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NetApp NS0-175 free online practice test
QUESTION 1
A customer has configured a FlexPod solution and is experiencing issues with connectivity from the Cisco Nexus switches to the NetApp AFF controllers. The customer must verify connectivity using the FC protocol. What are two ways to troubleshoot this problem? (Choose two.)
A. Use the WWNN B. Use the WWPN C. Use the FCID D. Use Domain ID
QUESTION 2
A customer wants to replace their Cisco UCS 6248UP with the current Cisco UCS 6454. They are currently using six 16 Gbit uplinks per Fabric Interconnect for FC and do not want to change the speed and number of ports used. In this scenario, what is the minimum number of unified ports that must be configured for FC for a comparable configuration?
A customer wants a low latency and high IOPS FlexPod solution and decides on an end-to-end NVMe design. In this scenario, which three components are required to accomplish this task? (Choose three.)
A. NetApp FAS with a 32Gbps FC HBA B. Cisco Application Policy Infrastructure Controller (APIC) C. Cisco MDS Series switches D. NetApp AFF with a 32Gbps FC HBA E. Cisco UCS Virtual Interface Card (VIC) 1400 series
QUESTION 4
A customer wants a FlexPod solution that is designed for high-performance applications and that will support 32 Gbps Fibre Channel block storage. In this scenario, which two components should you recommend to the customer? (Choose two.)
A. NetApp AFF C190 B. NetApp AFF A800 C. Cisco Nexus 93180YC-FX D. Cisco Nexus 9504
QUESTION 5
A customer has a FlexPod configuration that supports FC and uses Cisco MDS switches. The customer wants to add a 48-Port 32 Gbps Advanced Fibre Channel Switching blade to support both 32 Gbps FC and 32 Gbps NVMe-oF. In this scenario, which Cisco switch is appropriate?
A. MDS 9250i B. MDS 9706 C. MDS 9148S D. MDS 9396S
QUESTION 6
You are designing a FlexPod solution with secure multitenancy for a company. Each department in the company wants to use its own storage and to be integrated with Windows Active Directory. In this scenario, which three technologies should be included in the design? (Choose three.)
A. IPspaces B. NVMe C. S3 D. CIFS E. Storage Virtual Machine
QUESTION 7
In which two sources would you verify scale-out maximums for NetApp and Cisco UCS environments? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Configurations Limits B. Cisco UCS Hardware and Software Compatibility List C. NetApp Hardware Universe D. NetApp Interoperability Matrix
QUESTION 8
A partner wants to develop a FlexPod Datacenter solution for a customer that will use Cisco ACI. In contrast to a FlexPod solution with NX-OS, which two additional requirements must be satisfied? (Choose two.)
A. Use two Cisco Application Policy Infrastructure Controllers (APICs) B. Deploy the Cisco Nexus 900 Series Switches in a core-edge topology C. Deploy the Cisco Nexus 900 Series Switches in a leaf-spine topology D. Use three Cisco Application Policy Infrastructure Controllers (APICs)
QUESTION 9
Click the Exhibit button. Exhibit 1.
Referring to the exhibit, UCS Fabric Interconnect 6300-A fails as shown in Figure 1. Due to the storage LIF configuration, after UCS Fabric Interconnect 6300-A is restored, traffic flows as shown in Figure 2. To enable this capability, on which two UCS port types should storage VLANs be accessible? (Choose two.)
A. uplink ports B. appliance ports C. fabric ports D. switch ports
You have a FlexPod solution that consists of a NetApp AFF A800 storage system, a Cisco MDS 9148S switch, and a Cisco UCS 6232 Fabric Interconnect. You want to upgrade NetApp ONTAP software on the AFF A800 to take advantage of a new feature. In this scenario, which three tools would enable you to verify if the upgrade would be performed safely? (Choose three.)
A. NetApp Interoperability Matrix Tool B. Cisco Intersight C. Cisco Data Center Network Manager D. Cisco UCS Hardware and Software Compatibility List E. NetApp Active IQ Upgrade Advisor
QUESTION 11
Which Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnect model has multiple 100 Gbps ports available for use?
A. Cisco UCS 6332 B. Cisco UCS 6324 C. Cisco UCS 6454 D. Cisco UCS 6332-16UP
You are sizing a FlexPod Virtual Desktop solution for a customer with 500 virtual desktops in a shared Remote Desktop Services (RDS) topology. In this scenario, which Cisco best practice should you use?
A. You should avoid placing more than 20 users per physical host B. You should avoid over-committing physical CPU resources for virtual machines C. You should avoid changing the virtual host disk queue depth D. You should avoid multiple vCPUs per individual virtual machine
A customer is deploying a FlexPod Datacenter and planning to boot from SAN each their UCS blades using the Fibre Channel Protocol. In this scenario, which three actions would accomplish their objective? (Choose three.)
A. Use only a pair of Cisco Nexus 9318YC-FX switches B. Create a group on the NetApp ONTAP storage system with the appropriate IQs C. Use only a pair of Cisco Nexus 9336C-FX2 switches D. Use a pair of Cisco MDS 9148T and a fair of Cisco 9336C-FX2 switches together E. Create a group on the NetApp ONTAP storage system with the appropriate WWPNs
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“Implementing an Azure Data Solution” Exam DP-200. Candidates for this exam are Microsoft Azure data engineers who collaborate with business stakeholders to identify and meet the data requirements to implement data solutions that use Azure data services.
Azure data engineers are responsible for data-related tasks that include provisioning data storage services, ingesting streaming and batch data, transforming data, implementing security requirements, implementing data retention policies, identifying performance bottlenecks, and accessing external data sources.
Here you can get the latest free DP-200 exam exercise questions and answers for free and easily improve your skills!
DP-200 exam
Candidates for this exam must be able to implement data solutions that use the following Azure services: Azure Cosmos DB, Azure SQL Database, Azure SQL Data Warehouse, Azure Data Lake Storage, Azure Data Factory, Azure Stream Analytics, Azure Databricks, and Azure Blob storage.
Free Microsoft Azure DP-200 Exam Practice Questions
QUESTION 1
You are creating a managed data warehouse solution on Microsoft Azure.
You must use PolyBase to retrieve data from Azure Blob storage that resides in parquet format and toad the data into a
large table called FactSalesOrderDetails.
You need to configure Azure SQL Data Warehouse to receive the data.
Which four actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to
the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 2 You manage security for a database that supports a line of business application. Private and personal data stored in the database must be protected and encrypted. You need to configure the database to use Transparent Data Encryption (TDE). Which five actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, select the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Step 1: Create a master key Step 2: Create or obtain a certificate protected by the master key Step 3: Set the context to the company database Step 4: Create a database encryption key and protect it by the certificate Step 5: Set the database to use encryption Example code: USE master; GO CREATE MASTER KEY ENCRYPTION BY PASSWORD = \\’\\’; go CREATE CERTIFICATE MyServerCert WITH SUBJECT = \\’My DEK Certificate\\’; go USE AdventureWorks2012; GO CREATE DATABASE ENCRYPTION KEY WITH ALGORITHM = AES_128 ENCRYPTION BY SERVER CERTIFICATE MyServerCert; GO ALTER DATABASE AdventureWorks2012 SET ENCRYPTION ON; GO References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/relational-databases/security/encryption/transparent-data-encryption
QUESTION 3 You implement 3 Azure SQL Data Warehouse instance. You plan to migrate the largest fact table to Azure SQL Data Warehouse The table resides on Microsoft SQL Server on- premises and e 10 terabytes (TB) in size. Incoming queues use the primary key Sale Key column to retrieve data as displayed in the following table:
You need to distribute the fact table across multiple nodes to optimize performance of the table. Which technology should you use? A. hash distributed table with clustered ColumnStore index B. hash distributed table with clustered index C. heap table with distribution replicate D. round robin distributed table with clustered index E. round robin distributed table with clustered ColumnStore index Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4 A company builds an application to allow developers to share and compare code. The conversations, code snippets, and links shared by people in the application are stored in a Microsoft Azure SQL Database instance. The application allows for searches of historical conversations and code snippets. When users share code snippets, the code snippet is compared against previously share code snippets by using a combination of Transact-SQL functions including SUBSTRING, FIRST_VALUE, and SQRT. If a match is found, a link to the match is added to the conversation. Customers report the following issues: Delays occur during live conversations A delay occurs before matching links appear after code snippets are added to conversations You need to resolve the performance issues. Which technologies should you use? To answer, drag the appropriate technologies to the correct issues. Each technology may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Box 1: memory-optimized table In-Memory OLTP can provide great performance benefits for transaction processing, data ingestion, and transient data scenarios. Box 2: materialized view To support efficient querying, a common solution is to generate, in advance, a view that materializes the data in a format suited to the required results set. The Materialized View pattern describes generating prepopulated views of data in environments where the source data isn\\’t in a suitable format for querying, where generating a suitable query is difficult, or where query performance is poor due to the nature of the data or the data store. These materialized views, which only contain data required by a query, allow applications to quickly obtain the information they need. In addition to joining tables or combining data entities, materialized views can include the current values of calculated columns or data items, the results of combining values or executing transformations on the data items, and values specified as part of the query. A materialized view can even be optimized for just a single query. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/architecture/patterns/materialized-view
QUESTION 5 You need to ensure phone-based polling data upload reliability requirements are met. How should you configure monitoring? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
Explanation/Reference: Box 1: FileCapacity FileCapacity is the amount of storage used by the storage account
QUESTION 6 You need to ensure that phone-based polling data can be analyzed in the PollingData database. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer are and arrange them in the correct order. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Explanation/Reference: All deployments must be performed by using Azure DevOps. Deployments must use templates used in multiple environments No credentials or secrets should be used during deployments
QUESTION 7 Note: This question is part of series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contain a unique solution. Determine whether the solution meets the stated goals. You develop data engineering solutions for a company. A project requires the deployment of resources to Microsoft Azure for batch data processing on Azure HDInsight. Batch processing will run daily and must: Scale to minimize costs Be monitored for cluster performance You need to recommend a tool that will monitor clusters and provide information to suggest how to scale. Solution: Monitor clusters by using Azure Log Analytics and HDInsight cluster management solutions. Does the solution meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: A HDInsight provides cluster-specific management solutions that you can add for Azure Monitor logs. Management solutions add functionality to Azure Monitor logs, providing additional data and analysis tools. These solutions collect important performance metrics from your HDInsight clusters and provide the tools to search the metrics. These solutions also provide visualizations and dashboards for most cluster types supported in HDInsight. By using the metrics that you collect with the solution, you can create custom monitoring rules and alerts. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/hdinsight/hdinsight-hadoop-oms-log-analytics-tutorial
QUESTION 8 A company is deploying a service-based data environment. You are developing a solution to process this data. The solution must meet the following requirements: Use an Azure HDInsight cluster for data ingestion from a relational database in a different cloud service Use an Azure Data Lake Storage account to store processed data Allow users to download processed data You need to recommend technologies for the solution. Which technologies should you use? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
Box 1: Apache Sqoop Apache Sqoop is a tool designed for efficiently transferring bulk data between Apache Hadoop and structured datastores such as relational databases. Azure HDInsight is a cloud distribution of the Hadoop components from the Hortonworks Data Platform (HDP). Incorrect Answers: DistCp (distributed copy) is a tool used for large inter/intra-cluster copying. It uses MapReduce to effect its distribution, error handling and recovery, and reporting. It expands a list of files and directories into input to map tasks, each of which will copy a partition of the files specified in the source list. Its MapReduce pedigree has endowed it with some quirks in both its semantics and execution. RevoScaleR is a collection of proprietary functions in Machine Learning Server used for practicing data science at scale. For data scientists, RevoScaleR gives you data-related functions for import, transformation and manipulation, summarization, visualization, and analysis. Box 2: Apache Kafka Apache Kafka is a distributed streaming platform. A streaming platform has three key capabilities: Publish and subscribe to streams of records, similar to a message queue or enterprise messaging system. Store streams of records in a fault-tolerant durable way. Process streams of records as they occur. Kafka is generally used for two broad classes of applications: Building real-time streaming data pipelines that reliably get data between systems or applications Building real-time streaming applications that transform or react to the streams of data Box 3: Ambari Hive View You can run Hive queries by using Apache Ambari Hive View. The Hive View allows you to author, optimize, and run Hive queries from your web browser. References: https://sqoop.apache.org/ https://kafka.apache.org/intro https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/hdinsight/hadoop/apache-hadoop-use-hive-ambari-view
QUESTION 9 You implement an event processing solution using Microsoft Azure Stream Analytics. The solution must meet the following requirements: -Ingest data from Blob storage -Analyze data in real time -Store processed data in Azure Cosmos DB Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 10 You manage a financial computation data analysis process. Microsoft Azure virtual machines (VMs) run the process in daily jobs, and store the results in virtual hard drives (VHDs.) The VMs product results using data from the previous day and store the results in a snapshot of the VHD. When a new month begins, a process creates a new VHD. You must implement the following data retention requirements: Daily results must be kept for 90 days Data for the current year must be available for weekly reports Data from the previous 10 years must be stored for auditing purposes Data required for an audit must be produced within 10 days of a request. You need to enforce the data retention requirements while minimizing cost. How should you configure the lifecycle policy? To answer, drag the appropriate JSON segments to the correct locations. Each JSON segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bat between panes or scroll to view content. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
The Set-AzStorageAccountManagementPolicy cmdlet creates or modifies the management policy of an Azure Storage account. Example: Create or update the management policy of a Storage account with ManagementPolicy rule objects.
QUESTION 11 A company plans to use Platform-as-a-Service (PaaS) to create the new data pipeline process. The process must meet the following requirements. Ingest: – Access multiple data sources – Provide the ability to orchestrate workflow – Provide the capability to run SQL Server Integration Services packages. Store: – Optimize storage for big data workloads. – Provide encryption of data at rest. – Operate with no size limits. Prepare and Train: – Provide a fully-managed and interactive workspace for exploration and visualization. – Provide the ability to program in R, SQL, Python, Scala, and Java. – Provide seamless user authentication with Azure Active Directory. Model and Serve: – Implement native columnar storage. – Support for the SQL language – Provide support for structured streaming. You need to build the data integration pipeline. Which technologies should you use? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 12 You are developing a solution using a Lambda architecture on Microsoft Azure. The data at test layer must meet the following requirements: Data storage: -Serve as a repository (or high volumes of large files in various formats. -Implement optimized storage for big data analytics workloads. -Ensure that data can be organized using a hierarchical structure. Batch processing: -Use a managed solution for in-memory computation processing. -Natively support Scala, Python, and R programming languages. -Provide the ability to resize and terminate the cluster automatically. Analytical data store: -Support parallel processing. -Use columnar storage. -Support SQL-based languages. You need to identify the correct technologies to build the Lambda architecture. Which technologies should you use? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 13 A company has a SaaS solution that uses Azure SQL Database with elastic pools. The solution contains a dedicated database for each customer organization. Customer organizations have peak usage at different periods during the year. You need to implement the Azure SQL Database elastic pool to minimize cost. Which option or options should you configure? A. Number of transactions only B. eDTUs per database only C. Number of databases only D. CPU usage only E. eDTUs and max data size Correct Answer: E The best size for a pool depends on the aggregate resources needed for all databases in the pool. This involves determining the following: Maximum resources utilized by all databases in the pool (either maximum DTUs or maximum vCores depending on your choice of resourcing model). Maximum storage bytes utilized by all databases in the pool. Note: Elastic pools enable the developer to purchase resources for a pool shared by multiple databases to accommodate unpredictable periods of usage by individual databases. You can configure resources for the pool based either on the DTU-based purchasing model or the vCore-based purchasing model. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/sql-database/sql-database-elastic-pool
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QUESTION 1 Which two licenses are required for the Expressway B2B feature to work? (Choose two) A. Traversal Server B. Advanced Networking C. Device Provisioning D. Rich Media Sessions E. TURN Relays Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 2 Which two statements about Mobile and Remote Access certificate are true? (Choose two.) A. Expressway Core can use private CA signed certificate. B. You must upload the root certificates in the phone trust store. C. Expressway must generate certificate signing request. D. Expressway Edge must use public CA signed certificate. E. The Jabber client can work with public or private CA signed certificate. Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 4 Which configuration is required when implementing Mobile and Remote Access on Cisco Expressway? A. IPS B. SAML authentication C. Cisco Unified CM publisher address D. SSO Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit. Which two numbers match the regular expression? (Choose two.) A. d20d16d20d22 B. 2091652010224 C. 209165200225 D. d209d165d200d224 E. 209165200224 Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 6 When an Expressway-E is configured for static NAT, which Session Description Protocol attribute is modified to reflect the NAT address? A. SDP b-line B. SIP record route C. SDP c-line D. SDP m-line Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7 Which role does Call Policy play when preventing toll fraud on Expressways? A. It controls which calls are allowed, which calls are rejected, and which calls are redirected to a different destination. B. It changes the calling and called number on a call. C. It changes the audio protocol used by a call through Expressways. D. It changes the audio codec used in a call through Expressways. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8 When designing the call control on a Cisco Expressway Core, which is the sequence of dial plan functions? A. transforms, CPL, user policy, search rules B. search rules, zones, local zones C. DNS zone, local zone, search rules D. search rules, transforms Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9 Which step is taken when configuring a Cisco Expressway solution? A. Configure the Expressway-E by using a non-traversal server zone. B. Enable static NAT on the Expressway-E only. C. Disable H.323 mode on the Expressway-E. D. Enable H.323 H.460.19 demultiplexing mode on the Expressway-C. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10 What is a key configuration requirement for Hybrid Message Service High Availability deployment with multiple IM and Presence clusters? A. You must have the Intercluster Sync Agent working across your IM and Presence clusters. B. You must have the Intercluster Lookup Service working across all of your IM and Presence clusters. C. Your IM and Presence Service clusters must have Multiple Device Messaging disabled. D. AXL service should be activated only on the publisher of each IM and Presence cluster. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11 How does an administrator configure an Expressway to make sure an external caller cannot reach a specific internal address? A. add the specific URI in the firewall section of the Expressway and block it B. block the call with a call policy rule in the Expressway-E C. add a search rule route all calls to the Cisco UCM D. configure FAC for the destination alias on the Expressway Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12 Cisco Collaboration endpoints are exchanging encrypted signaling messages. What is one major complication in implementing NAT ALG for voice and video devices? A. Internal endpoints cannot use addresses from the private address space. B. The NAT ALG cannot inspect the contents of encrypted signaling messages. C. NAT ALG introduces jitter in the voice path. D. Source addresses cannot provide the destination addresses that remote endpoints should use for return packets. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13 What is the purpose of a transform in the Expressway server? A. A transform has the function as a neighbor zone in the Expressway. It creates a connection with another server. B. A transform changes the audio codec when the call goes through the Expressway. C. A transform is used to route calls to a destination. D. A transform changes an alias that matches certain criteria into another alias. Correct Answer: D
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QUESTION 1 You need to develop a SharePoint Framework (SPFx) solution that interacts with Microsoft SharePoint and Teams. The solution must share the same code base. What should you include in the solution? A. Include the Microsoft Authentication Library for .NET (MSALNET) in the solution. B. Grant admin consent to the Teams API. C. Make the code aware of the Teams context and the SharePoint context. D. Publish the solution to an Azure App Service. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 You are developing a single-page application (SPA). You plan to access user data from Microsoft Graph by using an AJAX call. You need to obtain an access token by the Microsoft Authentication Library (MSAL). The solution must minimize authentication prompts. How should you complete the code segment? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
.Correct Answer:
Box 1: loginPopup Box 2: acquireTokenSilent The pattern for acquiring tokens for APIs with MSAL.js is to first attempt a silent token request by using the acquireTokenSilent method. When this method is called, the library first checks the cache in browser storage to see if a valid token exists and returns it. When no valid token is in the cache, it sends a silent token request to Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) from a hidden iframe. This method also allows the library to renew tokens. Box 3: acquireTokenPopup //AcquireToken Failure, send an interactive request. Example: userAgentApplication.loginPopup(applicationConfig.graphScopes).then(function (idToken) { //Login Success userAgentApplication.acquireTokenSilent(applicationConfig.graphScopes).then(function (accessToken) { //AcquireToken Success updateUI(); }, function (error) { //AcquireToken Failure, send an interactive request. userAgentApplication.acquireTokenPopup(applicationConfig.graphScopes).then(function (accessToken) { updateUI(); }, function (error) { console.log(error); }); }) }, function (error) { console.log(error); }); Reference: https://github.com/AzureAD/microsoft-authentication-library-for-js/issues/339
QUESTION 3 This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct. You can use a Command Set extension to develop a breadcrumb element that will appear on every Microsoft SharePoint page. Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct. A. No change is needed B. an Application Customizer C. a Field Customizer D. a web part Correct Answer: B Application Customizers provide access to well-known locations on SharePoint pages that you can modify based on your business and functional requirements. For example, you can create dynamic header and footer experiences that render across all the pages in SharePoint Online. Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sharepoint/dev/spfx/extensions/get-started/using-page-placeholder-withextensions
QUESTION 4 DRAG DROP You are developing an application that will upload files that are larger than 50 MB to Microsoft OneDrive. You need to recommend an upload solution to ensure that the file upload process can resume if a network error occurs during the upload. Which four actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order. Select and Place:
QUESTION 5 You have an application that has the code shown in the exhibits. (Click the JavaScript Version tab or the C# Version tab.) For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. JavaScript Version
C# Version
Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
Box 1: No Box 2: No Box 3: Yes A file is downloaded from OneDrive and saved locally. Drive/Root is the drive resource is the top level object representing a user\\’s OneDrive or a document library in SharePoint. Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/graph/api/resources/drive
QUESTION 6 DRAG DROP You are developing a sever-based application that has the following requirements: Prompt the user to fill out a form that contains a keyword. Search the Microsoft OneDrive folder for files that contain the keyword and return the results to the user. Allow the user to select one of the files from the results. Copy the selected file to an Azure Blob storage container. Which four actions should the application perform in sequence? To answer, move the actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order. Select and Place:
QUESTION 7 You have a SharePoint Framework (SPFx) 1.5 solution. You need to ensure that the solution can be used as a tab in Microsoft Teams. What should you do first? A. Convert the solution to use the Bot Framework B. Deploy the solution to a developer site collection C. Deploy the solution to the Microsoft AppSource store D. Upgrade the solution to the latest version of SPFx Correct Answer: D Starting with the SharePoint Framework v1.8, you can implement your Microsoft Teams tabs using SharePoint Framework. Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sharepoint/dev/spfx/web-parts/get-started/using-web-part-asms-teams-tab
QUESTION 8 You have a custom Microsoft Word add-in that was written by using Microsoft Visual Studio Code. A user reports that there is an issue with the add-in. You need to debug the add-in for Word Online. What should you do before you begin debugging in Visual Studio Code? A. Disable script debugging in your web browser B. Sideload the add-in C. Publish the manifest to the Microsoft SharePoint app catalog D. Add the manifest path to the trusted catalogs Correct Answer: C Debug your add-in from Excel or Word on the web To debug your add-in by using Office on the web (see step 3): 9. Deploy your add-in to a server that supports SSL. 10.In your add-in manifest file, update the SourceLocation element value to include an absolute, rather than a relative, URI. 11.Upload the manifest to the Office Add-ins library in the app catalog on SharePoint. 12.Launch Excel or Word on the web from the app launcher in Office 365, and open a new document. 13.On the Insert tab, choose My Add-ins or Office Add-ins to insert your add-in and test it in the app. 14.Use your favorite browser tool debugger to debug your add-in. Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office/dev/add-ins/testing/debug-add-ins-in-office-online
QUESTION 9 You are developing a Microsoft Office Add-in for Microsoft Word. Which Office Ul element can contain commands from the add-in? A. dialog boxes B. the Quick Access Toolbar (QAT) C. context menus D. task panes Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10 You need to develop a server-based web app that will be registered with the Microsoft identity platform. The solution must ensure that the app can perform operations on behalf of the user. Which type of authorization flow should you use? A. authorization code B. refresh token C. resource owner password D. device code Correct Answer: A In web server apps, the sign-in authentication flow takes these high-level steps: You can ensure the user\\’s identity by validating the ID token with a public signing key that is received from the Microsoft identity platform endpoint. A session cookie is set, which can be used to identify the user on subsequent page requests.
In addition to simple sign-in, a web server app might need to access another web service, such as a REST API. In this case, the web server app engages in a combined OpenID Connect and OAuth 2.0 flow, by using the OAuth 2.0 authorization code flow. Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/develop/v2-app-types
QUESTION 11 You company has a third-party invoicing web app. You need to display the app within Microsoft Teams for one user only. The app will not require conversational interactions. How should you display the app by using the minimum amount of effort? A. Instruct the user to add a website tab B. Instruct the user to add an App Studio app C. Create a SharePoint Framework (SPFx) web part D. Create a search-based messaging extension Correct Answer: A There are currently three methods of app integration in Teams: Connectors, Bots, and Tabs. Tabs offer more extensive integration by allowing you to view entire third-party services within Microsoft Teams. Reference: https://www.sherweb.com/blog/office-365/o365-microsoft-teams-apps/
QUESTION 12 You need to retrieve a list of the last 10 files that the current user opened from Microsoft OneDrive. The response must contain only the file ID and the file name. Which URI should you use to retrieve the results? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
QUESTION 13 You are developing a Microsoft Teams application. Which Teams feature provides you with the ability to invoke a model popup by using the minimum amount of custom code? A. An adaptive card B. A bot C. A connector D. A task module Correct Answer: B
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QUESTION 2 Which function of the Cisco IM and Presence high availability solution is true? A. When the server has been restored to a normal state, user sessions remain on the backup server. B. When an event takes place, the end user sessions are not moved from the failed server to the backup. C. When the server has been restored, the server automatically fails back. D. When a high availability event takes place, the end user sessions are moved from the failed server to the backup. Correct Answer: D Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/unified-communications/unified-communications-manager-im-presenceservice/200958-IM-and-Presence-Server-High-Availability.html
QUESTION 4 Which component of SAML SSO defines the transport mechanism that is used to deliver the SAML messages between entities? A. profiles B. metadata C. assertions D. bindings Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5 Which SAML 2.0 profile is supported by Cisco UCM, Cisco Unified IM and Presence, and Unity Connection version 10.x and above? A. single logout B. web browser SSO C. name identifier management D. identity provider discovery Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.
Users report that they cannot see the Chat Rooms icon on their Cisco Jabber clients. This feature works without issue in the lab. An engineer reviews the Cisco IMandP and Jabber configuration and finds that the jabber-config.xml file is configured properly to support this feature. Which activity should be performed on the IMandP server to resolve this issue? A. Activate Cisco XCP Connection Manager in Cisco Unified Serviceability > Tools > Service Activation. B. Restart Cisco XCP Message Archiver in Cisco Unified Serviceability > Tools > Control Center – Feature Services. C. Restart XCP Text Conference Manager in Cisco Unified Serviceability > Tools > Control Center – Network Services. D. Activate XCP Text Conference Manager in Cisco Unified Serviceability > Tools > Service Activation. Correct Answer: D Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/unified-communications/jabber-windows/118684-probsol-chat-00.html
Users connected to the internal network report a “Cannot communicate with the server” error while trying to log in to Cisco Jabber using auto service discovery. The Jabber diagnostics and the SRV record configuration are as shown in the exhibit. The host cucm1.ccnp.cisco.com is correctly resolved by the user desktops with the Cisco Unified Communications Manager IP address. Why is the user not able to log in? A. SRV protocol is not set up correctly. It should be _tls instead of _tcp. B. Marking weight as 0 on the SRV record makes it inactive, so Jabber cannot discover the Cisco Unified CM. C. The port specified on the SRV record is wrong. D. The domain ccnp.cisco.com does not exist on the DNS server. Correct Answer: C Reference: https://community.cisco.com/t5/collaboration-voice-and-video/jabber-client-login-and-login-issues/ta-p/3143446
Which statement is true? A. If the IMandP node in sub-cluster-1 goes down, then users assigned to it are randomly split between the two remaining subclusters. B. The administrator must add one node to each subcluster for high availability. C. IMandP nodes in each subscluster must be configured from the same OVA template. D. Each Cisco IMandP subcluster must have the same number of nodes. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11 An engineer is configuring DNS for service discovery in a Jabber deployment for on-premises clients. Which snippet will complete the SRV record name _tcp.example.com? A. _cisco_uds B. _collab_edge C. _xmpp.server D. _xmpp-client Correct Answer: A Reference: https://www.ciscolive.com/c/dam/r/ciscolive/us/docs/2016/pdf/BRKCOL-2344.pdf
QUESTION 12 Which SAML component specifies the mapping of SAML assertion protocol message exchanges with standard messaging formats or communication protocols such as SOAP exchanges? A. SAML binding B. SAML assertion C. SAML profiles D. SAML protocol Correct Answer: A Reference: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Security_Assertion_Markup_Language
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QUESTION 1 HOTSPOT Which Azure Data Factory components should you recommend using together to import the daily inventory data from the SQL server to Azure Data Lake Storage? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
Explanation: Box 1: Self-hosted integration runtime A self-hosted IR is capable of running copy activity between a cloud data store and a data store in a private network. Box 2: Schedule trigger Schedule every 8 hours Box 3: Copy activity Scenario: Customer data, including name, contact information, and loyalty number, comes from Salesforce and can be imported into Azure once every eight hours. Row modified dates are not trusted in the source table. Product data, including product ID, name, and category, comes from Salesforce and can be imported into Azure once every eight hours. Row modified dates are not trusted in the source table.
QUESTION 2 HOTSPOT You use Azure Data Factory to prepare data to be queried by Azure Synapse Analytics serverless SQL pools. Files are initially ingested into an Azure Data Lake Storage Gen2 account as 10 small JSON files. Each file contains the same data attributes and data from a subsidiary of your company. You need to move the files to a different folder and transform the data to meet the following requirements: Provide the fastest possible query times. Automatically infer the schema from the underlying files. How should you configure the Data Factory copy activity? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
QUESTION 3 HOTSPOT You need to design the partitions for the product sales transactions. The solution must meet the sales transaction dataset requirements. What should you include in the solution? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
Box 1: Sales date Scenario: Contoso requirements for data integration include: Partition data that contains sales transaction records. Partitions must be designed to provide efficient loads by month. Boundary values must belong to the partition on the right. Box 2: An Azure Synapse Analytics Dedicated SQL pool Scenario: Contoso requirements for data integration include: Ensure that data storage costs and performance are predictable. The size of a dedicated SQL pool (formerly SQL DW) is determined by Data Warehousing Units (DWU). Dedicated SQL pool (formerly SQL DW) stores data in relational tables with columnar storage. This format significantly reduces data storage costs and improves query performance. Synapse analytics dedicated SQL pool Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/synapse-analytics/sql-data-warehouse/sql-data-warehouse-overview-what-is
QUESTION 4 You plan to create an Azure Databricks workspace that has a tiered structure. The workspace will contain the following three workloads: A workload for data engineers who will use Python and SQL. A workload for jobs that will run notebooks that use Python, Scala, and SOL. A workload that data scientists will use to perform ad hoc analysis in Scala and R. The enterprise architecture team at your company identifies the following standards for Databricks environments: The data engineers must share a cluster. The job cluster will be managed by using a request process whereby data scientists and data engineers provide packaged notebooks for deployment to the cluster. All the data scientists must be assigned their own cluster that terminates automatically after 120 minutes of inactivity. Currently, there are three data scientists. You need to create the Databricks clusters for the workloads. Solution: You create a High Concurrency cluster for each data scientist, a High Concurrency cluster for the data engineers, and a Standard cluster for the jobs. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B Need a High Concurrency cluster for the jobs. Standard clusters are recommended for a single user. Standard can run workloads developed in any language: Python, R, Scala, and SQL. A high concurrency cluster is a managed cloud resource. The key benefits of high concurrency clusters are that they provide Apache Spark-native fine-grained sharing for maximum resource utilization and minimum query latencies. Reference: https://docs.azuredatabricks.net/clusters/configure.html
QUESTION 5 You have an Azure Synapse Analytics dedicated SQL pool that contains a large fact table. The table contains 50 columns and 5 billion rows and is a heap. Most queries against the table aggregate values from approximately 100 million rows and return only two columns. You discover that the queries against the fact table are very slow. Which type of index should you add to provide the fastest query times? A. nonclustered column store B. clustered column store C. nonclustered D. clustered Correct Answer: B Clustered columnstore indexes are one of the most efficient ways you can store your data in a dedicated SQL pool. Columnstore tables won\\’t benefit a query unless the table has more than 60 million rows. Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/synapse-analytics/sql/best-practices-dedicated-sql-pool
QUESTION 6 You have a table in an Azure Synapse Analytics dedicated SQL pool. The table was created by using the following Transact-SQL statement.
You need to alter the table to meet the following requirements: Ensure that users can identify the current manager of employees. Support creating an employee reporting hierarchy for your entire company. Provide fast lookup of the managers\\’ attributes such as name and job title. Which column should you add to the table? A. [ManagerEmployeeID] [int] NULL B. [ManagerEmployeeID] [smallint] NULL C. [ManagerEmployeeKey] [int] NULL D. [ManagerName] [varchar](200) NULL Correct Answer: A Use the same definition as the EmployeeID column. Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/analysis-services/tabular-models/hierarchies-ssas-tabular
QUESTION 7 HOTSPOT You build an Azure Data Factory pipeline to move data from an Azure Data Lake Storage Gen2 container to a database in an Azure Synapse Analytics dedicated SQL pool. Data in the container is stored in the following folder structure. /in/{YYYY}/{MM}/{DD}/{HH}/{mm} The earliest folder is /in/2021/01/01/00/00. The latest folder is /in/2021/01/15/01/45. You need to configure a pipeline trigger to meet the following requirements: Existing data must be loaded. Data must be loaded every 30 minutes. Late-arriving data of up to two minutes must be included in the load for the time at which the data should have arrived. How should you configure the pipeline trigger? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Box 1: Tumbling window To be able to use the Delay parameter we select the Tumbling window. Box 2: Recurrence: 30 minutes, not 32 minutes Delay: 2 minutes. The amount of time to delay the start of data processing for the window. The pipeline run is started after the expected execution time plus the amount of delay. The delay defines how long the trigger waits past the due time before triggering a new run. The delay doesn\\’t alter the window start time. Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/data-factory/how-to-create-tumbling-window-trigger
QUESTION 8 You have an Azure Synapse Analytics dedicated SQL pool. You need to ensure that data in the pool is encrypted at rest. The solution must NOT require modifying applications that query the data. What should you do? A. Enable encryption at rest for the Azure Data Lake Storage Gen2 account. B. Enable Transparent Data Encryption (TDE) for the pool. C. Use a customer-managed key to enable double encryption for the Azure Synapse workspace. D. Create an Azure key vault in the Azure subscription to grant access to the pool. Correct Answer: B Transparent Data Encryption (TDE) helps protect against the threat of malicious activity by encrypting and decrypting your data at rest. When you encrypt your database, associated backups and transaction log files are encrypted without requiring any changes to your applications. TDE encrypts the storage of an entire database by using a symmetric key called the database encryption key. Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/synapse-analytics/sql-data-warehouse/sql-data-warehouse-overviewmanage-security
QUESTION 9 You need to implement the surrogate key for the retail store table. The solution must meet the sales transaction dataset requirements. What should you create? A. a table that has an IDENTITY property B. a system-versioned temporal table C. a user-defined SEQUENCE object D. a table that has a FOREIGN KEY constraint Correct Answer: A Scenario: Implement a surrogate key to account for changes to the retail store addresses. A surrogate key on a table is a column with a unique identifier for each row. The key is not generated from the table data. Data modelers like to create surrogate keys on their tables when they design data warehouse models. You can use the IDENTITY property to achieve this goal simply and effectively without affecting load performance. Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/synapse-analytics/sql-data-warehouse/sql-data-warehouse-tablesidentity
QUESTION 10 HOTSPOT You are creating dimensions for a data warehouse in an Azure Synapse Analytics dedicated SQL pool. You create a table by using the Transact-SQL statement shown in the following exhibit.
Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information presented in the graphic. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
Box 1: Type 2 A Type 2 SCD supports versioning of dimension members. Often the source system doesn\\’t store versions, so the data warehouse load process detects and manages changes in a dimension table. In this case, the dimension table must use a surrogate key to provide a unique reference to a version of the dimension member. It also includes columns that define the date range validity of the version (for example, StartDate and EndDate) and possibly a flag column (for example, current) to easily filter by current dimension members. Incorrect Answers: A Type 1 SCD always reflects the latest values, and when changes in source data are detected, the dimension table data is overwritten. Box 2: a business key A business key or natural key is an index that identifies the uniqueness of a row based on columns that exist naturally in a table according to business rules. For example, business keys are customer code in a customer table, composite of sales order header number and sales order item line number within a sales order details table. Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/learn/modules/populate-slowly-changing-dimensions-azure-synapse-analyticspipelines/3-choose-between-dimension-types
QUESTION 11 You have an Azure Databricks workspace named workspace1 in the Standard pricing tier. You need to configure workspace1 to support autoscaling all-purpose clusters. The solution must meet the following requirements: Automatically scale down workers when the cluster is underutilized for three minutes. Minimize the time it takes to scale to the maximum number of workers. Minimize costs. What should you do first? A. Enable container services for workspace1. B. Upgrade workspace1 to the Premium pricing tier. C. Set Cluster-Mode to High Concurrency. D. Create a cluster policy in workspace1. Correct Answer: B For clusters running Databricks Runtime 6.4 and above, optimized autoscaling is used by all-purpose clusters in the Premium plan Optimized autoscaling: Scales up from min to max in 2 steps. Can scale down even if the cluster is not idle by looking at shuffle file state. Scales down based on a percentage of current nodes. On job clusters, scales down if the cluster is underutilized over the last 40 seconds. On all-purpose clusters, scales down if the cluster is underutilized over the last 150 seconds. The spark. data bricks.aggressiveWindowDownS Spark configuration property specifies in seconds how often a cluster makes down-scaling decisions. Increasing the value causes a cluster to scale down more slowly. The maximum value is 600. Note: Standard autoscaling Starts with adding 8 nodes. Thereafter, scales up exponentially, but can take many steps to reach the max. You can customize the first step by setting the spark. data bricks. autoscaling.standardFirstStepUp Spark configuration property. Scales down only when the cluster is completely idle and it has been underutilized for the last 10 minutes. Scales down exponentially, starting with 1 node. Reference: https://docs.databricks.com/clusters/configure.html
QUESTION 12 You are creating an Azure Data Factory data flow that will ingest data from a CSV file, cast columns to specified types of data, and insert the data into a table in an Azure Synapse Analytic dedicated SQL pool. The CSV file contains three columns named username, comment, and date. The data flow already contains the following: A source transformation. A Derived Column transformation to set the appropriate types of data. A sink transformation to land the data in the pool. You need to ensure that the data flow meets the following requirements: All valid rows must be written to the destination table. Truncation errors in the comment column must be avoided proactively. Any rows containing comment values that will cause truncation errors upon insert must be written to a file in blob storage. Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. To the data flow, add a sink transformation to write the rows to a file in blob storage. B. To the data flow, add a Conditional Split transformation to separate the rows that will cause truncation errors. C. To the data flow, add a filter transformation to filter out rows that will cause truncation errors. D. Add a select transformation to select only the rows that will cause truncation errors. Correct Answer: AB B: Example: 1. This conditional split transformation defines the maximum length of “title” to be five. Any row that is less than or equal to five will go into the GoodRows stream. Any row that is larger than five will go into the BadRows stream. 2. This conditional split transformation defines the maximum length of “title” to be five. Any row that is less than or equal to five will go into the GoodRows stream. Any row that is larger than five will go into the BadRows stream.
A: 3. Now we need to log the rows that failed. Add a sink transformation to the BadRows stream for logging. Here, we\\’ll “auto-map” all of the fields so that we have logging of the complete transaction record. This is a text-delimited CSV file output to a single file in Blob Storage. We\\’ll call the log file “badrows.csv”. 4. The completed data flow is shown below. We are now able to split off error rows to avoid the SQL truncation errors and put those entries into a log file. Meanwhile, successful rows can continue to write to our target database.
QUESTION 13 HOTSPOT You are building an Azure Stream Analytics job to identify how much time a user spends interacting with a feature on a webpage. The job receives events based on user actions on the webpage. Each row of data represents an event. Each event has a type of either \\’start\\’ or \\’end\\’. You need to calculate the duration between start and end events. How should you complete the query? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
Box 1: DATEDIFF DATEDIFF function returns the count (as a signed integer value) of the specified datepart boundaries crossed between the specified startdate and enddate. Syntax: DATEDIFF ( datepart , startdate, enddate ) Box 2: LAST The LAST function can be used to retrieve the last event within a specific condition. In this example, a condition is an event of type Start, partitioning the search by PARTITION BY user and feature. This way, every user and feature is treated independently when searching for the Start event. LIMIT DURATION limits the search back in time to 1 hour between the End and Start events. Example: SELECT [user], feature, DATEDIFF( second, LAST(Time) OVER (PARTITION BY [user], feature LIMIT DURATION(hour, 1) WHEN Event = \\’start\\’), Time) as duration FROM input TIMESTAMP BY Time WHERE Event = \\’end\\’ Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/stream-analytics/stream-analytics-stream-analytics-query-patterns
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QUESTION 1 You have a Windows Virtual Desktop host pool that runs Windows 10 Enterprise multi-session. You need to configure automatic scaling of the host pool to meet the following requirements: 1. Distribute new user sessions across all running session hosts. 2. Automatically start a new session host when concurrent user sessions exceed 30 users per host. What should you include in the solution? A. an Azure Automation account and the depth-first load balancing algorithm B. an Azure Automation account and the breadth-first load balancing algorithm C. an Azure load balancer and the breadth-first load balancing algorithm D. an Azure load balancer and the depth-first load balancing algorithm Correct Answer: A Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-desktop/host-pool-load-balancing https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-desktop/configure-host-pool-load-balancing
QUESTION 2 HOTSPOT You have a Windows Virtual Desktop deployment. You need to ensure that all the connections to the managed resources in the host pool require multi-factor authentication (MFA). Which two settings should you modify in a conditional access policy? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
QUESTION 3 HOTSPOT You have an Azure virtual machine named VM1 that runs Windows 10 Enterprise multi-session. You plan to add language packs to VM1 and create a custom image of VM1 for a Windows Virtual Desktop host pool. You need to ensure that modern apps can use the additional language packs when you deploy session hosts by using the custom image. Which command should you run first? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
QUESTION 4 You have a Windows Virtual Desktop host pool that contains 20 Windows 10 Enterprise multi-session hosts. Users connect to the Windows Virtual Desktop deployment from computers that run Windows 10. You plan to implement FSLogix Application Masking. You need to deploy Application Masking rule sets. The solution must minimize administrative effort. To where should you copy the rule sets? A. the FSLogix profile container of each user B. C:\Program Files\FSLogix\Apps\Rules on every Windows 10 computer C. C:\Program Files\FSLogix\Apps\Rules on every session host Correct Answer: C Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-desktop/fslogix-office-app-rule-editor
QUESTION 5 You plan to deploy Windows Virtual Desktop to meet the department requirements shown in the following table.
You plan to use Windows Virtual Desktop host pools with load balancing and autoscaling. You need to recommend a host pool design that meets the requirements. The solution must minimize costs. What is the minimum number of host pools you should recommend? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 Correct Answer: C Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-desktop/create-host-pools-azure-marketplace
QUESTION 6 DRAG-DROP You have a Windows Virtual Desktop host pool named Pool1. Pool1 contains session hosts that use the FSLogix profile containers hosted in Azure NetApp Files volumes. You need to back up profile files by using snapshots. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order. Select and Place:
QUESTION 7 You plan to deploy Windows Virtual Desktop. The deployment will use existing virtual machines. You create a Windows Virtual Desktop host pool. You need to ensure that you can add virtual machines to the host pool. What should you do first? A. Register the Microsoft.DesktopVirtualization provider. B. Generate a registration key. C. Run the Invoke-AzVMRunCommand cmdlet. D. Create a role assignment. Correct Answer: A Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-desktop/create-host-pools-azure-marketplace
QUESTION 8 You need to configure the virtual machines that have the Pool1 prefix. The solution must meet the technical requirements. What should you use? A. a Windows Virtual Desktop automation task B. Virtual machine auto-shutdown C. Service Health in Azure Monitor D. Azure Automation Correct Answer: A Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/logic-apps/create-automation-tasks-azure-resources
QUESTION 9 You have an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named contoso.com and an Azure virtual network named VNET1. To VNET1, you deploy an Azure Active Directory Domain Services (Azure AD DS) managed domain named litwareinc.com. To VNET1, you plan to deploy a Windows Virtual Desktop host pool named Pool1. You need to ensure that you can deploy Windows 10 Enterprise host pools to Pool1. What should you do first? A. Modify the settings of the litwareinc.com DNS zone. B. Modify the DNS settings of VNET1. C. Add a custom domain name to contoso.com. D. Implement Azure AD Connect cloud sync. Correct Answer: B Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory-domain-services/tutorial-create-instance
QUESTION 10 You need to recommend an authentication solution that meets the performance requirements. Which two actions should you include in the recommendation? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. Join all the session hosts to Azure AD. B. In each Azure region that will contain the Windows Virtual Desktop session hosts, create an Azure Active Directory Domain Service (Azure AD DS) managed domain. C. Deploy domain controllers for the on-premises Active Directory domain on Azure virtual machines. D. Deploy read-only domain controllers (RODCs) on Azure virtual machines. E. In each Azure region that will contain the Windows Virtual Desktop session hosts, create an Active Directory site. Correct Answer: AC Reference: https://www.compete366.com/blog-posts/how-to-implement-azure-windows-virtual-desktop-wvd/ https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-desktop/create-host-pools-azure-marketplace
QUESTION 11 HOTSPOT Your network contains an on-premises Active Directory domain that syncs to an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant. The domain contains the users shown in the following table.
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
QUESTION 13 You have a Windows Virtual Desktop host pool that contains two session hosts. The Microsoft Teams client is installed on each session host. You discover that only the Microsoft Teams chat and collaboration features work. The calling and meeting features are disabled. You need to ensure that users can set the calling and meeting features from within Microsoft Teams. What should you do? A. Install the Remote Desktop WebRTC Redirector Service. B. Configure Remote audio mode in the RDP Properties. C. Install the Teams Meeting add-in for Outlook. D. Configure audio input redirection. Correct Answer: A Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-desktop/teams-on-wvd
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QUESTION 1 What are two ways that Cisco helps customers secure loT deployments? (Choose two.) A. network analysis B. secure remote access C. segmentation and visibility D. cross-architecture automation E. limited access points Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 2 Which statement best embodies trust-centric security? A. Protect users from attacks by enabling strict security policies. B. Prevent attacks via an intelligence-based policy then detect, investigate, and remediate. C. Verify before granting access via identity-based policies for users, devices, apps, and locations. D. Verify before granting access via MDM software. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3 In which two ways should companies modernize their security philosophies? (Choose two.) A. Expand their IT departments B. Decrease internal access and reporting C. Complement threat-centric tactics with trust-centric methods D. Reinforce their threat-centric security tactics E. Rebuild their security portfolios with new solutions Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 4 In the Campus NGFW use case, which capability is provided by NGFW and NGIPS? A. Flexible AAA Options B. Identity Services Engine C. Differentiated Mobile Access D. High throughput maintained while still protecting domains against threats Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5 What are two steps customers can take to evolve to a trust-centric security philosophy? (Choose two.) A. Require and install agents on mobile devices. B. Block BYOD devices. C. Limit internal access to networks D. Always verify and never trust everything inside and outside the perimeter. E. Only grant access to authorized users and devices. Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 6 What are three key benefits of Cisco NGFW? (Choose three.) A. Reduces throughput B. Prepares defenses C. Reduces complexity D. Identifies anomalous traffic E. Detects and remediates threats faster F. Increases traffic latency Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 7 Which feature of AnyConnect provides better access security across wired and wireless connections with 802.1X? A. Trusted Network Detection B. Secure Layer 2 Network Access C. Flexible AAA Options D. AnyConnect with AMP Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8 What are two key capabilities of Meraki? (Choose two.) A. application visibility and control B. security automation C. contextual awareness D. device profiling E. identity-based and device-aware security Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 9 What does Cisco provide via Firepower\\’s simplified, consistent management? A. Reduced complexity B. Improved speed to security C. Reduced downtime D. Higher value Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10 What is a key feature of Duo? A. Provides SSL VPN B. Authenticates user identity for remote access C. Automates policy creation for IT staff D. Supports pxGrid Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11 Which two loT environment layers are protected by AMP for Endpoints? (Choose two.) A. Internet/Cloud B. Control Layer C. Data Center D. Access Points E. Things Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 12 Which two Cisco products help manage data access policy consistently? (Choose two.) A. Duo B. Cloudlock C. AMPforEndpoints D. pxGrid E. Steathwatch Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 13 Which two loT environment layers are protected by Stealthwatch? (Choose two.) A. Things B. Endpoints C. Internet/Cloud D. Access Points E. Control Layer Correct Answer: AD
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QUESTION 1 Which Cisco ISE service allows an engineer to check the compliance of endpoints before connecting to the network? A. personas B. Qualys C. nexpose D. posture Correct Answer: D https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/ise/2-1/admin_guide/b_ise_admin_guide_21/b_ise_admin_guide_20_chapter_010110.html Posture is a service in Cisco Identity Services Engine (Cisco ISE) that allows you to check the state, also known as posture, of all the endpoints that are connecting to a network for compliance with corporate security policies. This allows you to control clients to access protected areas of a network.
QUESTION 2 Which two probes must be enabled for the ARP cache to function in the Cisco ISE profile service so that a user can reliably bind the IP address and MAC addresses of endpoints? (Choose two.) A. NetFlow B. SNMP C. HTTP D. DHCP E. RADIUS Correct Answer: DE Cisco ISE implements an ARP cache in the profiling service so that you can reliably map the IP addresses and the MAC addresses of endpoints. For the ARP cache to function, you must enable either the DHCP probe or the RADIUS probe. The DHCP and RADIUS probes carry the IP addresses and the MAC addresses of endpoints in the payload data. The DHCP-requested address attribute in the DHCP probe and the Framed-IP-address attribute in the RADIUS probe carries the IP addresses of endpoints, along with their MAC addresses, which can be mapped and stored in the ARP cache. https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/ise/2-1/admin_guide/b_ise_admin_guide_21/b_ise_admin_guide_20_chapter_010100.html
QUESTION 3 What allows an endpoint to obtain a digital certificate from Cisco ISE during a BYOD flow? A. Network Access Control B. My Devices Portal C. Application Visibility and Control D. Supplicant Provisioning Wizard Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4 Which two events trigger a CoA for an endpoint when CoA is enabled globally for ReAuth? (Choose two.) A. endpoint marked as lost in My Devices Portal B. addition of endpoint to My Devices Portal C. endpoint profile transition from Aop.e-dev.ee to Apple-iPhone D. endpoint profile transition from Unknown to Windows 10-Workstation E. updating of endpoint dACL. Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 5 Which profiling probe collects the user-agent string? A. DHCP B. AD C. HTTP D. NMAP Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6 Which two components are required for creating a Native Supplicant Profile within a BYOD flow? (Choose two ) A. Windows Settings B. Connection Type C. iOS Settings D. Redirect ACL E. Operating System Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 7 In which two ways can users and endpoints be classified for TrustSec? (Choose two.) A. VLAN B. SXP C. dynamic D. QoS E. SGACL Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 8 Which two endpoint compliance statuses are possible? (Choose two.) A. unknown B. known C. invalid D. compliant E. valid Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 9 Which default endpoint identity group does an endpoint that does not match any profile in Cisco ISE become a member of? A. Endpoint B. unknown C. blacklist D. white list E. profiled Correct Answer: B If you do not have a matching profiling policy, you can assign an unknown profiling policy. The endpoint is therefore profiled as Unknown. The endpoint that does not match any profile is grouped within the Unknown identity group. The endpoint profiled to the Unknown profile requires that you create a profile with an attribute or a set of attributes collected for that endpoint. https://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/security/ise/1.0/user_guide/ise10_man_identities.html
QUESTION 10 If a user reports a device lost or stolen, which portal should be used to prevent the device from accessing the network while still providing information about why the device is blocked? A. Client Provisioning B. Guest C. BYOD D. Blacklist Correct Answer: D https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/Enterprise/Borderless_Networks/Unified_Access/BYOD_Design_Guide/Managing_Lost_or_Stolen_Device.html#90273 The Blacklist identity group is system generated and maintained by ISE to prevent access to lost or stolen devices. In this design guide, two authorization profiles are used to enforce the permissions for wireless and wired devices within the Blacklist: 1. Blackhole WiFi Access 2. Blackhole Wired Access
QUESTION 11 Which two task types are included in the Cisco ISE common tasks support for TACACS+ profiles? (Choose two.) A. Firepower B. WLC C. IOS D. ASA E. Shell Correct Answer: BE https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/ise/2-1/admin_guide/b_ise_admin_guide_21/b_ise_admin_guide_20_chapter_0100010.html TACACS+ ProfileTACACS+ profiles control the initial login session of the device administrator. A session refers to each individual authentication, authorization, or accounting request. A session authorization request to a network device elicits an ISE response. The response includes a token that is interpreted by the network device, which limits the commands that may be executed for the duration of a session. The authorization policy for a device administration access service can contain a single shell profile and multiple command sets. The TACACS+ profile definitions are split into two components: 1. Common tasks 2. Custom attributes There are two views on the TACACS+ Profiles page (Work Centers > Device Administration > Policy Elements > Results > TACACS Profiles)–Task Attribute View and Raw View. Common tasks can be entered using the Task Attribute View and custom attributes can be created in the Task Attribute View as well as the Raw View. The Common Tasks section allows you to select and configure the frequently used attributes for a profile. The attributes that are included here are those defined by the TACACS+ protocol draft specifications. However, the values can be used in the authorization of requests from other services. In the Task Attribute View, the ISE administrator can set the privileges that will be assigned to the device administrator. The common task types are: 1. Shell 2. WLC 3. Nexus 4. Generic The Custom Attributes section allows you to configure additional attributes. It provides a list of attributes that are not recognized by the Common Tasks section. Each definition consists of the attribute name, an indication of whether the attribute is mandatory or optional, and the value for the attribute. In the Raw View, you can enter the mandatory attributes using an equal to (=) sign between the attribute name and its value, and optional attributes are entered using an asterisk (*) between the attribute name and its value. The attributes entered in the Raw View are reflected in the Custom Attributes section in the Task Attribute View and vice versa. The Raw View is also used to copy-paste the attribute list (for example, another product\\’s attribute list) from the clipboard onto ISE. Custom attributes can be defined for nonshell services.
QUESTION 12 What is needed to configure wireless guest access on the network? A. endpoint already profiled in ISE B. WEBAUTH ACL for redirection C. valid user account in Active Directory D. Captive Portal Bypass turned on Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13 Which description of the use of low-impact mode in a Cisco ISE deployment is correct? A. It continues to use the authentication open capabilities of the switch port, which allows traffic to enter the switch before an authorization result. B. Low-impact mode must be the final phase in deploying Cisco ISE into a network environment using the phased approach. C. It enables authentication (with authentication open), sees exactly which devices fail and which succeed, andcorrects the failed authentications before they D. The port does not allow any traffic before the authentication (except for EAP, Cisco Discovery Protocol, and LDP), and then the port is assigned to specific authorization results after the authentication Correct Answer: C
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QUESTION 3 After deploying a network-monitoring tool to manage and monitor networking devices in your organization, you realize that you need to manually upload a MIB for the Cisco FMC. In which folder should you upload the MIB file? A. /etc/sf/DCMIB.ALERT B. /sf/etc/DCEALERT.MIB C. /etc/sf/DCEALERT.MIB D. system/etc/DCEALERT.MIB Correct Answer: C Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firesight/541/firepower-module-user-guide/asa-firepower module-user-guide-v541/Intrusion-External-Responses.pdf
QUESTION 6 Which two features of Cisco AMP for Endpoints allow for an uploaded file to be blocked? (Choose two.) A. application blocking B. simple custom detection C. file repository D. exclusions E. application whitelisting Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 10 Which two types of objects are reusable and supported by Cisco FMC? (Choose two.) A. dynamic key mapping objects that help link HTTP and HTTPS GET requests to Layer 7 application protocols. B. reputation-based objects that represent Security Intelligence feeds and lists, application filters based on category and reputation, and file lists C. network-based objects that represent IP address and networks, port/protocols pairs, VLAN tags, security zones, and origin/destination country D. network-based objects that represent FQDN mappings and networks, port/protocol pairs, VXLAN tags, security zones and origin/destination country E. reputation-based objects, such as URL categories Correct Answer: BC Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/620/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guidev62/reusable_objects.html#ID-2243-00000414
QUESTION 12 Which limitation applies to Cisco Firepower Management Center dashboards in a multidomain environment? A. Child domains can view but not edit dashboards that originate from an ancestor domain. B. Child domains have access to only a limited set of widgets from ancestor domains. C. Only the administrator of the top ancestor domain can view dashboards. D. Child domains cannot view dashboards that originate from an ancestor domain. Correct Answer: D Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/60/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guidev60/Using_Dashboards.html
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