remain inactive for the duration of the switch aging timer.
B. They are removed automatically on a FIFO basis when the address-table limit has been reached.
C. They must be manually cleared from the table.
D. They are removed automatically if they remain inactive for the duration of the global MAC address timer.
Correct Answer: D

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Get the latest questions about the Microsoft 70-464 exam for free

How do I get the latest questions for the Microsoft 70-464 exam? Examvcesoftware shares the latest and effective Microsoft 70-464 exam questions and answers, online practice tests, and the most authoritative Microsoft exam experts update 70-464 exam questions throughout the year. Get the full 70-464 exam dumps selection: https://www.lead4pass.com/70-464.html (209 Q&As). Pass the exam with ease!

Microsoft 70-464 Exam Video

Table of Contents:

Latest Microsoft 70-464 google drive

[PDF] Free Microsoft 70-464 pdf dumps download from Google Drive: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1LLOUd6kmw7mJCRrGosqwtgQKSyAL2CR5

Exam 70-464: Developing Microsoft SQL Server Databases: https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-70-464.aspx

Skills measured

This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below.

  • Implement database objects (30–35%)
  • Implement programming objects (15-20%)
  • Design database objects (25–30%)
  • Optimize and troubleshoot queries (25–30%)

Who should take this exam?

This exam is intended for database professionals who build and implement databases across organizations and who ensure high levels of data availability. Their responsibilities include creating database files, data types, and tables; planning, creating, and optimizing indexes; ensuring data integrity; implementing views, stored procedures, and functions; and managing transactions and locks.

Latest updates Microsoft 70-464 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1

You administer a SQL Server 2014 instance. 

The server is capable of 10000 IO/second (IOPS). During the time period when the second process executes, the disk

IO can reach 7000 IOPS, and CPU use can average 30% over the eight processors. 

The first process summarizes the day\\’s activity executed by a login of [SummaryReportLogin]. The second process

submits transactions executed by a login of [ETLLogin]. 

A Resource Governor classifier function has been created to return WG_Low for connections from the [ETLLogin] and

[SummaryReportLogin]. 

You need to set up the Resource Group and Workgroup Pools on the instance. 

You have the following requirements: 

1. 

Both processes must never use more than 50 percent of the CPU at any one time. 

2. 

The number of active queries that these processes can execute simultaneously should be limited to a maximum of 10. 

3. 

The SummaryReportLogin process must always achieve the minimum IOPS required to be minimally affected during

executing the ETLLogin processes. 

Develop the solution by selecting and arranging the required code blocks in the correct order. 

You may not need all of the code blocks. 

Select and Place:lead4pass 70-464 exam question q1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 70-464 exam question q1-1

Note:
CREATE WORKLOAD RESOURCE POOL
*
Resource pools. A resource pool, represents the physical resources of the server. You can think of a pool as a virtual
SQL Server instance inside of a SQL Server instance.
*
Workload groups. A workload group serves as a container for session requests that have similar classification criteria.
A workload allows for aggregate monitoring of the sessions, and defines policies for the sessions. Each workload group
is
in a resource pool.
*
CAP_CPU_PERCENT =value
Specifies a hard cap on the CPU bandwidth that all requests in the resource pool will receive. Limits the maximum CPU
bandwidth level to be the same as the specified value. value is an integer with a default setting of 100. The allowed
range
for value is from 1 through 100.
*
MIN_IOPS_PER_VOLUME =value
Specifies the minimum I/O operations per second (IOPS) per disk volume to reserve for the resource pool.
*
GROUP_MAX_REQUESTS =value
Specifies the maximum number of simultaneous requests that are allowed to execute in the workload group. value must
be a 0 or a positive integer.

QUESTION 2
You have a database named database1. Each table in database1 has one index per column.
Users often report that creating items takes a long time.
You need to perform the following maintenance tasks:
Identify unused indexes.
Identify indexes that need to be defragmented.
What should you use?
To answer, drag the appropriate function to the correct management task in the answer area. (Answer choices may be
used once, more than once, or not at all.)
Select and Place:lead4pass 70-464 exam question q2

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 70-464 exam question q2-1

*
sys.dm_db_index_usage_stats
Returns counts of different types of index operations and the time each type of operation was last performed.
*
sys.dm_db_index_physical_stats
Returns size and fragmentation information for the data and indexes of the specified table or view.

QUESTION 3
You run the following code:lead4pass 70-464 exam question q3

You need to ensure that the root node of the XML data stored in the Details column is .
What should you implement?
More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.
A. A user-defined data type
B. An XML index
C. A Data Definition Language (DDL) trigger
D. A Data Manipulation Language (DML) trigger
E. An XML schema collection
Correct Answer: E
http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms187856.aspx

QUESTION 4
You need to implement a solution that meets the data recovery requirements. You update each stored procedure to
accept a parameter named @transactionID. What should you add next to the beginning of each stored procedure?
A. SAVE TRANSACTION WITH MARK @transactionID
B. ROLLBACK DISTRIBUTED TRANSACTION @transactionID
C. BEGIN TRANSACTION WITH MARK @transactionID
D. COMMIT TRANSACTION @transactionID
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
You have a database for a mission-critical web application. The database is stored on a SQL Server 2012 instance and
is the only database on the instance.
The application generates all T-SQL statements dynamically and does not use stored procedures. You need to
maximize the amount of memory available for data caching.
Which advanced server option should you modify?
A. Optimize for Ad hoc Workloads
B. Enable Contained Databases
C. Allow Triggers to Fire Others
D. Scan for Startup Procs
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
You need to encapsulate a T-SQL script into a reusable user-defined object.
The object must meet the following requirements:
Permit insertions into a table variable.
Support structured exception handling.
Prevent changes to the definition of referenced objects.
Support the use of the APPLY operator on the output of the object.
Which type of object should you use?
A. An inline table-valued function
B. A stored procedure
C. A scalar user-defined function
D. A multi-statement table-valued function
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 7
You have a database named database1. Each table in database1 has one index per column.
Users often report that creating items takes a long time.
You need to perform the following maintenance tasks:
Identify unused indexes.
Identify indexes that need to be defragmented.
What should you use?
To answer, drag the appropriate function to the correct management task in the answer area. (Answer choices may be
used once, more than once, or not at all.)
Select and Place:lead4pass 70-464 exam question q7

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 70-464 exam question q7-1

Note:
*
sys.dm_db_index_usage_stats
Returns counts of different types of index operations and the time each type of operation was last performed.
*
sys.dm_db_index_physical_stats
Returns size and fragmentation information for the data and indexes of the specified table or view.


QUESTION 8
You have a Microsoft SQL Azure database. You have the following stored procedure:lead4pass 70-464 exam question q8

You discover that the stored procedure periodically fails to update HR.Employees.
You need to ensure that HR.Employees is always updated when up_employees executes.
The solution must minimize the amount of time required for the stored procedure to execute and the number of locks
held.
What should you do?
A. Add the following line of code to line 05: SET TRANSACTION ISOLATION LEVEL SNAPSHOT
B. Add the following line of code to line 13: WITH (UPDLOCK)
C. Add the following line of code to line 05: SET TRANSACTION ISOLATION LEVEL SERIALIZABLE
D. Add the following line of code to line 08: WITH (UPDLOCK)
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
You execute the following code:lead4pass 70-464 exam question q9

You need to select the task that has an IsFinished value of true from the Project that has an Id value of 1. Which code
segment should you use?

lead4pass 70-464 exam question q9-1

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 10
You have a server that has SQL Server 2012 installed.
You need to identify which parallel execution plans are running in serial.
Which tool should you use?
A. Performance Monitor
B. Database Engine Tuning Advisor
C. Data Profile Viewer
D. Extended Events
Correct Answer: D
References: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb677278.aspx http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-
us/library/bb630282.aspx http://www.sql-server-performance.com/2006/query-execution-plan-analysis/
http://www.simple-talk.com/sql/learn-sql-server/understanding-and-using-parallelism-in-sqlserver/ http://www.sqlserverc
entral.com/articles/SQL+Server+2012/At+last%2c+execution+plans+show+true+thread+reservations./92458/
http://sqlblog.com/blogs/paul_white/archive/2011/12/23/forcing-a-parallel-query-executionplan.aspx
http://sqlblog.com/blogs/paul_white/archive/2012/05/02/parallel-row-goals-gone-rogue.aspx
http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb895310.aspx http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb895313.aspx
http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/hh231122.aspx

QUESTION 11
You have a SQL Server instance named SQL\Instance1. Instance1 contains a database named Database1.
You need to recommend an index defragmentation solution for an index on a disk-based table named ContentIndex.
ContentIndex must meet the following requirements:
1.
Remain online during the defragmentation.
2.
Update distribution statistics.
3.
Perform defragmentation as quickly as possible.
Which type of index defragmentation solution should you include in the recommendation? More than one answer choice
may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.
A. DBCC DBREINDEX
B. REORGANIZE
C. REBUILD
D. DBCC INDEXDEFRAG
Correct Answer: B

The REORGANIZE operation is always performed online. Incorrect Answers:
C: With the REBUILD command, the data is “offline” and unavailable during the rebuild. References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/t-sql/statements/alter-index-transact-sql

QUESTION 12
You have a database named DB1.
You plan to configure change data capture on the existing tables in DB1.
The database file settings for the DB1 are shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)lead4pass 70-464 exam question q12

You need to minimize disk contention caused by change data capture.
What should you do?
More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.
A. Increase the autogrowth value of the database file.
B. Set the database recovery model to simple.
C. Increase the autogrowth value of the log file.
D. Configure change data capture to use to a secondary filegroup.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
You discover that the usp_GetOrdersAndItems stored procedure takes a long time to complete while usp_AddOrder or
usp_AddXMLOrder run.
You need to ensure that usp_GetOrdersAndItems completes as quickly as possible.
What should you do? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Set the isolation level of the usp_GetOrdersAndItems stored procedure to SERIALIZABLE.
B. Execute the ALTER DATABASE Sales SET ALLOW_SNAPSHOT_ISOLATION ON statement.
C. Set the isolation level of the usp_AddOrder stored procedure to SERIALIZABLE.
D. Set the isolation level of the usp_GetOrdersAndItems stored procedure to SNAPSHOT.
E. Set the isolation level of the usp_AddOrder stored procedure to SNAPSHOT.
F. Execute the ALTER DATABASE Sales SET ALLOW_SNAPSHOT_ISOLATION OFF statement.
Correct Answer: BD

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you can crack the exam with excellent results. https://www.lead4pass.com/70-464.html provides you with the most relevant learning materials that you can use to help you prepare.

Best way to pass the Microsoft 70-740 exam – 100% free

What is the best way to pass the Microsoft 70-740 exam? (First: Exam practice test,
Second: Lead4pass Microsoft expert.) You can get free Microsoft MCSA 70-740 exam practice test questions here. Or choose https://www.lead4pass.com/70-740.html (337 Q&As). Study hard to pass the exam easily!

Microsoft MCSA 70-740 Exam Video

Table of Contents:

Latest Microsoft MCSA 70-740 google drive

[PDF] Free Microsoft MCSA 70-740 pdf dumps download from Google Drive: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1arUK9hrLmbZkxEYME2usof649Rxndlfo

Installation, Storage, and Compute with Windows Server 2016:https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-70-740.aspx

Skills measured:

This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below.

  • Install Windows Servers in Host and Compute Environments (10-15%)
  • Implement Storage Solutions (15-20%)
  • Implement Hyper-V (20-25%)
  • Implement Windows Containers (5-10%)
  • Implement High Availability (30-35%)
  • Maintain and Monitor Server Environments (10-15%)

Who should take this exam?

Candidates for this exam are involved with the installation, storage, and compute functionalities available in Windows Server 2016. Candidates perform general installation tasks, as well as creating and managing images for deployment.

Candidates should have experience with local and server storage solutions including the configuration of disks and volumes, Data Deduplication, High Availability, Disaster Recovery, Storage Spaces Direct, and Failover Clustering solutions. The candidates should also be familiar with managing Hyper-V and Containers as well as maintaining and monitoring servers in physical and compute environments.

Latest updates Microsoft 70-740 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
You have an Active Director domain named Contoso.com. The domain contains servers named Server 1, Server2 and
Server3 that run Windows Server 2016
Server1 and Server2 are nodes in a Hyper V cluster named Cluster1. You add a Hyper V Replica Broker role named
Broker 1 to Cluster 1 Server3 is a Hyper-V server. A virtual machine named VM1 runs on Server3.
Live Migration is enabled on all three servers and it is configured to use Kerberos authentication only.
You need to ensure that you can perform the migration of VM1 to Server2
What should you do?
A. Modify the Storage Migration settings on Server3
B. Modify the Cluster Permissions for Cluster1.
C. Add the Server3 computer account to the Replicator group on Server1 and Server2.
D. Modify the Delegation settings for the Server3 computer account.
Correct Answer: D
References: https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/jj134199(v=ws.11).aspx#BKMK_Step1

 

QUESTION 2
You have a server that runs Windows Server 2016. You run the commands shown in the following output PS G:\> Get-DedupVolume | f1lead4pass 70-740 exam question q2 lead4pass 70-740 exam question q2-1

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
Hot Area:

lead4pass 70-740 exam question q2-2

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 70-740 exam question q2-3

 

QUESTION 3
You have a Hyper-V failover cluster that contains three nodes. Virtual machines are distributed evenly across the cluster
nodes.
You need to ensure that if a node loses connectivity from the other nodes, the virtual machines on the node will be
transitioned to one of the remaining nodes after one minute. Which settings should you modify?
A. QuarantineDuration and QuarantineThreshold
B. SameSubnetDelay and CrossSubnetDelay
C. QuorumArbitrationTimeMax and RequestReplyTimeout
D. ResiliencyPeriod and ResiliencyLevel
Correct Answer: C
References: https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa369123(v=vs.85).aspx https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb394696(v=vs.85).aspx

 

QUESTION 4
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 is a Hyper-V host. You run the commands
shown in the following graphic:lead4pass 70-740 exam question q4

Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information
presented in the graphic.
Hot Area:

lead4pass 70-740 exam question q4-1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 70-740 exam question q4-2

 

QUESTION 5
You have a server named Server l that runs Windows Server 2016.
On Server 1. you have a custom Image of Windows Server 2016 Standard In a I lie named Ini4nel.wim. The image is
mounted to C:\Folderl.
You discover corrupted tiles in the WinSxS folder of the mounted Image.
Frorn the Windows Server 2016 installation media, you mount an image of Windows Server 2016 Standard from Install
win to C:\foldef2.
You need to repair the corrupted image.
Which command should run? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

lead4pass 70-740 exam question q5

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 70-740 exam question q5-1

 

QUESTION 6
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain has two clusters named FC1 and
FC2. The domain contains servers that run Windows Server 2016. The Servers are configured as shown in the following
table.

lead4pass 70-740 exam question q6

Server1 hosts a highly available virtual machine named VM1.
You need to move VM1 from Server1 to Server3 by using live migration.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions
to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:

lead4pass 70-740 exam question q6-1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 70-740 exam question q6-2

http://www.checkyourlogs.net/?p=16401

 

QUESTION 7
A company named Contoso, Ltd has five Hyper-V hosts that are configured as shown In the following table.lead4pass 70-740 exam question q7

What are two valid live migration scenarios for virtual machines in your environment? Each correct answer presents a
complete solution.
A. from Server4 to Server5
B. from Server1 to Server5
C. from Server3 to Server4
D. from Server2 to Server3
Correct Answer: BD


QUESTION 8
You have two servers named Server1 and Server2. A firewall exists between Server1 and Server2.
Both servers run Windows Server Update Services (WSUS). Server1 downloads updates from Microsoft update.
Server2 must synchronize updates from Server1.
Which port should to open on the firewall?
A. 80
B. 443
C. 3389
D. 8530
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 9
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso com The domain contains tour servers named Server
1. Server2. Server3. and Server4 that run Windows Server 2016.
Server 1 and Server2 are nodes in Hyper-V cluster named Cluster1 You have a highly available virtual machine named
VM1.
Server1 is the owner node of VM1 Server3and Server4 are nodes of a scale-out file server named Cluster2.
The storage on Server1 is configured as shown in the following table.lead4pass 70-740 exam question q9

You need to move the virtual disk of VM1 to a different location.
What should you do? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
Hot Area:

lead4pass 70-740 exam question q9-1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 70-740 exam question q9-2

 

QUESTION 10
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same similar answer choices. An answer choice may be
correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series.
Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question.
You have an Active Directory domain that contains two Hyper-V servers named Server1 and Server2. Server1 has
Windows Server 2016 installed. Server2 has Windows Server 2012 R2 installed.
Each Hyper-V server has three network cards. Each network card is connected to a different subnet. Server1 contains a
dedicated migration network.
Server2 contains a virtual machine named VM5.
You plan to perform a live migration of VM5 to Server1.
You need to ensure that Server1 uses all available networks to perform the live migration of VM5.
What should you run1?
A. the Mount-VHD cmdlet
B. the Diskpart command
C. the Set-VHD cmdlet
D. the Set-VM cmdlet
E. the Set-VMHost cmdlet
F. the Set-VMProcessor cmdlet
G. the Install-WindowsFeature cmdlet
H. the Optimize-VHD cmdlet
Correct Answer: E

 

QUESTION 11
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
white
others might not have a correct solution.
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 hosts a line-of-business application named
App1. App1 has a memory leak that occasionally causes the application to consume an excessive amount of memory.
You need to log an event in the Application event log whenever App1 consume more than 4 GB of memory. Solution:
You create a performance counter data collector.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 12
You have a Hyper-V host named Server1 that hosts a virtual machine named VM1. VM1 runs Windows Server 2016
and is configured as shown in the following table.lead4pass 70-740 exam question q12

You need to ensure that you can manually increase and decrease the amount of memory allocated to VM1 while VM1 is
running. What should you do?
A. Disable Dynamic Memory
B. Enable Integration Services
C. Upgrade the configuration version
Correct Answer: A
References: https://www.altaro.com/hyper-v/hot-add-remove-memory-hyper-v-2016/

 

QUESTION 13
You have a server named Server1.
You enable BitLocker Drive Encryption (BitLocker) on Server1.
You need to change the password for the Trusted Platform Module (TPM) chip.
What should you run on Server1?
A. Initialize-Tpm
B. Import-TpmOwnerAuth
C. repair-bde.exe
D. bdehdcfg-exe
Correct Answer: B

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Best way to pass the Cisco 300-180 exam – 100% free

What is the best way to pass the Cisco 300-180 exam? (First: Exam practice test, Second: Lead4pass Cisco expert.) You can get free Cisco CCNP Data Center 300-180 exam practice test questions here.
Or choose https://www.lead4pass.com/300-180.html (416 Q&As). Study hard to pass the exam easily!

Cisco CCNP Data Center 300-180 Exam Video

Table of Contents:

Latest Cisco CCNP Data Center 300-180 google drive

[PDF] Free Cisco CCNP Data Center 300-180 pdf dumps download from Google Drive: https://drive.google.com/open?id=10dof3jhMFuQ5wy-kXBADQrDDPAt_Mc8r

300-180 DCIT – Cisco: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/dcit.html

This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge of troubleshooting Cisco data center infrastructure including:

  • Data network protocols
  • Network virtualization and automation
  • Application Centric Infrastructure (ACI)
  • Storage
  • Compute platforms
  • Management and operations

Latest updates Cisco 300-180 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
A customer is configuring VSANs in a Cisco UCS domain. After configuring the VSANs 3840, 3841, and 3842 in FC end-
host mode, the customer sees that these VSANs are not operational and that Cisco UCS Manager is raising faults.
What is the cause of this problem?
A. VSANs 3840, 3841, and 3842 should be in the allowed list on the trunk to clear the fault.
B. VSANs 3840 to 4079 cannot be used in Fibre Channel end-host mode in a Cisco UCS domain.
C. The fabric interconnect needs to be configured in switching mode and the VSANs need to be allowed on the trunk.
D. Use the UCS CLI to clear the fault on the VSAN trunk to forward the VSANs with faults.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 2
Which statement is true about the show cfs merge status name command?
A. In a successful merge, all switches in the fabric are shown separately.
B. The command shows the complete Cisco Fabric Services region database.
C. The merge master is selected based on the highest sWWN in the fabric.
D. In a successful merge, all switches are shown in a local fabric.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 3
Which two actions do you need to take to configure jumbo frames on UCS Manager? (Choose two.)
A. Choose QoS Policy Jumbo, choose the LAN tab, and set the MTU value to 9000.
B. Choose QoS System Class, choose the LAN tab, and set the MTU value to 9000.
C. Choose LAN Uplinks Manager, choose the LAN tab, and set the MTU value to the uplinks VLANs to 9000.
D. Choose the vNIC, and on the Server Profile set the MTU value to 9000.
E. On the Admin tab, under Global Policy, enable Jumbo MTU Bytes.
F. Go the fabric interconnect on the Equipment tab, right-click the port, and set the MTU value to 9000.
Correct Answer: BD

 

QUESTION 4
Which two maintenance policy options can you use to specify when the Cisco UCS Manager deploys a service profile
change? (Choose two.)
A. when acknowledged by any user
B. immediately
C. on the next reboot
D. when acknowledged by a user with root privileges
E. when acknowledged by a user with administrator privileges
Correct Answer: BE

 

QUESTION 5
You successfully install VMware ESXi 5.0 U1 on a Cisco UCS B200 M3 server to a Fibre Channel LUN. When you
reboot the server, you see the message “Reboot and Select Proper Boot device or insert Boot Media in selected Boot
device and press a key.” What are the first two pieces of information you should gather to troubleshoot the boot failure?
(Choose two.)
A. Connect to the NX-OS shell via the CLI and run the show npv flogi-table command.
B. SSH to the MDS 9124 and run the show flogi database command.
C. Validate the boot target WWPN and LUN ID in the service profile.
D. Validate the correct source WWPN in the service profile vHBA definition.
E. Validate zoning for your WWPN on the Cisco MDS 9124.
F. Validate that the boot order indicates the vHBA as the first device.
G. Ensure LUN masking is correctly configured on the storage controller.
Correct Answer: CF

 

QUESTION 6
A customer has a Cisco UCS Center cluster. The customer configures LDAP as the AAA protocol and enables SSL for
LDAP. The LDAP authentication fails. Which issue is the cause of the failure?
A. The LDAP client passed an incorrect from the trustpoint.
B. The ca certificate is missing from the trustpoints.
C. The LDAP server limit that is set by an administrative authority was exceeded.
D. The LDAP time limit that is specified by either the client or the server was exceeded.
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/servers-unified-computing/ucs-infrastructure-ucs-manager-software/200092-UCSM-LDAP-Troubleshooting-guide.html

 

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 300-180 exam question q7

You are configuring a Cisco APIC for access. Which task is being performed in the exhibit?
A. configuring APIC management EpG
B. creating the LDAP logjn domain
C. creating the LDAP provider
D. creating the LDAP provider group
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 8
You are configuring a Cisco Nexus 9000 Series Switch. Which configuration can be implemented for VXLAN BGP
EVPN?
A. VXLAN BGP EVPN by using an NVE interface in a default VRF
B. RACLs on the Layer 3 uplinks for the VXLAN traffic
C. QoS classification for the VXLAN traffic on all of the interfaces
D. DHCP snooping on the VXLAN VLANs
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 9
What can prevent you from adding an interface to a pre-existing port-channel on a CISCO Nexus N7K device?
A. The port-channel is In LACP passive mode
B. The interface already assigned to a different port-channel,
C. The interface has been allocated to a different VOC
D. no shutdown was issued on the interface.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 10
Which actions on a Cisco UCS Server can be performed under the Cisco IMC utilities? (Choose Four.)
A. export tech support information to a remote host
B. download a tech support file locally
C. reboot the Cisco IMC
D. recover a corrupt BIOS
E. install firmware updates
Correct Answer: ABCD

 

QUESTION 11
Storage VDC creation has failed. Which two steps should be taken before creating the storage VDC? (Choose two.)
A. Check that the F1 module has the FCoE license installed.
B. Check that the FCoE feature is enabled on the N7K.
C. Check that you have allocated the interfaces of the F module on the VDC.
D. Check that the network QoS non-drop policy is configured for FCoE traffic.
E. Check that the FCoE VLANs are allocated on the VDC.
F. Check that the M2 module has the FCoE license installed.
Correct Answer: BD

 

QUESTION 12
Which command output shows the interface assigned as the designated receiver of each VLAN?
A. show system vlan reserved
B. show vlan internal bd-info bd-to-vlan all-bd
C. show port internal info all
D. show platform software enm internal info vlandb all
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 13
Two fabric interconnects fail during a Cisco UCS firmware upgrade. Drag and drop the recovery steps from the left into
the correct order on the right.
Select and Place:lead4pass 300-175 exam question q13

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 300-175 exam question q13-1

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Microsoft Azure DP-200 exam exercise questions, DP-200 dumps easy to prepare for passing exams

Implementing an Azure Data Solution” Exam DP-200. Candidates for this exam are Microsoft Azure data engineers who collaborate with business stakeholders to identify and meet the data requirements to implement data solutions that use Azure data services.

Azure data engineers are responsible for data-related tasks that include provisioning data storage services, ingesting streaming and batch data, transforming data, implementing security requirements, implementing data retention policies, identifying performance bottlenecks, and accessing external data sources.

Here you can get the latest free DP-200 exam exercise questions and answers for free and easily improve your skills!

DP-200 exam

Candidates for this exam must be able to implement data solutions that use the following Azure services: Azure Cosmos DB, Azure SQL Database, Azure SQL Data Warehouse, Azure Data Lake Storage, Azure Data Factory, Azure Stream Analytics, Azure Databricks, and Azure Blob storage.

Follow the link to find more information about https://www.lead4pass.com/dp-200.html exam.

Watch the Microsoft Azure DP-200 video tutorial online

Table of Contents:

Latest Microsoft Azure DP-200 pdf

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Microsoft Certified: Azure Data Engineer Associate:https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/azure-data-engineer.aspx

Skills measured

  • Implement data storage solutions
  • Manage and develop data processing
  • Monitor and optimize data solutions
  • Design Azure data storage solutions
  • Design data processing solutions
  • Design for data security and compliance

Free Microsoft Azure DP-200 Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1

You are creating a managed data warehouse solution on Microsoft Azure. 

You must use PolyBase to retrieve data from Azure Blob storage that resides in parquet format and toad the data into a

large table called FactSalesOrderDetails. 

You need to configure Azure SQL Data Warehouse to receive the data. 

Which four actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to

the answer area and arrange them in the correct order. 

Select and Place:lead4pass dp-200 exam question q1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass dp-200 exam question q1-1

QUESTION 2
You manage security for a database that supports a line of business application.
Private and personal data stored in the database must be protected and encrypted.
You need to configure the database to use Transparent Data Encryption (TDE).
Which five actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, select the appropriate actions from the list of actions to
the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:lead4pass dp-200 exam question q2

Correct Answer:

lead4pass dp-200 exam question q2-1

Step 1: Create a master key
Step 2: Create or obtain a certificate protected by the master key
Step 3: Set the context to the company database
Step 4: Create a database encryption key and protect it by the certificate
Step 5: Set the database to use encryption
Example code: USE master; GO CREATE MASTER KEY ENCRYPTION BY PASSWORD = \\’\\’; go CREATE
CERTIFICATE MyServerCert WITH SUBJECT = \\’My DEK Certificate\\’; go USE AdventureWorks2012; GO CREATE
DATABASE ENCRYPTION KEY WITH ALGORITHM = AES_128 ENCRYPTION BY SERVER CERTIFICATE
MyServerCert; GO ALTER DATABASE AdventureWorks2012 SET ENCRYPTION ON; GO
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/relational-databases/security/encryption/transparent-data-encryption

QUESTION 3
You implement 3 Azure SQL Data Warehouse instance.
You plan to migrate the largest fact table to Azure SQL Data Warehouse The table resides on Microsoft SQL Server on-
premises and e 10 terabytes (TB) in size.
Incoming queues use the primary key Sale Key column to retrieve data as displayed in the following table:lead4pass dp-200 exam question q3

You need to distribute the fact table across multiple nodes to optimize performance of the table.
Which technology should you use?
A. hash distributed table with clustered ColumnStore index
B. hash distributed table with clustered index
C. heap table with distribution replicate
D. round robin distributed table with clustered index
E. round robin distributed table with clustered ColumnStore index
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
A company builds an application to allow developers to share and compare code. The conversations, code snippets,
and links shared by people in the application are stored in a Microsoft Azure SQL Database instance. The application
allows for searches of historical conversations and code snippets.
When users share code snippets, the code snippet is compared against previously share code snippets by using a
combination of Transact-SQL functions including SUBSTRING, FIRST_VALUE, and SQRT. If a match is found, a link to
the match is added to the conversation.
Customers report the following issues: Delays occur during live conversations A delay occurs before matching links
appear after code snippets are added to conversations
You need to resolve the performance issues.
Which technologies should you use? To answer, drag the appropriate technologies to the correct issues. Each
technology may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll
to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:lead4pass dp-200 exam question q4

Correct Answer:

lead4pass dp-200 exam question q4-1

Box 1: memory-optimized table
In-Memory OLTP can provide great performance benefits for transaction processing, data ingestion, and transient data
scenarios.
Box 2: materialized view
To support efficient querying, a common solution is to generate, in advance, a view that materializes the data in a format
suited to the required results set. The Materialized View pattern describes generating prepopulated views of data in
environments where the source data isn\\’t in a suitable format for querying, where generating a suitable query is
difficult, or where query performance is poor due to the nature of the data or the data store.
These materialized views, which only contain data required by a query, allow applications to quickly obtain the
information they need. In addition to joining tables or combining data entities, materialized views can include the current
values of
calculated columns or data items, the results of combining values or executing transformations on the data items, and
values specified as part of the query. A materialized view can even be optimized for just a single query.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/architecture/patterns/materialized-view

QUESTION 5
You need to ensure phone-based polling data upload reliability requirements are met. How should you configure
monitoring? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one
point.
Hot Area:

lead4pass dp-200 exam question q5

Correct Answer:

lead4pass dp-200 exam question q5-1

Explanation/Reference:
Box 1: FileCapacity
FileCapacity is the amount of storage used by the storage account

QUESTION 6
You need to ensure that phone-based polling data can be analyzed in the PollingData database.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions
to the answer are and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:

lead4pass dp-200 exam question q6

Correct Answer:

lead4pass dp-200 exam question q6-1

Explanation/Reference:
All deployments must be performed by using Azure DevOps. Deployments must use templates used in multiple
environments No credentials or secrets should be used during deployments

QUESTION 7
Note: This question is part of series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contain a
unique solution. Determine whether the solution meets the stated goals.
You develop data engineering solutions for a company.
A project requires the deployment of resources to Microsoft Azure for batch data processing on Azure
HDInsight. Batch processing will run daily and must:
Scale to minimize costs
Be monitored for cluster performance
You need to recommend a tool that will monitor clusters and provide information to suggest how to scale.
Solution: Monitor clusters by using Azure Log Analytics and HDInsight cluster management solutions.
Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
HDInsight provides cluster-specific management solutions that you can add for Azure Monitor logs.
Management solutions add functionality to Azure Monitor logs, providing additional data and analysis tools.
These solutions collect important performance metrics from your HDInsight clusters and provide the tools to search the
metrics. These solutions also provide visualizations and dashboards for most cluster types supported in HDInsight. By
using the metrics that you collect with the solution, you can create custom monitoring rules and alerts.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/hdinsight/hdinsight-hadoop-oms-log-analytics-tutorial

QUESTION 8
A company is deploying a service-based data environment. You are developing a solution to process this data.
The solution must meet the following requirements:
Use an Azure HDInsight cluster for data ingestion from a relational database in a different cloud service
Use an Azure Data Lake Storage account to store processed data
Allow users to download processed data
You need to recommend technologies for the solution.
Which technologies should you use? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
Hot Area:

lead4pass dp-200 exam question q8

Correct Answer:

lead4pass dp-200 exam question q8-1

Box 1: Apache Sqoop
Apache Sqoop is a tool designed for efficiently transferring bulk data between Apache Hadoop and structured
datastores such as relational databases.
Azure HDInsight is a cloud distribution of the Hadoop components from the Hortonworks Data Platform (HDP).
Incorrect Answers:
DistCp (distributed copy) is a tool used for large inter/intra-cluster copying. It uses MapReduce to effect its distribution,
error handling and recovery, and reporting. It expands a list of files and directories into input to map tasks, each of
which
will copy a partition of the files specified in the source list. Its MapReduce pedigree has endowed it with some quirks in
both its semantics and execution.
RevoScaleR is a collection of proprietary functions in Machine Learning Server used for practicing data science at scale.
For data scientists, RevoScaleR gives you data-related functions for import, transformation and manipulation,
summarization, visualization, and analysis.
Box 2: Apache Kafka
Apache Kafka is a distributed streaming platform.
A streaming platform has three key capabilities:
Publish and subscribe to streams of records, similar to a message queue or enterprise messaging system.
Store streams of records in a fault-tolerant durable way.
Process streams of records as they occur.
Kafka is generally used for two broad classes of applications:
Building real-time streaming data pipelines that reliably get data between systems or applications
Building real-time streaming applications that transform or react to the streams of data
Box 3: Ambari Hive View
You can run Hive queries by using Apache Ambari Hive View. The Hive View allows you to author, optimize, and run
Hive queries from your web browser.
References:
https://sqoop.apache.org/
https://kafka.apache.org/intro
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/hdinsight/hadoop/apache-hadoop-use-hive-ambari-view

QUESTION 9
You implement an event processing solution using Microsoft Azure Stream Analytics.
The solution must meet the following requirements:
-Ingest data from Blob storage
-Analyze data in real time
-Store processed data in Azure Cosmos DB
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions
to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:lead4pass dp-200 exam question q9

Correct Answer:

lead4pass dp-200 exam question q9-1

QUESTION 10
You manage a financial computation data analysis process. Microsoft Azure virtual machines (VMs) run the process in
daily jobs, and store the results in virtual hard drives (VHDs.)
The VMs product results using data from the previous day and store the results in a snapshot of the VHD. When a new
month begins, a process creates a new VHD.
You must implement the following data retention requirements:
Daily results must be kept for 90 days
Data for the current year must be available for weekly reports
Data from the previous 10 years must be stored for auditing purposes
Data required for an audit must be produced within 10 days of a request.
You need to enforce the data retention requirements while minimizing cost.
How should you configure the lifecycle policy? To answer, drag the appropriate JSON segments to the correct locations.
Each JSON segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bat between
panes or scroll to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:lead4pass dp-200 exam question q10

Correct Answer:

lead4pass dp-200 exam question q10-1

The Set-AzStorageAccountManagementPolicy cmdlet creates or modifies the management policy of an Azure Storage
account.
Example: Create or update the management policy of a Storage account with ManagementPolicy rule objects.

lead4pass dp-200 exam question q10-2

Action -BaseBlobAction Delete -daysAfterModificationGreaterThan 100
PS C:\>$action1 = Add-AzStorageAccountManagementPolicyAction -InputObject $action1 -BaseBlobAction
TierToArchive -daysAfterModificationGreaterThan 50
PS C:\>$action1 = Add-AzStorageAccountManagementPolicyAction -InputObject $action1 -BaseBlobAction TierToCool
-daysAfterModificationGreaterThan 30
PS C:\>$action1 = Add-AzStorageAccountManagementPolicyAction -InputObject $action1 -SnapshotAction Delete
-daysAfterCreationGreaterThan 100
PS C:\>$filter1 = New-AzStorageAccountManagementPolicyFilter -PrefixMatch ab,cd
PS C:\>$rule1 = New-AzStorageAccountManagementPolicyRule -Name Test -Action $action1 -Filter $filter1
PS C:\>$action2 = Add-AzStorageAccountManagementPolicyAction -BaseBlobAction Delete
-daysAfterModificationGreaterThan 100
PS C:\>$filter2 = New-AzStorageAccountManagementPolicyFilter
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/az.storage/set-azstorageaccountmanagementpolicy

QUESTION 11
A company plans to use Platform-as-a-Service (PaaS) to create the new data pipeline process. The process must meet
the following requirements.
Ingest:
– Access multiple data sources
– Provide the ability to orchestrate workflow
– Provide the capability to run SQL Server Integration Services packages.
Store:
– Optimize storage for big data workloads.
– Provide encryption of data at rest.
– Operate with no size limits.
Prepare and Train:
– Provide a fully-managed and interactive workspace for exploration and visualization.
– Provide the ability to program in R, SQL, Python, Scala, and Java.
– Provide seamless user authentication with Azure Active Directory.
Model and Serve:
– Implement native columnar storage.
– Support for the SQL language
– Provide support for structured streaming.
You need to build the data integration pipeline.
Which technologies should you use? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
Hot Area:

lead4pass dp-200 exam question q11

Correct Answer:

lead4pass dp-200 exam question q11-1

QUESTION 12
You are developing a solution using a Lambda architecture on Microsoft Azure.
The data at test layer must meet the following requirements:
Data storage:
-Serve as a repository (or high volumes of large files in various formats.
-Implement optimized storage for big data analytics workloads.
-Ensure that data can be organized using a hierarchical structure. Batch processing:
-Use a managed solution for in-memory computation processing.
-Natively support Scala, Python, and R programming languages.
-Provide the ability to resize and terminate the cluster automatically. Analytical data store:
-Support parallel processing.
-Use columnar storage.
-Support SQL-based languages. You need to identify the correct technologies to build the Lambda architecture. Which
technologies should you use? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area NOTE: Each correct
selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

lead4pass dp-200 exam question q12

Correct Answer:

lead4pass dp-200 exam question q12-1

QUESTION 13
A company has a SaaS solution that uses Azure SQL Database with elastic pools. The solution contains a dedicated
database for each customer organization. Customer organizations have peak usage at different periods during the
year.
You need to implement the Azure SQL Database elastic pool to minimize cost.
Which option or options should you configure?
A. Number of transactions only
B. eDTUs per database only
C. Number of databases only
D. CPU usage only
E. eDTUs and max data size
Correct Answer: E
The best size for a pool depends on the aggregate resources needed for all databases in the pool. This involves
determining the following:
Maximum resources utilized by all databases in the pool (either maximum DTUs or maximum vCores depending on your
choice of resourcing model).
Maximum storage bytes utilized by all databases in the pool.
Note: Elastic pools enable the developer to purchase resources for a pool shared by multiple databases to
accommodate unpredictable periods of usage by individual databases. You can configure resources for the pool based
either on the
DTU-based purchasing model or the vCore-based purchasing model. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/sql-database/sql-database-elastic-pool

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QUESTION 1

Which service can negatively impact the Cisco TMS ability to monitor a Cisco VCS? 

A. Telnet 

B. SNMP 

C. SSH 

D. TFTP 

Correct Answer: B 

 

QUESTION 2

Which CCC action applies only to the Cisco TelePresence MPS Series? 

A. block fast update requests 

B. Status Duo Video 

C. move back 

D. release floor 

Correct Answer: A 

 

QUESTION 3

You notice that a Cisco Unity Connection server is running low on disk space. You discover that users are not deleting

their voicemail messages, causing mailboxes to become very large. Which two solutions can help to alleviate the

storage issues? (Choose two.) 

A. quotas 

B. compression 

C. aging 

D. handlers 

Correct Answer: AC 

 

QUESTION 4

An engineer is configuring Binary Floor Control Protocol for a CTS 3100. What are three required configuration items?

(Choose three.) 

A. configure the VCS Zone 

B. configure the CUCM service parameters 

C. configure the SIP Profile 

D. configure the VCS Domain 

E. configure the Device Profile 

F. configure the SIP Trunk 

Correct Answer: ACF 

 

QUESTION 5

The Cisco TMS administrator is trying to add participants while booking a new conference. Which three options are

presented? (Choose three.) 

A. endpoints 

B. users 

C. Cisco MCUs 

D. multiway address 

E. directory numbers synched from Cisco Unified Communications Manager 

F. SIP URIs synched from Cisco Unified Communications Manager 

G. video AutoAttendant numbers 

Correct Answer: ABC 

 

QUESTION 6

Assume that Cisco Unified Presence is deployed with high availability at a site. When a manual or automatic failover

event occurs, which two parameters affect the client failover behavior of Cisco Jabber? (Choose two.) 

A. Client Re-Login Upper Limit Server Recovery Manager service parameter 

B. Timer Register Expires configuration on the SIP profile of the Jabber device 

C. jabber-config.xml file defines a PresenceServerFailoverTimer, such as: 300 

D. Client Re-Login Lower Limit Server Recovery Manager service parameter 

E. secondary CUP node configuration defined in the Service Profile assigned to the user 

Correct Answer: AD 

 

QUESTION 7

Which application helps the Sales team take orders by collecting information from callers with a series of recorded

questions and answers? 

A. Call Handler 

B. Directory Handler 

C. Interview Handler 

D. IVR Option 

E. Call Routing 

Correct Answer: C 

 

QUESTION 8

Which messaging interface provides support for an Apple iPhone, Android, and Blackberry? 

A. Cisco Unity Connection 

B. Cisco Unity Express 

C. Cisco Unity 

D. Cisco Unity Mobile 

Correct Answer: A 

 

QUESTION 9

What statement about endpoint management in Cisco TMS is true? 

A. Adding the endpoint directly to Cisco TMS provides the less extensive control of the system. 

B. Provisioning the endpoint using TMSPE does add the endpoint itself to Cisco TMS. 

C. Adding endpoints already registered to Unified CM to Cisco TMS provides the most extensive management options. 

D. Provisioning the endpoint using Cisco TMSPE does not add the endpoint itself to Cisco TMS. 

Correct Answer: D 

 

QUESTION 10

After the initial Cisco Unity Connection installation, how and where can the time zone be changed? 

A. The Cisco Unity Connection time zone can be changed from the Cisco Unified Operating System Administration

GUI. 

B. The Cisco Unity Connection time zone can be changed from the Cisco Unified Communications Manager GUI. 

C. The Cisco Unity Connection time zone can be changed from the Cisco Unified Operating System CLI. 

D. The Cisco Unity Connection time zone can be changed from the Cisco Unity Connection CLI. 

E. The Cisco Unity Connection time zone cannot be changed after the initial installation. A reinstallation is required. 

Correct Answer: D 

 

QUESTION 11

Which additional step must be completed after installing a new Cisco Unity Connection Language file? 

A. Restart Cisco Tomcat Service. 

B. Update Unity Connection ViewMail clients for Microsoft Outlook. 

C. Restart TFTP Service. 

D. Run the CLI cuc locale update command. 

Correct Answer: A 

 

QUESTION 12

When importing users into Cisco Unity Connection by using AXL, what can cause a user not to be listed in the import

view? 

A. if the user primary extension is set to “none” on Cisco Unified Communications Manager 

B. if the userdigest credentials are not set 

C. if the userwas imported into Cisco Unified Communications Manager by usingLDAP 

D. if the user is not assigned to the Standard CTI Enabled access control group on Cisco Unified Communications

Manager 

Correct Answer: A 

 

QUESTION 13

Which two statements about Cisco Unity Connection video features are true? (Choose two.) 

A. The video greetings feature is not supported in an active-active cluster deployment over the WAN. 

B. The Cisco MediaSense server must be colocated with Cisco Unity Connection with less than 30 ms RTT latency. 

C. To avoid frozen video frames, Cisco Unity Connection and Cisco MediaSense must make use of a blanking file to fill

the stream when they are not sending video. 

D. Cisco Unity Connection transcodes video greetings for endpoints with different resolutions. 

E. The Cisco MediaSense server transcodes video greetings for endpoints with different resolutions. 

Correct Answer: AC

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QUESTION 1
Which two statements about DMVPN are true? (Choose two.)
A. IPsec encryption not supported with statically addressed spokes.
B. t requires full-mesh connectivity on the network.
C. It uses NHRP to create a mapping database of spoke addresses
D. Multicast traffic is not supported
E. It supports dynamic addresses for spokes in a hub-and-spoke VPN topology.
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 2
Where must a network engineer configure the IP helper-address command on a router?
A. On the interface that will receive the broadcasts
B. On the DHCP configuration
C. the interface that is closed to the destination DHCP server
D. on the global configuration mode
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 3
Which NAT command do you enter to disable dynamic ARP learning on an interface?
A. R1(config-if)#ip nat enable
B. R1(config-if)#ip nat inside
C. R1(config)#ip nat serive
D. R1(config-if)#ip nat outside
E. R1(config)#ip nat allows-static-host
Correct Answer: E

 

QUESTION 4
Which statement describes the difference between a manually configured IPv6 in IPv4 tunnel versus an automatic 6to4
tunnel?
A. A manually configured IPv6 in IPv4 tunnel allows multiple IPv4 destinations.
B. An automatic 6to4 tunnel allows multiple IPv4 destinations.
C. A manually configured IPv6 in IPv4 tunnel does not require dual-stack (IPv4 and IPv6) routers at the tunnel
endpoints.
D. An automatic 6to4 tunnel does not require dual-stack (IPv4 and IPv6) routers at the tunnel endpoints
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit. A new TAC engineer came to you for advice. A GRE over IPsec tunnel was configured, but the
tunnel is not coming up. What did the TAC engineer configure incorrectly?lead4pass 300-101 exam question q5

A. The crypto map is not configured correctly
B. The crypto ACL is not configured correctly.
C. The crypto map is not applied to the correct interface.
D. The OSPF network is not configured correctly.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 6
A network engineer wants to ensure an optimal end-to-end delay-bandwidth product. The delay is less than 64KB. Which TCP feature ensures steady-state throughput?
A. Window scaling
B. Network buffer
C. Round-trip timers
D. TCP acknowledgments
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which option must be configured on a target device to use time stamping to accurately represent response times using
IP SLA?
A. Responder
B. Jitter value
C. TCP Connect
D. ICMP Echo
Correct Answer: D
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/12_4/ip_sla/configuration/guide/hsla_c/hsoverv.html

QUESTION 8
When unicast reverse path forwarding is configured on an interface, which action does the interface take first when it
receives a packet?
A. It checks the ingress access list
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B. It checks the egress access list
C. It verifies that the source has a valid VEF adjacency
D. It verifies a reverse path via the FIB to the source
Correct Answer: D
When a packet is received at the interface where Unicast RPF and ACLs have been configured, the following actions
occur:
Step 1: Input ACLs configured on the inbound interface are checked.
Step 2: Unicast RPF checks to see if the packet has arrived on the best return path to the source, which it does by doing
a reverse lookup in the FIB table

QUESTION 9
which the Valid range for BGP private ASNs?
A. 64512-65535
B. 62464-65024
C. 64512-65024
D. 62464-64511
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
In IPv6, the interfaces running OSPF can be configured with multiple address prefixes. Which statement is true about the
IPv6 addresses that can be included into the OSPF process?
A. Specific addresses can be selected using a route map.
B. Specific addresses can be selected using an ACL.
C. Specific addresses cannot be selected for importation into the OSPF process.
D. Specific addresses can be selected using a prefix list.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 11
On a Frame relay, we are unable to ping the remote router, how to solve the problem?
A. DLC is active
B. DLC is not active and deleted
C. Frame Relay map is configured
D. Need an ACL to allow PING
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
You want to configure a device to select an OSPF-learned route as the preferred path over an EBGP-learned route
Which action must you take?
A. Increase the OSPF cost
B. Decrease the OSPF cost
C. Increase the OSPF administrative distance
D. Decrease the OSPF administrative distance
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 13
Which three methods can a network engineer use to fix a metric based routing loop in the network?
A. A.Implement offset lists at network boundaries
B. B. Filter routes manually using distribute lists
C. C. Filter routes manually using prefix lists
D. D. Implement proper network summarisation on key routing points
E. E. Filter routes based on tags
F. F. Utilise root database filters
Correct Answer: ABE

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QUESTION 1
Which goal of peer-gateway in vPC is true?
A. Use the same bridge ID when sending BPDUs from switches in s vPC pair.
B. Configure the MAC address of the vPC peer as a gateway MAC.
C. Transmit BPDUs from the secondary and primary vPC switch.
D. Act as a single router when peering dynamic routing protocols over a vPC.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which three benefits do VXLANs offer compared to VLANs (Choose three.)
A. It provides a solution to extend Layer 2 segments over a shared Layer 3 routed network.
B. It provides better utilization of available network paths in the underlying infrastructure.
C. VXLAN uses a 16-bit VNIS to overcome the 4094 VLAN scale limitation.
D. VXLAN uses a 24-bit VNID to overcome the 4094 VLAN scale limitation.
E. It provides a solution to extend Layer 2 segments over a single Layer 2 VLAN.
F. It provides better utilization of available network paths in the overlay infrastructure.
Correct Answer: ABD
VXLANOverview As its name indicates, VXLAN is designed to provide the same Ethernet Layer 2 network services as
VLAN does today, but with greater extensibility and flexibility. Compared to VLAN, VXLAN offers the following benefits:
Flexible placement of multitenant segments throughout the data center: It provides a solution to extend Layer 2
segments over the underlying shared network infrastructure so that tenant workload can be placed across physical pods in the data center.
Higher scalability to address more Layer 2 segments: VLANs use a 12-bit VLAN ID to address Layer 2 segments, which
results in limiting the scalability of only 4094 VLANs. VXLAN uses a 24-bit segment ID known as the VXLAN network
identifier
(VNID), which enables up to 16 million VXLAN segments to coexist in the same administrative domain.
Better utilization of available network paths in the underlying infrastructure: VLAN uses the Spanning Tree Protocol for
loop prevention, which ends up not using half of the network links in a network by blocking redundant paths. In contrast,
VXLAN packets are transferred through the underlying network based on its Layer 3 header and can take complete
advantage of Layer 3routing, equal-cost multipath (ECMP) routing, and link aggregation protocols to use all available
paths.
VXLAN Encapsulation and Packet Format VXLAN is a Layer 2 overlay scheme over a Layer 3 network. It uses MAC
Address-in-User Datagram Protocol (MAC-in-UDP) encapsulation to provide a means to extend Layer 2 segments
across
the data center network. VXLAN is a solution to support a flexible, large-scale multitenant environment over a shared
common physical infrastructure. The transport protocol over the physical data center network is IP plus UDP.

QUESTION 3
Which two of the following options are true about OpenStack Cinder? (Choose two.)
A. Attached to multiple instances simultaneously.
B. Data Storage
C. Persistent storage
D. It can only be attached to one instance at a time.
E. Ephemeral storage.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 4
Drag and drop the term of the Cisco Prime Service Catalog from the left column onto the correct definition on the right.
Select and Place:lead4pass 400-151 exam question q4

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 400-151 exam question q4-2

QUESTION 5
Drag and drop the objects of the ACI policy model from the left onto the correct definition on right.
Select and Place:lead4pass 400-151 exam question q5

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 400-151 exam question q5-1

QUESTION 6
Which two guidelines apply to private VLAN configuration when you are running FabricPath? (Choose two.)
A. On the F-Series modules, user-configured static MAC addresses are programmed on all forwarding engines that
have ports in that VLAN.
B. The system does support hierarchical static MAC addresses.
C. FabricPath ports can be put into a private VLAN.
D. All VLANs in a private VLAN must be in the same VLAN mode; either CE or FabricPath.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 7
Which two descriptions of the Cisco 7000 RISE Technology are true? (Choose two.)
A. RISE enables remote inspection of control plane traffic to address security concerns.
B. RISE can provide ADC offload freeing resources in the ADC.
C. RISE enables remote inspection of data plane traffic to address security concerns
D. RISE enables a physical appliance to appear as a service module in the Cisco Nexis 7000 chassis
E. RISE can be utilized to provide management capabilities for non-Cisco routers.
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 8
After you deploy a Layer 4?Layer 7 service graph in Cisco ACI, where do you modify the parameters of the Layer 4
?Layer 7 device(s)?
A. under the Service Graph Template
B. under the Provider EPG > L4-L7 Service Parameters
C. under the Consumer EPG > L4-L7 Service Parameters
D. under the Deployed Graph Instance
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
While doing service insertion with vAsA with route peering, which two parts must be configured? (Choose two.)
A. The chassis must be specified when the L4-L7 device is created.
B. The path for interfaces must be specified when the L4-L7 device is created.
C. The VM name must be specified when the L4-L7 device is created.
D. The route peering profile must be specified when the L4-L7 Service Graph template is created
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 10
Which two statements about CFS are true? (Choose two.)
A. CFS distributes the local NTP configuration to master only which then forwards to all devices in the network.
B. After enabling CFS, a network-wide lock is applied to NTP whenever an NTP configuration is started and released
once after the change has been committed or discarded.
C. If CFS is used to distribute NTP, all devices in the network must have the different VRFs configured then as used for
NTP.
D. You must manually distribute NTP authentication keys on the NTP server and Cisco NX-OS devices across the
network.
E. CFS requires a license to be installed before it can be used to distribute NTP.
Correct Answer: BD
Cisco Fabric Services (CFS) distributes the local NTP configuration to all Cisco devices in the network. After enabling
CFS on your device, a network-wide lock is applied to NTP whenever an NTP configuration is started. After making the
NTP configuration changes, you can discard or commit them. In either case, the CFS lock is then released from the
NTP application.

QUESTION 11
Which two differences between hybrid and multi-cloud networking are true? (Choose two.)
A. Network Transport from hybrid to multiple cloud providers
B. Network Transport from on-premises to multiple public cloud providers
C. Network Transport from on-premises to hybrid cloud providers
D. Network Transport from a private cloud provider to multiple cloud providers
E. Network Transport from on-premises to a single public cloud provider
F. Network Transport from on-premises to multiple public cloud providers and between public cloud providers
Correct Answer: BE
Reference: https://www.openstack.org/assets/presentation-media/shmcfarl-multicloud-net-over-berlin.pdf

QUESTION 12
After VTEP devices have established BGP neighbor adjacencies with other VTEPs or with Internal BGP route reflectors,
which three pieces of information are exchanged through BGP? (Choose three.)
A. VTEP address
B. VTEP peer list
C. VPNv4 prefixes
D. router MAC address
E. Layer 3 VNI
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 13
How do you manually configure a vNIC MAC address?
A. Use this identity dynamic-mac command.
B. Modify the dynamic vNIC connection policy.
C. Use them as-address-table static command.
D. Modify the adapter policy.
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
A network manager wants all remote sites to be designed to communicate dynamically with each other using DMVPN
technology without requiring many configurations on the spoke routers. Which protocol is used by DMVPN to achieve this
goal?
A. GRE
B. NHRP
C. SSH
D. ARP
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 2
Which technology provides a layer 2 loop-free and does not contain a port state named “Blocking”?
A. RPVST+
B. PVST+
C. MST
D. CST
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 3
A company is Multi-Homed to different service providers running BGP. Which action ensures that the company AS does
not become a transit AS?
A. Create a distribute-list that filters all routes except the default route and applies to both BGP neighbor interfaces in
the inbound direction
B. Create a distribute-list that filters all routes except the default route and applies to a single BGP neighbor in the
outbound direction
C. Create a prefix list that matches the company prefixes and applies to both BGP neighbor definitions in the outbound
direction.
D. Create a route map that matches the provider BGP communities and networks and applies to both transit neighbor interfaces in the outbound direction.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 4
What security feature would require a packet to be received on the interface that the interface would use to forward the
return packet?
A. urpf
B. arp inspection
C. VLAN ACL
D. …
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 5
Explain to a customer 2 advantages of the routing summarization(Choose two).
A. small routing table
B. small upstream impact of a flapping interface
C. fast convergence
D. security
E. enhance the view of the architecture
Correct Answer: AB

 

QUESTION 6
What is the primary benefit of deployment MPLS over the WAN as opposed to extending VRF-lite across the WAN?
A. convergence time
B. low operating expense
C. low latency
D. dynamic fault-tolerance
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 7
An OSPF router should participate in a maximum of how many areas?
A. 3
B. 2
C. 1
D. 4
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 8
Which protocols support 10 and 40 Gb interfaces? (Choose two)
A. RIP
B. OSPF
C. EIGRP
D. BGP
Correct Answer: BC

 

QUESTION 9
How does OTV provide STP isolation?
A. By using STP root optimization
B. By using BPDU guard
C. By dropping BPDU packets
D. By using BPDU filtering
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 10
Two companies want to merge their OSPF networks, but they run different OSPF domains. Which option must be taken
to accomplish this requirement?
A. OSPF virtual link to bridge the backbone areas of the two company together
B. Route Summarization
C. Static OSPF
D. Redistribute routes between domains
Correct Answer: A
From my CCIE colleague:
To join two companies probably best to statically route between ASBRs – if the companies are to merge as one then
you would merge area 0 using the virtual link.

 

QUESTION 11
A company is building a large data center. About 80% of its traffic will be north to south and the other 20% will be east to
west. The company is also expecting a significant amount of data center growth over the next 5-10 years but wants to
keep the cost of growth low. Which data center design is best suited to meet these goals?
A. A spine and leaf design with layer 2/3 termination on the leaf nodes
B. Two-Tier design with layer 2 terminations on data center core
C. A spine and leaf design with layer 2/3 termination on the spine nodes
D. A three-tier design with a layer 3 termination on the data center core
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 12
Which two metrics are used by EIGRP by default to calculate its cost? (Choose two)
A. Bandwidth
B. Latency
C. MTU
D. Load
Correct Answer: AB

 

QUESTION 13
Which technology will you use to connect 2x Data Centres and extend Layer 2 VLANs? (Choose two)
A. OTV
B. VXLAN
C. Fabric Path
D. IS-IS
E. EIGRP
Correct Answer: AB

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QUESTION 1
What is the difference between a CSU/DSU and a modem?
A. A CSU/DSU converts analog signals from a router to a leased line; a modem converts analog signals from a router to
a leased line.
B. A CSU/DSU converts analog signals from a router to a phone line; a modem converts digital signals from a router to
a leased line.
C. A CSU/DSU converts digital signals from a router to a phone line; a modem converts analog signals from a router to
a phone line.
D. A CSU/DSU converts digital signals from a router to a leased line; a modem converts digital signals from a router to a
phone line.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 2
Which two of the following statements are true? (Choose two)
A. Because FTP usually requires authentication, a Cisco router must be configured with the appropriate username and
password.
B. FTP uses UDP as its transport protocol.
C. The copy running-config ftp: command is used to copy a configuration file from an FTP server to the running
configuration.
D. A router can act as an FTP server.
E. FTP can be used to load Cisco IOS software to router in ROMMON mode.
Correct Answer: AD


QUESTION 3
Which address facilitates the routing of packets over an IP network?
A. MAC
B. transport
C. network
D. physical
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 4
Which command initiates the transfer of a Cisco IOS image over IP from ROMMON?
A. copy tftp: flash:
B. copy flash: tftp:
C. tftpdnld
D. xmodem
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 5
What are two ways to open a command prompt session on a Windows-based computer? (Choose two)
A. Click Start > Control Panel > Command Prompt
B. Click Start > All Programs > Accessories > Command Prompt
C. Click Start > All Programs > Command Prompt
D. Click Start > Run. Enter cmd and click OK
E. Click Start > All Programs > Accessories > Communications > Command Prompt
Correct Answer: BD


QUESTION 6
Which of the following best describes how to assign a static IP address to the Ethernet port on a computer?
A. From network Connections, click Create a New Connection and follow the network connection Wizard instructions.
B. From Network Connections, double-click Local Area Connection. Click Protocol (TCP/IP). Click the properties, click
the use the Following Address button, and then configure the IP information.
C. Click Start> Run Enter cmd and click OK. Enter ip address XXX.XXX.XXX.XXX.
D. From Network Connections, double-click Local Connection. Click Properties, click iPass Protocol (IEEE), click
properties and select static IP.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 7
Which two of the following are true? (Choose two)
A. Telnet is preferred over SSH for security reasons.
B. SSH is a protocol that provides a secure remote access connection to network devices.
C. When using HyperTerminal to communicate over a TCP/IP network, the SSH protocol is used.
D. A Telnet network management connection is dropped when a router reboots.
E. Telnet is a protocol that provides a secure remote access connection to network devices.
Correct Answer: BD


QUESTION 8
Which two of the following are installed fiber-optic connectors? (Choose two)
A. subscriber
B. crossover
C. multi-dimension
D. Lucent
Correct Answer: AD


QUESTION 9
Which of the following best describes the cable that is used to connect a laptop to the Console port on a Cisco router?
A. crossover
B. straight-through
C. fiber
D. rollover
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 10
While performing password recovery on a Cisco device, the configuration register should be which value in order to
bypass loading the startup configuration?
A. 0x2102
B. 0x2112
C. 0x2122
D. 0x2142
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 11
Which IEEE standard protocol is initiated as a result of successful DTP completion in a switch over Fast Ethernet?
A. 802.3ad
B. 802.1w
C. 802.1D
D. 802.1Q
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 12
Which bits represent the boot field in the configuration register value?
A. highest two bits
B. highest four bits
C. lowest two bits
D. lowest four bits
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 13
When using a modem to provide out-of-band access to a Cisco router, which cable is used to connect the modem to the
router?
A. DB-25 to RJ-45
B. RJ-45 to RJ-45
C. RJ-44 to RJ-45
D. DB-9 to RJ-45
E. DB-45 to RJ-45
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 14
Which three pieces of information about a device can be seen from the show version command? (Choose three)
A. CPU load
B. Device model
C. Installed DRAM
D. Installed flash
E. Locally configured IP addresses
Correct Answer: BCD


QUESTION 15
Which two of the following are component of WAN connection? (Choose two)
A. router
B. switch
C. CSU/DSU
D. Hub
E. Bridge
Correct Answer: AC


QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit.

lead4pass 640-692 exam question - q16

A. RJ-45 straight-through
B. RJ-45
C. RJ-45 rollover
D. RJ-11
E. RJ-45 crossover
Correct Answer: E


QUESTION 17
Refer to the exhibit.

lead4pass 640-692 exam question - q17

Into which port do you insert the card?
A. ATM
B. Gigabit Ethernet
C. Serial
D. Ethernet
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 18
Which statement about unique local IP addresses is true?
A. Summarization is not supported.
B. They require all prefixes to be unique.
C. Their global IDs are assigned sequentially.
D. They are routable to the public Internet.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 19
Which two commands are used to set the configuration register value? (Choose two)
A. Router(config)#config-register 0x2102
B. Router(config)#confreg 0x2102
C. rommon>config-register 0x2102
D. rommon>confreg 0x2102
E. Router(config)#configuration-register 0x2102
Correct Answer: AD


QUESTION 20
What are two ways to open Microsoft Notepad on a Windows-based computer? (Choose two)
A. Start > Run Enter Notepad and \\’Ink OK
B. Start > Control Panel > Notepad
C. Start > All Programs > Notepad
D. Start > All Programs > Accessories > Notepad
E. Start > All Programs > Microsoft Office > Notepad

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