Microsoft Azure DP-200 exam exercise questions, DP-200 dumps easy to prepare for passing exams

Implementing an Azure Data Solution” Exam DP-200. Candidates for this exam are Microsoft Azure data engineers who collaborate with business stakeholders to identify and meet the data requirements to implement data solutions that use Azure data services.

Azure data engineers are responsible for data-related tasks that include provisioning data storage services, ingesting streaming and batch data, transforming data, implementing security requirements, implementing data retention policies, identifying performance bottlenecks, and accessing external data sources.

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DP-200 exam

Candidates for this exam must be able to implement data solutions that use the following Azure services: Azure Cosmos DB, Azure SQL Database, Azure SQL Data Warehouse, Azure Data Lake Storage, Azure Data Factory, Azure Stream Analytics, Azure Databricks, and Azure Blob storage.

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Microsoft Certified: Azure Data Engineer Associate:https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/azure-data-engineer.aspx

Skills measured

  • Implement data storage solutions
  • Manage and develop data processing
  • Monitor and optimize data solutions
  • Design Azure data storage solutions
  • Design data processing solutions
  • Design for data security and compliance

Free Microsoft Azure DP-200 Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1

You are creating a managed data warehouse solution on Microsoft Azure. 

You must use PolyBase to retrieve data from Azure Blob storage that resides in parquet format and toad the data into a

large table called FactSalesOrderDetails. 

You need to configure Azure SQL Data Warehouse to receive the data. 

Which four actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to

the answer area and arrange them in the correct order. 

Select and Place:lead4pass dp-200 exam question q1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass dp-200 exam question q1-1

QUESTION 2
You manage security for a database that supports a line of business application.
Private and personal data stored in the database must be protected and encrypted.
You need to configure the database to use Transparent Data Encryption (TDE).
Which five actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, select the appropriate actions from the list of actions to
the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:lead4pass dp-200 exam question q2

Correct Answer:

lead4pass dp-200 exam question q2-1

Step 1: Create a master key
Step 2: Create or obtain a certificate protected by the master key
Step 3: Set the context to the company database
Step 4: Create a database encryption key and protect it by the certificate
Step 5: Set the database to use encryption
Example code: USE master; GO CREATE MASTER KEY ENCRYPTION BY PASSWORD = \\’\\’; go CREATE
CERTIFICATE MyServerCert WITH SUBJECT = \\’My DEK Certificate\\’; go USE AdventureWorks2012; GO CREATE
DATABASE ENCRYPTION KEY WITH ALGORITHM = AES_128 ENCRYPTION BY SERVER CERTIFICATE
MyServerCert; GO ALTER DATABASE AdventureWorks2012 SET ENCRYPTION ON; GO
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/relational-databases/security/encryption/transparent-data-encryption

QUESTION 3
You implement 3 Azure SQL Data Warehouse instance.
You plan to migrate the largest fact table to Azure SQL Data Warehouse The table resides on Microsoft SQL Server on-
premises and e 10 terabytes (TB) in size.
Incoming queues use the primary key Sale Key column to retrieve data as displayed in the following table:lead4pass dp-200 exam question q3

You need to distribute the fact table across multiple nodes to optimize performance of the table.
Which technology should you use?
A. hash distributed table with clustered ColumnStore index
B. hash distributed table with clustered index
C. heap table with distribution replicate
D. round robin distributed table with clustered index
E. round robin distributed table with clustered ColumnStore index
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
A company builds an application to allow developers to share and compare code. The conversations, code snippets,
and links shared by people in the application are stored in a Microsoft Azure SQL Database instance. The application
allows for searches of historical conversations and code snippets.
When users share code snippets, the code snippet is compared against previously share code snippets by using a
combination of Transact-SQL functions including SUBSTRING, FIRST_VALUE, and SQRT. If a match is found, a link to
the match is added to the conversation.
Customers report the following issues: Delays occur during live conversations A delay occurs before matching links
appear after code snippets are added to conversations
You need to resolve the performance issues.
Which technologies should you use? To answer, drag the appropriate technologies to the correct issues. Each
technology may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll
to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:lead4pass dp-200 exam question q4

Correct Answer:

lead4pass dp-200 exam question q4-1

Box 1: memory-optimized table
In-Memory OLTP can provide great performance benefits for transaction processing, data ingestion, and transient data
scenarios.
Box 2: materialized view
To support efficient querying, a common solution is to generate, in advance, a view that materializes the data in a format
suited to the required results set. The Materialized View pattern describes generating prepopulated views of data in
environments where the source data isn\\’t in a suitable format for querying, where generating a suitable query is
difficult, or where query performance is poor due to the nature of the data or the data store.
These materialized views, which only contain data required by a query, allow applications to quickly obtain the
information they need. In addition to joining tables or combining data entities, materialized views can include the current
values of
calculated columns or data items, the results of combining values or executing transformations on the data items, and
values specified as part of the query. A materialized view can even be optimized for just a single query.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/architecture/patterns/materialized-view

QUESTION 5
You need to ensure phone-based polling data upload reliability requirements are met. How should you configure
monitoring? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one
point.
Hot Area:

lead4pass dp-200 exam question q5

Correct Answer:

lead4pass dp-200 exam question q5-1

Explanation/Reference:
Box 1: FileCapacity
FileCapacity is the amount of storage used by the storage account

QUESTION 6
You need to ensure that phone-based polling data can be analyzed in the PollingData database.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions
to the answer are and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:

lead4pass dp-200 exam question q6

Correct Answer:

lead4pass dp-200 exam question q6-1

Explanation/Reference:
All deployments must be performed by using Azure DevOps. Deployments must use templates used in multiple
environments No credentials or secrets should be used during deployments

QUESTION 7
Note: This question is part of series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contain a
unique solution. Determine whether the solution meets the stated goals.
You develop data engineering solutions for a company.
A project requires the deployment of resources to Microsoft Azure for batch data processing on Azure
HDInsight. Batch processing will run daily and must:
Scale to minimize costs
Be monitored for cluster performance
You need to recommend a tool that will monitor clusters and provide information to suggest how to scale.
Solution: Monitor clusters by using Azure Log Analytics and HDInsight cluster management solutions.
Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
HDInsight provides cluster-specific management solutions that you can add for Azure Monitor logs.
Management solutions add functionality to Azure Monitor logs, providing additional data and analysis tools.
These solutions collect important performance metrics from your HDInsight clusters and provide the tools to search the
metrics. These solutions also provide visualizations and dashboards for most cluster types supported in HDInsight. By
using the metrics that you collect with the solution, you can create custom monitoring rules and alerts.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/hdinsight/hdinsight-hadoop-oms-log-analytics-tutorial

QUESTION 8
A company is deploying a service-based data environment. You are developing a solution to process this data.
The solution must meet the following requirements:
Use an Azure HDInsight cluster for data ingestion from a relational database in a different cloud service
Use an Azure Data Lake Storage account to store processed data
Allow users to download processed data
You need to recommend technologies for the solution.
Which technologies should you use? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
Hot Area:

lead4pass dp-200 exam question q8

Correct Answer:

lead4pass dp-200 exam question q8-1

Box 1: Apache Sqoop
Apache Sqoop is a tool designed for efficiently transferring bulk data between Apache Hadoop and structured
datastores such as relational databases.
Azure HDInsight is a cloud distribution of the Hadoop components from the Hortonworks Data Platform (HDP).
Incorrect Answers:
DistCp (distributed copy) is a tool used for large inter/intra-cluster copying. It uses MapReduce to effect its distribution,
error handling and recovery, and reporting. It expands a list of files and directories into input to map tasks, each of
which
will copy a partition of the files specified in the source list. Its MapReduce pedigree has endowed it with some quirks in
both its semantics and execution.
RevoScaleR is a collection of proprietary functions in Machine Learning Server used for practicing data science at scale.
For data scientists, RevoScaleR gives you data-related functions for import, transformation and manipulation,
summarization, visualization, and analysis.
Box 2: Apache Kafka
Apache Kafka is a distributed streaming platform.
A streaming platform has three key capabilities:
Publish and subscribe to streams of records, similar to a message queue or enterprise messaging system.
Store streams of records in a fault-tolerant durable way.
Process streams of records as they occur.
Kafka is generally used for two broad classes of applications:
Building real-time streaming data pipelines that reliably get data between systems or applications
Building real-time streaming applications that transform or react to the streams of data
Box 3: Ambari Hive View
You can run Hive queries by using Apache Ambari Hive View. The Hive View allows you to author, optimize, and run
Hive queries from your web browser.
References:
https://sqoop.apache.org/
https://kafka.apache.org/intro
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/hdinsight/hadoop/apache-hadoop-use-hive-ambari-view

QUESTION 9
You implement an event processing solution using Microsoft Azure Stream Analytics.
The solution must meet the following requirements:
-Ingest data from Blob storage
-Analyze data in real time
-Store processed data in Azure Cosmos DB
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions
to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:lead4pass dp-200 exam question q9

Correct Answer:

lead4pass dp-200 exam question q9-1

QUESTION 10
You manage a financial computation data analysis process. Microsoft Azure virtual machines (VMs) run the process in
daily jobs, and store the results in virtual hard drives (VHDs.)
The VMs product results using data from the previous day and store the results in a snapshot of the VHD. When a new
month begins, a process creates a new VHD.
You must implement the following data retention requirements:
Daily results must be kept for 90 days
Data for the current year must be available for weekly reports
Data from the previous 10 years must be stored for auditing purposes
Data required for an audit must be produced within 10 days of a request.
You need to enforce the data retention requirements while minimizing cost.
How should you configure the lifecycle policy? To answer, drag the appropriate JSON segments to the correct locations.
Each JSON segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bat between
panes or scroll to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:lead4pass dp-200 exam question q10

Correct Answer:

lead4pass dp-200 exam question q10-1

The Set-AzStorageAccountManagementPolicy cmdlet creates or modifies the management policy of an Azure Storage
account.
Example: Create or update the management policy of a Storage account with ManagementPolicy rule objects.

lead4pass dp-200 exam question q10-2

Action -BaseBlobAction Delete -daysAfterModificationGreaterThan 100
PS C:\>$action1 = Add-AzStorageAccountManagementPolicyAction -InputObject $action1 -BaseBlobAction
TierToArchive -daysAfterModificationGreaterThan 50
PS C:\>$action1 = Add-AzStorageAccountManagementPolicyAction -InputObject $action1 -BaseBlobAction TierToCool
-daysAfterModificationGreaterThan 30
PS C:\>$action1 = Add-AzStorageAccountManagementPolicyAction -InputObject $action1 -SnapshotAction Delete
-daysAfterCreationGreaterThan 100
PS C:\>$filter1 = New-AzStorageAccountManagementPolicyFilter -PrefixMatch ab,cd
PS C:\>$rule1 = New-AzStorageAccountManagementPolicyRule -Name Test -Action $action1 -Filter $filter1
PS C:\>$action2 = Add-AzStorageAccountManagementPolicyAction -BaseBlobAction Delete
-daysAfterModificationGreaterThan 100
PS C:\>$filter2 = New-AzStorageAccountManagementPolicyFilter
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/az.storage/set-azstorageaccountmanagementpolicy

QUESTION 11
A company plans to use Platform-as-a-Service (PaaS) to create the new data pipeline process. The process must meet
the following requirements.
Ingest:
– Access multiple data sources
– Provide the ability to orchestrate workflow
– Provide the capability to run SQL Server Integration Services packages.
Store:
– Optimize storage for big data workloads.
– Provide encryption of data at rest.
– Operate with no size limits.
Prepare and Train:
– Provide a fully-managed and interactive workspace for exploration and visualization.
– Provide the ability to program in R, SQL, Python, Scala, and Java.
– Provide seamless user authentication with Azure Active Directory.
Model and Serve:
– Implement native columnar storage.
– Support for the SQL language
– Provide support for structured streaming.
You need to build the data integration pipeline.
Which technologies should you use? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
Hot Area:

lead4pass dp-200 exam question q11

Correct Answer:

lead4pass dp-200 exam question q11-1

QUESTION 12
You are developing a solution using a Lambda architecture on Microsoft Azure.
The data at test layer must meet the following requirements:
Data storage:
-Serve as a repository (or high volumes of large files in various formats.
-Implement optimized storage for big data analytics workloads.
-Ensure that data can be organized using a hierarchical structure. Batch processing:
-Use a managed solution for in-memory computation processing.
-Natively support Scala, Python, and R programming languages.
-Provide the ability to resize and terminate the cluster automatically. Analytical data store:
-Support parallel processing.
-Use columnar storage.
-Support SQL-based languages. You need to identify the correct technologies to build the Lambda architecture. Which
technologies should you use? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area NOTE: Each correct
selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

lead4pass dp-200 exam question q12

Correct Answer:

lead4pass dp-200 exam question q12-1

QUESTION 13
A company has a SaaS solution that uses Azure SQL Database with elastic pools. The solution contains a dedicated
database for each customer organization. Customer organizations have peak usage at different periods during the
year.
You need to implement the Azure SQL Database elastic pool to minimize cost.
Which option or options should you configure?
A. Number of transactions only
B. eDTUs per database only
C. Number of databases only
D. CPU usage only
E. eDTUs and max data size
Correct Answer: E
The best size for a pool depends on the aggregate resources needed for all databases in the pool. This involves
determining the following:
Maximum resources utilized by all databases in the pool (either maximum DTUs or maximum vCores depending on your
choice of resourcing model).
Maximum storage bytes utilized by all databases in the pool.
Note: Elastic pools enable the developer to purchase resources for a pool shared by multiple databases to
accommodate unpredictable periods of usage by individual databases. You can configure resources for the pool based
either on the
DTU-based purchasing model or the vCore-based purchasing model. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/sql-database/sql-database-elastic-pool

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QUESTION 1

Which service can negatively impact the Cisco TMS ability to monitor a Cisco VCS? 

A. Telnet 

B. SNMP 

C. SSH 

D. TFTP 

Correct Answer: B 

 

QUESTION 2

Which CCC action applies only to the Cisco TelePresence MPS Series? 

A. block fast update requests 

B. Status Duo Video 

C. move back 

D. release floor 

Correct Answer: A 

 

QUESTION 3

You notice that a Cisco Unity Connection server is running low on disk space. You discover that users are not deleting

their voicemail messages, causing mailboxes to become very large. Which two solutions can help to alleviate the

storage issues? (Choose two.) 

A. quotas 

B. compression 

C. aging 

D. handlers 

Correct Answer: AC 

 

QUESTION 4

An engineer is configuring Binary Floor Control Protocol for a CTS 3100. What are three required configuration items?

(Choose three.) 

A. configure the VCS Zone 

B. configure the CUCM service parameters 

C. configure the SIP Profile 

D. configure the VCS Domain 

E. configure the Device Profile 

F. configure the SIP Trunk 

Correct Answer: ACF 

 

QUESTION 5

The Cisco TMS administrator is trying to add participants while booking a new conference. Which three options are

presented? (Choose three.) 

A. endpoints 

B. users 

C. Cisco MCUs 

D. multiway address 

E. directory numbers synched from Cisco Unified Communications Manager 

F. SIP URIs synched from Cisco Unified Communications Manager 

G. video AutoAttendant numbers 

Correct Answer: ABC 

 

QUESTION 6

Assume that Cisco Unified Presence is deployed with high availability at a site. When a manual or automatic failover

event occurs, which two parameters affect the client failover behavior of Cisco Jabber? (Choose two.) 

A. Client Re-Login Upper Limit Server Recovery Manager service parameter 

B. Timer Register Expires configuration on the SIP profile of the Jabber device 

C. jabber-config.xml file defines a PresenceServerFailoverTimer, such as: 300 

D. Client Re-Login Lower Limit Server Recovery Manager service parameter 

E. secondary CUP node configuration defined in the Service Profile assigned to the user 

Correct Answer: AD 

 

QUESTION 7

Which application helps the Sales team take orders by collecting information from callers with a series of recorded

questions and answers? 

A. Call Handler 

B. Directory Handler 

C. Interview Handler 

D. IVR Option 

E. Call Routing 

Correct Answer: C 

 

QUESTION 8

Which messaging interface provides support for an Apple iPhone, Android, and Blackberry? 

A. Cisco Unity Connection 

B. Cisco Unity Express 

C. Cisco Unity 

D. Cisco Unity Mobile 

Correct Answer: A 

 

QUESTION 9

What statement about endpoint management in Cisco TMS is true? 

A. Adding the endpoint directly to Cisco TMS provides the less extensive control of the system. 

B. Provisioning the endpoint using TMSPE does add the endpoint itself to Cisco TMS. 

C. Adding endpoints already registered to Unified CM to Cisco TMS provides the most extensive management options. 

D. Provisioning the endpoint using Cisco TMSPE does not add the endpoint itself to Cisco TMS. 

Correct Answer: D 

 

QUESTION 10

After the initial Cisco Unity Connection installation, how and where can the time zone be changed? 

A. The Cisco Unity Connection time zone can be changed from the Cisco Unified Operating System Administration

GUI. 

B. The Cisco Unity Connection time zone can be changed from the Cisco Unified Communications Manager GUI. 

C. The Cisco Unity Connection time zone can be changed from the Cisco Unified Operating System CLI. 

D. The Cisco Unity Connection time zone can be changed from the Cisco Unity Connection CLI. 

E. The Cisco Unity Connection time zone cannot be changed after the initial installation. A reinstallation is required. 

Correct Answer: D 

 

QUESTION 11

Which additional step must be completed after installing a new Cisco Unity Connection Language file? 

A. Restart Cisco Tomcat Service. 

B. Update Unity Connection ViewMail clients for Microsoft Outlook. 

C. Restart TFTP Service. 

D. Run the CLI cuc locale update command. 

Correct Answer: A 

 

QUESTION 12

When importing users into Cisco Unity Connection by using AXL, what can cause a user not to be listed in the import

view? 

A. if the user primary extension is set to “none” on Cisco Unified Communications Manager 

B. if the userdigest credentials are not set 

C. if the userwas imported into Cisco Unified Communications Manager by usingLDAP 

D. if the user is not assigned to the Standard CTI Enabled access control group on Cisco Unified Communications

Manager 

Correct Answer: A 

 

QUESTION 13

Which two statements about Cisco Unity Connection video features are true? (Choose two.) 

A. The video greetings feature is not supported in an active-active cluster deployment over the WAN. 

B. The Cisco MediaSense server must be colocated with Cisco Unity Connection with less than 30 ms RTT latency. 

C. To avoid frozen video frames, Cisco Unity Connection and Cisco MediaSense must make use of a blanking file to fill

the stream when they are not sending video. 

D. Cisco Unity Connection transcodes video greetings for endpoints with different resolutions. 

E. The Cisco MediaSense server transcodes video greetings for endpoints with different resolutions. 

Correct Answer: AC

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QUESTION 1
Which two statements about DMVPN are true? (Choose two.)
A. IPsec encryption not supported with statically addressed spokes.
B. t requires full-mesh connectivity on the network.
C. It uses NHRP to create a mapping database of spoke addresses
D. Multicast traffic is not supported
E. It supports dynamic addresses for spokes in a hub-and-spoke VPN topology.
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 2
Where must a network engineer configure the IP helper-address command on a router?
A. On the interface that will receive the broadcasts
B. On the DHCP configuration
C. the interface that is closed to the destination DHCP server
D. on the global configuration mode
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 3
Which NAT command do you enter to disable dynamic ARP learning on an interface?
A. R1(config-if)#ip nat enable
B. R1(config-if)#ip nat inside
C. R1(config)#ip nat serive
D. R1(config-if)#ip nat outside
E. R1(config)#ip nat allows-static-host
Correct Answer: E

 

QUESTION 4
Which statement describes the difference between a manually configured IPv6 in IPv4 tunnel versus an automatic 6to4
tunnel?
A. A manually configured IPv6 in IPv4 tunnel allows multiple IPv4 destinations.
B. An automatic 6to4 tunnel allows multiple IPv4 destinations.
C. A manually configured IPv6 in IPv4 tunnel does not require dual-stack (IPv4 and IPv6) routers at the tunnel
endpoints.
D. An automatic 6to4 tunnel does not require dual-stack (IPv4 and IPv6) routers at the tunnel endpoints
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit. A new TAC engineer came to you for advice. A GRE over IPsec tunnel was configured, but the
tunnel is not coming up. What did the TAC engineer configure incorrectly?lead4pass 300-101 exam question q5

A. The crypto map is not configured correctly
B. The crypto ACL is not configured correctly.
C. The crypto map is not applied to the correct interface.
D. The OSPF network is not configured correctly.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 6
A network engineer wants to ensure an optimal end-to-end delay-bandwidth product. The delay is less than 64KB. Which TCP feature ensures steady-state throughput?
A. Window scaling
B. Network buffer
C. Round-trip timers
D. TCP acknowledgments
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which option must be configured on a target device to use time stamping to accurately represent response times using
IP SLA?
A. Responder
B. Jitter value
C. TCP Connect
D. ICMP Echo
Correct Answer: D
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/12_4/ip_sla/configuration/guide/hsla_c/hsoverv.html

QUESTION 8
When unicast reverse path forwarding is configured on an interface, which action does the interface take first when it
receives a packet?
A. It checks the ingress access list
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B. It checks the egress access list
C. It verifies that the source has a valid VEF adjacency
D. It verifies a reverse path via the FIB to the source
Correct Answer: D
When a packet is received at the interface where Unicast RPF and ACLs have been configured, the following actions
occur:
Step 1: Input ACLs configured on the inbound interface are checked.
Step 2: Unicast RPF checks to see if the packet has arrived on the best return path to the source, which it does by doing
a reverse lookup in the FIB table

QUESTION 9
which the Valid range for BGP private ASNs?
A. 64512-65535
B. 62464-65024
C. 64512-65024
D. 62464-64511
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
In IPv6, the interfaces running OSPF can be configured with multiple address prefixes. Which statement is true about the
IPv6 addresses that can be included into the OSPF process?
A. Specific addresses can be selected using a route map.
B. Specific addresses can be selected using an ACL.
C. Specific addresses cannot be selected for importation into the OSPF process.
D. Specific addresses can be selected using a prefix list.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 11
On a Frame relay, we are unable to ping the remote router, how to solve the problem?
A. DLC is active
B. DLC is not active and deleted
C. Frame Relay map is configured
D. Need an ACL to allow PING
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
You want to configure a device to select an OSPF-learned route as the preferred path over an EBGP-learned route
Which action must you take?
A. Increase the OSPF cost
B. Decrease the OSPF cost
C. Increase the OSPF administrative distance
D. Decrease the OSPF administrative distance
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 13
Which three methods can a network engineer use to fix a metric based routing loop in the network?
A. A.Implement offset lists at network boundaries
B. B. Filter routes manually using distribute lists
C. C. Filter routes manually using prefix lists
D. D. Implement proper network summarisation on key routing points
E. E. Filter routes based on tags
F. F. Utilise root database filters
Correct Answer: ABE

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QUESTION 1
Which goal of peer-gateway in vPC is true?
A. Use the same bridge ID when sending BPDUs from switches in s vPC pair.
B. Configure the MAC address of the vPC peer as a gateway MAC.
C. Transmit BPDUs from the secondary and primary vPC switch.
D. Act as a single router when peering dynamic routing protocols over a vPC.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which three benefits do VXLANs offer compared to VLANs (Choose three.)
A. It provides a solution to extend Layer 2 segments over a shared Layer 3 routed network.
B. It provides better utilization of available network paths in the underlying infrastructure.
C. VXLAN uses a 16-bit VNIS to overcome the 4094 VLAN scale limitation.
D. VXLAN uses a 24-bit VNID to overcome the 4094 VLAN scale limitation.
E. It provides a solution to extend Layer 2 segments over a single Layer 2 VLAN.
F. It provides better utilization of available network paths in the overlay infrastructure.
Correct Answer: ABD
VXLANOverview As its name indicates, VXLAN is designed to provide the same Ethernet Layer 2 network services as
VLAN does today, but with greater extensibility and flexibility. Compared to VLAN, VXLAN offers the following benefits:
Flexible placement of multitenant segments throughout the data center: It provides a solution to extend Layer 2
segments over the underlying shared network infrastructure so that tenant workload can be placed across physical pods in the data center.
Higher scalability to address more Layer 2 segments: VLANs use a 12-bit VLAN ID to address Layer 2 segments, which
results in limiting the scalability of only 4094 VLANs. VXLAN uses a 24-bit segment ID known as the VXLAN network
identifier
(VNID), which enables up to 16 million VXLAN segments to coexist in the same administrative domain.
Better utilization of available network paths in the underlying infrastructure: VLAN uses the Spanning Tree Protocol for
loop prevention, which ends up not using half of the network links in a network by blocking redundant paths. In contrast,
VXLAN packets are transferred through the underlying network based on its Layer 3 header and can take complete
advantage of Layer 3routing, equal-cost multipath (ECMP) routing, and link aggregation protocols to use all available
paths.
VXLAN Encapsulation and Packet Format VXLAN is a Layer 2 overlay scheme over a Layer 3 network. It uses MAC
Address-in-User Datagram Protocol (MAC-in-UDP) encapsulation to provide a means to extend Layer 2 segments
across
the data center network. VXLAN is a solution to support a flexible, large-scale multitenant environment over a shared
common physical infrastructure. The transport protocol over the physical data center network is IP plus UDP.

QUESTION 3
Which two of the following options are true about OpenStack Cinder? (Choose two.)
A. Attached to multiple instances simultaneously.
B. Data Storage
C. Persistent storage
D. It can only be attached to one instance at a time.
E. Ephemeral storage.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 4
Drag and drop the term of the Cisco Prime Service Catalog from the left column onto the correct definition on the right.
Select and Place:lead4pass 400-151 exam question q4

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 400-151 exam question q4-2

QUESTION 5
Drag and drop the objects of the ACI policy model from the left onto the correct definition on right.
Select and Place:lead4pass 400-151 exam question q5

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 400-151 exam question q5-1

QUESTION 6
Which two guidelines apply to private VLAN configuration when you are running FabricPath? (Choose two.)
A. On the F-Series modules, user-configured static MAC addresses are programmed on all forwarding engines that
have ports in that VLAN.
B. The system does support hierarchical static MAC addresses.
C. FabricPath ports can be put into a private VLAN.
D. All VLANs in a private VLAN must be in the same VLAN mode; either CE or FabricPath.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 7
Which two descriptions of the Cisco 7000 RISE Technology are true? (Choose two.)
A. RISE enables remote inspection of control plane traffic to address security concerns.
B. RISE can provide ADC offload freeing resources in the ADC.
C. RISE enables remote inspection of data plane traffic to address security concerns
D. RISE enables a physical appliance to appear as a service module in the Cisco Nexis 7000 chassis
E. RISE can be utilized to provide management capabilities for non-Cisco routers.
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 8
After you deploy a Layer 4?Layer 7 service graph in Cisco ACI, where do you modify the parameters of the Layer 4
?Layer 7 device(s)?
A. under the Service Graph Template
B. under the Provider EPG > L4-L7 Service Parameters
C. under the Consumer EPG > L4-L7 Service Parameters
D. under the Deployed Graph Instance
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
While doing service insertion with vAsA with route peering, which two parts must be configured? (Choose two.)
A. The chassis must be specified when the L4-L7 device is created.
B. The path for interfaces must be specified when the L4-L7 device is created.
C. The VM name must be specified when the L4-L7 device is created.
D. The route peering profile must be specified when the L4-L7 Service Graph template is created
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 10
Which two statements about CFS are true? (Choose two.)
A. CFS distributes the local NTP configuration to master only which then forwards to all devices in the network.
B. After enabling CFS, a network-wide lock is applied to NTP whenever an NTP configuration is started and released
once after the change has been committed or discarded.
C. If CFS is used to distribute NTP, all devices in the network must have the different VRFs configured then as used for
NTP.
D. You must manually distribute NTP authentication keys on the NTP server and Cisco NX-OS devices across the
network.
E. CFS requires a license to be installed before it can be used to distribute NTP.
Correct Answer: BD
Cisco Fabric Services (CFS) distributes the local NTP configuration to all Cisco devices in the network. After enabling
CFS on your device, a network-wide lock is applied to NTP whenever an NTP configuration is started. After making the
NTP configuration changes, you can discard or commit them. In either case, the CFS lock is then released from the
NTP application.

QUESTION 11
Which two differences between hybrid and multi-cloud networking are true? (Choose two.)
A. Network Transport from hybrid to multiple cloud providers
B. Network Transport from on-premises to multiple public cloud providers
C. Network Transport from on-premises to hybrid cloud providers
D. Network Transport from a private cloud provider to multiple cloud providers
E. Network Transport from on-premises to a single public cloud provider
F. Network Transport from on-premises to multiple public cloud providers and between public cloud providers
Correct Answer: BE
Reference: https://www.openstack.org/assets/presentation-media/shmcfarl-multicloud-net-over-berlin.pdf

QUESTION 12
After VTEP devices have established BGP neighbor adjacencies with other VTEPs or with Internal BGP route reflectors,
which three pieces of information are exchanged through BGP? (Choose three.)
A. VTEP address
B. VTEP peer list
C. VPNv4 prefixes
D. router MAC address
E. Layer 3 VNI
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 13
How do you manually configure a vNIC MAC address?
A. Use this identity dynamic-mac command.
B. Modify the dynamic vNIC connection policy.
C. Use them as-address-table static command.
D. Modify the adapter policy.
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
A network manager wants all remote sites to be designed to communicate dynamically with each other using DMVPN
technology without requiring many configurations on the spoke routers. Which protocol is used by DMVPN to achieve this
goal?
A. GRE
B. NHRP
C. SSH
D. ARP
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 2
Which technology provides a layer 2 loop-free and does not contain a port state named “Blocking”?
A. RPVST+
B. PVST+
C. MST
D. CST
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 3
A company is Multi-Homed to different service providers running BGP. Which action ensures that the company AS does
not become a transit AS?
A. Create a distribute-list that filters all routes except the default route and applies to both BGP neighbor interfaces in
the inbound direction
B. Create a distribute-list that filters all routes except the default route and applies to a single BGP neighbor in the
outbound direction
C. Create a prefix list that matches the company prefixes and applies to both BGP neighbor definitions in the outbound
direction.
D. Create a route map that matches the provider BGP communities and networks and applies to both transit neighbor interfaces in the outbound direction.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 4
What security feature would require a packet to be received on the interface that the interface would use to forward the
return packet?
A. urpf
B. arp inspection
C. VLAN ACL
D. …
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 5
Explain to a customer 2 advantages of the routing summarization(Choose two).
A. small routing table
B. small upstream impact of a flapping interface
C. fast convergence
D. security
E. enhance the view of the architecture
Correct Answer: AB

 

QUESTION 6
What is the primary benefit of deployment MPLS over the WAN as opposed to extending VRF-lite across the WAN?
A. convergence time
B. low operating expense
C. low latency
D. dynamic fault-tolerance
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 7
An OSPF router should participate in a maximum of how many areas?
A. 3
B. 2
C. 1
D. 4
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 8
Which protocols support 10 and 40 Gb interfaces? (Choose two)
A. RIP
B. OSPF
C. EIGRP
D. BGP
Correct Answer: BC

 

QUESTION 9
How does OTV provide STP isolation?
A. By using STP root optimization
B. By using BPDU guard
C. By dropping BPDU packets
D. By using BPDU filtering
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 10
Two companies want to merge their OSPF networks, but they run different OSPF domains. Which option must be taken
to accomplish this requirement?
A. OSPF virtual link to bridge the backbone areas of the two company together
B. Route Summarization
C. Static OSPF
D. Redistribute routes between domains
Correct Answer: A
From my CCIE colleague:
To join two companies probably best to statically route between ASBRs – if the companies are to merge as one then
you would merge area 0 using the virtual link.

 

QUESTION 11
A company is building a large data center. About 80% of its traffic will be north to south and the other 20% will be east to
west. The company is also expecting a significant amount of data center growth over the next 5-10 years but wants to
keep the cost of growth low. Which data center design is best suited to meet these goals?
A. A spine and leaf design with layer 2/3 termination on the leaf nodes
B. Two-Tier design with layer 2 terminations on data center core
C. A spine and leaf design with layer 2/3 termination on the spine nodes
D. A three-tier design with a layer 3 termination on the data center core
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 12
Which two metrics are used by EIGRP by default to calculate its cost? (Choose two)
A. Bandwidth
B. Latency
C. MTU
D. Load
Correct Answer: AB

 

QUESTION 13
Which technology will you use to connect 2x Data Centres and extend Layer 2 VLANs? (Choose two)
A. OTV
B. VXLAN
C. Fabric Path
D. IS-IS
E. EIGRP
Correct Answer: AB

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QUESTION 1
What is the difference between a CSU/DSU and a modem?
A. A CSU/DSU converts analog signals from a router to a leased line; a modem converts analog signals from a router to
a leased line.
B. A CSU/DSU converts analog signals from a router to a phone line; a modem converts digital signals from a router to
a leased line.
C. A CSU/DSU converts digital signals from a router to a phone line; a modem converts analog signals from a router to
a phone line.
D. A CSU/DSU converts digital signals from a router to a leased line; a modem converts digital signals from a router to a
phone line.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 2
Which two of the following statements are true? (Choose two)
A. Because FTP usually requires authentication, a Cisco router must be configured with the appropriate username and
password.
B. FTP uses UDP as its transport protocol.
C. The copy running-config ftp: command is used to copy a configuration file from an FTP server to the running
configuration.
D. A router can act as an FTP server.
E. FTP can be used to load Cisco IOS software to router in ROMMON mode.
Correct Answer: AD


QUESTION 3
Which address facilitates the routing of packets over an IP network?
A. MAC
B. transport
C. network
D. physical
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 4
Which command initiates the transfer of a Cisco IOS image over IP from ROMMON?
A. copy tftp: flash:
B. copy flash: tftp:
C. tftpdnld
D. xmodem
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 5
What are two ways to open a command prompt session on a Windows-based computer? (Choose two)
A. Click Start > Control Panel > Command Prompt
B. Click Start > All Programs > Accessories > Command Prompt
C. Click Start > All Programs > Command Prompt
D. Click Start > Run. Enter cmd and click OK
E. Click Start > All Programs > Accessories > Communications > Command Prompt
Correct Answer: BD


QUESTION 6
Which of the following best describes how to assign a static IP address to the Ethernet port on a computer?
A. From network Connections, click Create a New Connection and follow the network connection Wizard instructions.
B. From Network Connections, double-click Local Area Connection. Click Protocol (TCP/IP). Click the properties, click
the use the Following Address button, and then configure the IP information.
C. Click Start> Run Enter cmd and click OK. Enter ip address XXX.XXX.XXX.XXX.
D. From Network Connections, double-click Local Connection. Click Properties, click iPass Protocol (IEEE), click
properties and select static IP.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 7
Which two of the following are true? (Choose two)
A. Telnet is preferred over SSH for security reasons.
B. SSH is a protocol that provides a secure remote access connection to network devices.
C. When using HyperTerminal to communicate over a TCP/IP network, the SSH protocol is used.
D. A Telnet network management connection is dropped when a router reboots.
E. Telnet is a protocol that provides a secure remote access connection to network devices.
Correct Answer: BD


QUESTION 8
Which two of the following are installed fiber-optic connectors? (Choose two)
A. subscriber
B. crossover
C. multi-dimension
D. Lucent
Correct Answer: AD


QUESTION 9
Which of the following best describes the cable that is used to connect a laptop to the Console port on a Cisco router?
A. crossover
B. straight-through
C. fiber
D. rollover
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 10
While performing password recovery on a Cisco device, the configuration register should be which value in order to
bypass loading the startup configuration?
A. 0x2102
B. 0x2112
C. 0x2122
D. 0x2142
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 11
Which IEEE standard protocol is initiated as a result of successful DTP completion in a switch over Fast Ethernet?
A. 802.3ad
B. 802.1w
C. 802.1D
D. 802.1Q
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 12
Which bits represent the boot field in the configuration register value?
A. highest two bits
B. highest four bits
C. lowest two bits
D. lowest four bits
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 13
When using a modem to provide out-of-band access to a Cisco router, which cable is used to connect the modem to the
router?
A. DB-25 to RJ-45
B. RJ-45 to RJ-45
C. RJ-44 to RJ-45
D. DB-9 to RJ-45
E. DB-45 to RJ-45
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 14
Which three pieces of information about a device can be seen from the show version command? (Choose three)
A. CPU load
B. Device model
C. Installed DRAM
D. Installed flash
E. Locally configured IP addresses
Correct Answer: BCD


QUESTION 15
Which two of the following are component of WAN connection? (Choose two)
A. router
B. switch
C. CSU/DSU
D. Hub
E. Bridge
Correct Answer: AC


QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit.

lead4pass 640-692 exam question - q16

A. RJ-45 straight-through
B. RJ-45
C. RJ-45 rollover
D. RJ-11
E. RJ-45 crossover
Correct Answer: E


QUESTION 17
Refer to the exhibit.

lead4pass 640-692 exam question - q17

Into which port do you insert the card?
A. ATM
B. Gigabit Ethernet
C. Serial
D. Ethernet
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 18
Which statement about unique local IP addresses is true?
A. Summarization is not supported.
B. They require all prefixes to be unique.
C. Their global IDs are assigned sequentially.
D. They are routable to the public Internet.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 19
Which two commands are used to set the configuration register value? (Choose two)
A. Router(config)#config-register 0x2102
B. Router(config)#confreg 0x2102
C. rommon>config-register 0x2102
D. rommon>confreg 0x2102
E. Router(config)#configuration-register 0x2102
Correct Answer: AD


QUESTION 20
What are two ways to open Microsoft Notepad on a Windows-based computer? (Choose two)
A. Start > Run Enter Notepad and \\’Ink OK
B. Start > Control Panel > Notepad
C. Start > All Programs > Notepad
D. Start > All Programs > Accessories > Notepad
E. Start > All Programs > Microsoft Office > Notepad

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Latest effective Cisco 600-460 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
Which dial number patterns are needed on a Cisco Packaged Contact Center Enterprise deployment when configuring
Cisco Unified CVP?
A. agent device, network VRU, ringtone, error
B. ICM dialed number, network VRU, ring back, error
C. agent device, CUCM VRU, ringtone, survivability
D. ICM dialed number plan, network VRU, ringtone, error
E. agent device, network VRU, ringtone, survivability
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 2
Which option describes how many reason codes you can assign across all teams using Cisco Finesse Admin?
A. A total of 100 sign-out reason codes and not ready reason codes.
B. 50 sign-out reason codes and 50 not ready reason codes for a total of 100.
C. 100 sign-out reason codes and 100 not ready reason codes for a total of 200.
D. There is no limit. You can assign as many team-based reason codes as you like.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 3
Which command is used to examine detailed events processed by the call router with Cisco Unified Contact Center
Enterprise?
A. dumplog router
B. viewlogs rtr
C. dumplog rtr
D. showlogs rtr
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 4
Which two things can cause the “Send to VRU” to fail within an ICM script for Cisco Unified Customer Voice Portal?
(Choose two.)
A. No network VRU is configured for the routing client.
B. VRU PIM just got out of service.
C. Incorrect media file name.
D. Send to originator is not enabled.
E. Primary VRU peripheral gateway is out of service.
Correct Answer: AB


QUESTION 5
In the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise with Cisco Unified CVP, which two statements about how to increase the
Cisco Unified CVP availability are true? (Choose two.)
A. Must have SIP Proxy server to pass messages between the gateways and the Cisco Unified CVP servers.
B. Must have voice gateway TCL scripts to handle conditions where the gateways cannot contact the Cisco Unified CVP
Call Server to direct the call correctly.
C. Add load balancers to load balance .wav file requests across multiple Cisco Unified CVP Media Servers.
D. Dedicate duplexed VRU peripheral gateways for each Cisco Unified CVP call server.
E. For a single data center with centralized deployment, deploy Cisco Unified CVP with N:N redundancy.
Correct Answer: BC


QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 600-460 exam question - q6

Four calls enter the script in the exhibit but are queued due to no agents being available. Assume that the calls are
equally distributed across the A, B, C, and D path in that order using the % Allocation Node and that the Queue to Skill
Group
Node priority is left at its default setting.
Which call is answered first?
A. The call that traversed through the A path.
B. The call that traversed through the B path.
C. The call that traversed through the C path.
D. The call that traversed through the D path.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 7
You have deployed a VXML application named MyVXMLApp. Which variable name must be passed using one of the
user.microapp.ToExtVXML ECC variables?
A. appname=MyVXMLApp
B. app=MyVXMLapp
C. vxmlapp=MyVXMLApp
D. application=MyVXMLApp
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 8
Which three rules apply when configuring agent teams? (Choose three.)
A. An agent can be a member of only one agent team.
B. An agent can be a member of multiple agent teams.
C. An agent team can have only one primary supervisor.
D. An agent team can have multiple primary supervisors.
E. All agents that belong to an agent team and all supervisors for that agent team must be on the same peripheral.
F. All agents that belong to an agent team and all supervisors for that agent team can be on multiple peripherals.
G. An agent team can have only one primary supervisor but can be a member of multiple teams.
H. An agent team can have multiple primary supervisors but can only be a member of one teams.
Correct Answer: ACE


QUESTION 9
Which option lists the settings in the registry to enable IPsec logging with Cisco Unified ICM?
A. Add Key = IPSec; DWORD Value = Enable_Logging; DWORD Value = 0
B. Add Key = Oakley; DWORD Value = EnableLogging; DWORD Value = 1
C. Add Key = Security; DWORD Value = Enable-Logging; DWORD Value = 1
D. Add Key = Oak; DWORD Value = EnableLog; DWORD Value = 1
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 10
Which four items does the Cisco Finesse administrative application allow administrators to configure? (Choose four.)
A. connections to the CTI OS server and the Administration and Data server database
B. cluster settings for VOS replication
C. ready and login reason codes
D. wrap-up reasons and phonebooks
E. workflows and workflow actions
F. call variable and ECC variable layout
G. desktop layout and conference resources
H. upload third-party gadgets
Correct Answer: BDEF


QUESTION 11
The current operating status for multiple devices is displayed in the Cisco Unified Customer Voice Portal OAMP Control
Center tab within the Operations Console web page. Which three devices show an operating status? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco Unified Communications Manager
B. Cisco Unified CVP reporting server
C. SIP proxy server
D. Cisco Unified CVP call server
E. Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise server
F. VXML gateway
G. Cisco Unified CVP VXML server
Correct Answer: BDG


QUESTION 12
In Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise 10.0 Outbound Option, the Routing and Administrative scripts are needed for
the solution to work properly. Which two statements describe the functionality of the Administrative script? (Choose
two.)
A. enables and disables skill groups for an outbound campaign
B. reserves agents for specific outbound campaign
C. controls a percentage of agents to be used in a campaign skill group
D. transfers a call to IVR as a part of IVR campaign
E. transfers a call to IVR or Non-IVR for Answering Machine or abandon calls
Correct Answer: AC


QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 600-460 exam question - q13

In a Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise 10.0 Outbound Option with SIP dialer, you check the status of the Dialer
process from Diagnostic Framework Portico. What does the circled message “R” represent?
A. customer instance name
B. telephony port status
C. configured ports
D. ready ports
E. reserved ports
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 14
Which three objects are created by the Domain Manager tool in the Cisco Unified ICM? (Choose three.)
A. ICM Organizational Unit
B. ICM facility
C. ICM User Group policy
D. ICM Security policy
E. ICM instance
F. ICM agent users
Correct Answer: ABE


QUESTION 15
Which list of scripting objects is valid in a Consider If formula for Precision Queue?
A. Call, Attribute, SkillGroup, Call Type
B. Call, PQ, SkillGroup, Call Type
C. Call Type, PQ, Attribute, Call
D. Call, Call Type, Proficiency, SkillGroup
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 16
What is the maximum number of agents that can be configured within Cisco Packaged Contact Center Enterprise up to
release 10.5?
A. 500
B. 1000
C. 2000
D. 6000
E. 76,000
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 17
In a Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise deployment, callers report intermittent voice- quality issues. What might
cause this problem?
A. The Cisco voice gateways have too few trunks to accept the inbound calls.
B. The Cisco Finesse is locking up because of a virus.
C. The system has too few DSP transcoding resources to support all the calls across the WAN.
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager has too few conference bridge resources.
E. A different voice codec is used by the caller and the agent.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 18
Which Cisco Unified ICM Admin Workstation tool provides a live stream of errors as they are reported by the router?
A. Diagnostic Framework Portico
B. Script Editor
C. RTTest
D. Router Log Viewer
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 19
With Cisco Finesse, which two options list the two commands to stop and start the Tomcat service? (Choose two.)
A. To stop the Cisco Tomcat service, enter this CLI command: utils service stop Tomcat
B. To start the Cisco Tomcat service, enter this CLI command: utils service start Tomcat
C. To stop the Cisco Tomcat service, enter this CLI command: utils service start Tomcat
D. To start the Cisco Tomcat service, enter this CLI command: utils start Cisco Tomcat
E. To stop the Cisco Tomcat service, enter this CLI command: utils service stop Cisco Tomcat
F. To start the Cisco Tomcat service, enter this CLI command: utils service start Cisco Tomcat
Correct Answer: EF


QUESTION 20
Which option describes the steps to configure a non-global Not Ready code for a Cisco Unified ICM team using Contact
Center Enterprise solution with Cisco Finesse?
A. Add Not Ready reason code in Cisco Finesse (uncheck “Global?” check box), add reason code to team.
B. Add team in ICM, add Not Ready reason code in Cisco Finesse (uncheck “Global?” check box), add reason code to
team in Cisco Finesse.
C. Add team in ICM, add Not Ready reason code in Cisco Finesse, add reason code to team in Cisco Finesse.
D. Add team in ICM, add Not Ready reason code in ICM, add reason code to team in Cisco Finesse.
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
Which component is required to run FCoE?
A. converged network adapter
B. iSCSI gateway
C. host bus adapter
D. Fibre Channel adapter
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
Computers can connect to FCoE with converged network adapters (CNAs), which contain both Fibre Channel host bus adapter (HBA) and Ethernet Network Interface Card (NIC) functionality on the same adapter card. CNAs have one or more physical Ethernet ports. FCoE encapsulation can be done in software with a conventional Ethernet network interface card, however FCoE CNAs offload (from the CPU) the low level frame processing and SCSI protocol functions traditionally performed by Fibre Channel host bus adapters.

QUESTION 2
You have a Cisco Nexus 5500 Series switch. What is the default load-balancing hash mechanism for traffic on FCoE port channels?
A. the source MAC address
B. the source IP address and the destination IP address
C. the source MAC address and the destination MAC address
D. the source TCP or UDP port and the destination TCP or UDP port
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
On Nexus 5500 the default load balancing mechanism on the LACP port- channel for FCoE traffic is “source-destination”. In this default state, all the FCoE traffic takes the same link in the portchannel when the Nexus 5500 forwards frames over FCoE VE ports. In order to enable all links to be used in the port-channel for FCoE traffic, enter the port-channel load-balance ethernet source-dest-port command to configure Nexus 5500 “port-channel load balancing” to “source-dest-port”. With this configuration “source- destination-oxid” load balancing is used for FCoE traffic.

QUESTION 3
You must configure resiliency for Fibre Channel uplink ports on Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnects. Which feature should you configure?
A. an appliance port
B. vPC
C. a port channel
D. a unified storage port
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
What is the most common design requirement when creating a data center solution?
A. high availability with disaster recovery
B. multicore CPU servers
C. traffic inspection for inbound traffic
D. virtualization of network resources
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which two actions must be performed when you configure Cisco VN-Link in hardware? (Choose two.)
A. Create a distributed virtual switch in Cisco UCS Manager.
B. Add an ESX host to the distributed virtual switch in Cisco UCS Manager.
C. Create a port profile and profile clients in Cisco UCS Manager.
D. Create a standard switch on an ESXi host and map the network adapters to the switch.
E. Create a distributed virtual switch under the datacenter folder in VMware vCenter.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 6
Which two platforms support the FCoE protocol? 300-160 dumps (Choose two)
A. Cisco Nexus 2332TQ Series
B. Cisco MDS 9148S Series
C. Cisco Nexus 7010 Series
D. Cisco MDS 9222i Series
E. Cisco Nexus 2248TP Series
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 7
Spanning Tree Protocol runs at which functional layer of the data center?
A. core layer
B. access layer
C. application layer
D. network layer
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
You deploy new server infrastructure by using a Cisco UCS platform. Winch two design options can you use to increase the redundancy of the new compute solution’ (Choose two.)
A. a 10-Gb uplink port
B. a pin vNic in the server profile to a specific Fabric Interconnect node that has failover disabled
C. an uplink port in a port channel configuration
D. static pinning at the server ports
E. more than one server port to connect the Cisco UCS B-Series blade IOM
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 9
Which two options are supported on Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnects that use native Fibre Channel connectivity? (Choose two)
A. iSCSI
B. NFS
C. DAS
D. SAN
E. iFCP
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 10
Which technology provides the ability to use all links in a LAN topology by providing an active-active path to the upstream switch?
A. STP
B. vPC
C. PVST+
D. RSTP
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
When you configure FCIP, which two types of acceleration can you enable to maximize WAN link utilization? (Choose two)
A. SCSI write
B. link
C. SCSI tape
D. WAN
E. IP
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 12
What are two benefits of a service insertion that is mediated through the Cisco APIC instead of the classical Ethernet model? (Choose two.)
A. provides Layer 5 service insertion capability
B. provides Layer 7 service insertion capability
C. provides policies that can manage the network and service appliances
D. can automate the service insertion
E. provides built-in services, such as Cisco ACE Web Application Firewall and ADC
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 13
What are common switching protocols that are used in the data center? (Choose two.)
A. Token Ring
B. FDDI
C. Ethernet
D. MPLS
E. Frame Relay
F. APPN/APPI
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 14
You plan to use vPC+ in a FabricPath topology. What are two characteristics of a vPC+ switch ID? (Choose two.)
A. must he set to 255
B. must be set manually
C. can be reused in the FabricPath topology
D. must be the same on each vPC+ peer
E. must be different on each vPC+ peer
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 15
Which option can be used to provide a nonproprietary method of load balancing and redundancy between the access and aggregation layers in the data canter?
A. vPC
B. PAgP
C. LACP
D. host vPC
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
You must use one logical uplink for Fibre Channel traffic and Ethernet traffic on a Cisco UCS system.
Which type of port should you use to accomplish this task?
A. FCoE storage
B. server
C. FCoE uplink
D. uplink
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
Server and Uplink Ports on the Fabric Interconnect Each fabric interconnect has a set of ports in a fixed port module that you can configure as either server ports or uplink Ethernet ports. These ports are not reserved. They cannot be used by a Cisco UCS instance until you configure them. You can add expansion modules to increase the number of uplink ports on the fabric interconnect or to add uplink Fibre Channel ports to the fabric interconnect.
You need to create LAN pin groups and SAN pin groups to pin traffic from servers to an uplink port. Each fabric interconnect can include the following types of ports:
Server Ports
Server ports handle data traffic between the fabric interconnect and the adapter cards on the servers. You can only configure server ports on the fixed port module. Expansion modules do not include server ports.
Uplink Ethernet Ports
Uplink Ethernet ports handle Ethernet traffic between the fabric interconnect and the next layer of the network. All network-bound Ethernet traffic is pinned to one of these ports. By default, Ethernet ports are unconfigured. However, you can configure them to function in the following ways:
Server
Uplink
FCoE
Appliance
You can configure uplink Ethernet ports on either the fixed module or an expansion module.
Uplink Fibre Channel Ports
Uplink Fibre Channel ports handle FCoE traffic between the fabric interconnect and the next layer of the network. All network-bound FCoE traffic is pinned to one of these ports. By default, Fibre Channel ports are uplink. However, you can configure them to function as Fibre Channel storage ports. This is useful in cases where a Cisco UCS requires a connection to a Direct-Attached Storage (DAS) device. You can only configure uplink Fibre Channel ports on an expansion module. The fixed module does not include uplink Fibre Channel ports.

QUESTION 17
You use Cisco UCS Central to manage Cisco UCS. Which statement accurately describes how local and global policies are applied? 300-160 dumps
A. A local policy is applied by using Cisco UCS Central, and a global policy is applied by using Cisco UCS Director.
B. A local policy is applied by using Cisco UCS Manager, and a global policy is applied by using Cisco UCS Central.
C. A local policy is applied by using Cisco UCS Director, and a global policy is applied by using Cisco UCS Central.
D. A local policy is applied by using Cisco UCS Central, and a global policy is applied by using Cisco UCS Manager.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
Which technology uses TCP as a block I/O transport?
A. iSCSI
B. NFS v4
C. CIFS
D. FCoE
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
Which statement accurately describes VSAN-based QoS when the same flow is present in two class maps
that are associated to a policy map?
A. The highest QoS value is used.
B. The lowest QoS value is used.
C. The QoS value ot the class map that is attached first takes effect.
D. The QoS value ot the class map that is attached last takes effect.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
A customer is interested in endpoint security at the access layer, which option is Cisco recommended?
A. ACLs
B. DAI
C. TrustSec
D. stateful inspection
E. UDLD
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
You use the Task.Run() method to launch a long-running data processing operation. The data processing operation often fails in times of heavy network congestion.
If the data processing operation fails, a second operation must clean up any results of the first operation. You need to ensure that the second operation is invoked only if the data processing operation throws an unhandled exception.
What should you do?
A. Create a TaskCompletionSource<T> object and call the TrySetException() method of the object.
B. Create a task by calling the Task.ContinueWith() method.
C. Examine the Task.Status property immediately after the call to the Task.Run() method.
D. Create a task inside the existing Task.Run() method by using the AttachedToParent option.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
You are modifying an application that processes leases. The following code defines the Lease class. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)
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Leases are restricted to a maximum term of 5 years. The application must send a notification message if a lease request exceeds 5 years.
You need to implement the notification mechanism.
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
E. Option E
F. Option F
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 3
You are developing an application that uses structured exception handling. The application includes a class named ExceptionLogger.
The ExceptionLogger class implements a method named LogException by using the following code segment:
public static void LogException(Exception ex)
You have the following requirements:
Log all exceptions by using the LogException() method of the ExceptionLogger class.
Rethrow the original exception, including the entire exception stack.
You need to meet the requirements.
Which code segment should you use?
70-483 dumps
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
You are developing an application that includes a class named UserTracker. The application includes the following code segment. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)
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You need to add a user to the UserTracker instance.
What should you do?
70-483 dumps
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
You are adding a public method named UpdateScore to a public class named ScoreCard.
The code region that updates the score field must meet the following requirements:
• It must be accessed by only one thread at a time.
• It must not be vulnerable to a deadlock situation.
You need to implement the UpdateScore() method.
What should you do?
70-483 dumps
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
You are developing a C# application that has a requirement to validate some string input data by using the Regex class. 70-483 dumps
The application includes a method named ContainsHyperlink. The ContainsHyperlink() method will verify the presence of a URI and surrounding markup.
The following code segment defines the ContainsHyperlink() method. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)
70-483 dumps
The expression patterns used for each validation function are constant.
You need to ensure that the expression syntax is evaluated only once when the Regex object is initially instantiated.
Which code segment should you insert at line 04?
70-483 dumps
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
You are developing an application by using C#.
You have the following requirements:
• Support 32-bit and 64-bit system configurations.
• Include pre-processor directives that are specific to the system configuration.
• Deploy an application version that includes both system configurations to testers.
• Ensure that stack traces include accurate line numbers.
You need to configure the project to avoid changing individual configuration settings every time you deploy the application to testers.
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Update the platform target and conditional compilation symbols for each application configuration.
B. Create two application configurations based on the default Release configuration.
C. Optimize the application through address rebasing in the 64-bit configuration.
D. Create two application configurations based on the default Debug configuration.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 8
You are developing a method named CreateCounters that will create performance counters for an application.
The method includes the following code. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)
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You need to ensure that Counter1 is available for use in Windows Performance Monitor (PerfMon).
Which code segment should you insert at line 16?
A. CounterType = PerformanccCounterType.RawBase
B. CounterType = PerformanceCounterType.AverageBase
C. CounterType = PerformanceCounterType.SampleBase
D. CounterType = PerformanceCounterType.CounterMultiBase
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
You are developing an application that will transmit large amounts of data between a client computer and a server.
You need to ensure the validity of the data by using a cryptographic hashing algorithm.
Which algorithm should you use?
A. HMACSHA256
B. RNGCryptoServiceProvider
C. DES
D. Aes
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
You are developing an assembly that will be used by multiple applications.
You need to install the assembly in the Global Assembly Cache (GAC).
Which two actions can you perform to achieve this goal? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)
A. Use the Assembly Registration tool (regasm.exe) to register the assembly and to copy the assembly to the GAC.
B. Use the Strong Name tool (sn.exe) to copy the assembly into the GAC.
C. Use Microsoft Register Server (regsvr32.exe) to add the assembly to the GAC.
D. Use the Global Assembly Cache tool (gacutil.exe) to add the assembly to the GAC.
E. Use Windows Installer 2.0 to add the assembly to the GAC.
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 11
You are debugging an application that calculates loan interest. The application includes the following code. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)
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You need to ensure that the debugger breaks execution within the CalculateInterest() method when the loanAmount variable is less than or equal to zero in all builds of the application.
What should you do?
A. Insert the following code segment at line 03:
Trace.Assert(loanAmount > 0);
B. Insert the following code segment at line 03:
Debug.Assert(loanAmount > 0);
C. Insert the following code segment at line 05:
Debug.Write(loanAmount > 0);
D. Insert the following code segment at line 05:
Trace.Write(loanAmount > 0);
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
You are developing an application that accepts the input of dates from the user.
Users enter the date in their local format. The date entered by the user is stored in a string variable named inputDate. The valid date value must be placed in a DateTime variable named validatedDate.
You need to validate the entered date and convert it to Coordinated Universal Time (UTC). The code must not cause an exception to be thrown.
Which code segment should you use?
70-483 dumps
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
You are developing an application by using C#. You provide a public key to the development team during development.
You need to specify that the assembly is not fully signed when it is built.
Which two assembly attributes should you include in the source code? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. AssemblyKeyNameAttribute
B. ObfuscateAssemblyAttribute
C. AssemblyDelaySignAttribute
D. AssemblyKeyFileAttribute
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 14
You are adding a public method named UpdateGrade to a public class named ReportCard.
The code region that updates the grade field must meet the following requirements:
• It must be accessed by only one thread at a time.
• It must not be vulnerable to a deadlock situation.
You need to implement the UpdateGrade() method.
What should you do?
70-483 dumps
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
You are developing an application that includes a class named BookTracker for tracking library books. 70-483 dumps The application includes the following code segment. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)
70-483 dumps
You need to add a user to the BookTracker instance. What should you do?
70-483 dumps
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
You are creating a console application by using C#.
You need to access the assembly found in the file named car.dll.
Which code segment should you use?
A. Assembly.Load();
B. Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly();
C. This.GetType();
D. Assembly.LoadFile(“car.dll”);
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 17
You are developing an application by using C#.
The application includes an object that performs a long running process.
You need to ensure that the garbage collector does not release the object’s resources until the process completes.
Which garbage collector method should you use?
A. WaitForFullGCComplete()
B. WaitForFullGCApproach()
C. KeepAlive()
D. WaitForPendingFinalizers()
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
An application includes a class named Person. The Person class includes a method named GetData.
You need to ensure that the GetData() method can be used only by the Person class and not by any class derived from the Person class.
Which access modifier should you use for the GetData() method?
A. Public
B. Protected internal
C. Internal
D. Private
E. Protected
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 19
You are creating an application that manages information about your company’s products. The application includes a class named Product and a method named Save.
The Save() method must be strongly typed. It must allow only types inherited from the Product class that use a constructor that accepts no parameters.
You need to implement the Save() method. Which code segment should you use?
70-483 dumps
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 20
You are developing an application. The application includes classes named Mammal and Animal and an interface named IAnimal.
The Mammal class must meet the following requirements:
• It must either inherit from the Animal class or implement the IAnimal interface.
• It must be inheritable by other classes in the application.
You need to ensure that the Mammal class meets the requirements.
Which two code segments can you use to achieve this goal? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)
70-483 dumps
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: AC

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Best Cisco CCNA Collaboration 210-060 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (Q1-Q30)

QUESTION 1
The Voice engineer in your company need to change IP address destination on SIP-Trunk on near side?
A. reset trunk on near side
B. reset trunk on far side
C. reset trunk on far and near side
D. restart call manager service
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
What is the recommended maximum one-way latency for voice and video networks?
A. 100 ms
B. 150 ms
C. 200 ms
D. 300 ms
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
An end user has an 7945 IP phone, but is unable to launch any of the IP phone applications. A network engineer has confirmed that the device is subscribed to the appropriate applications in Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
How should the engineer instruct the user to launch the IP phone applications?
A. Select the “?” button on the IP phone.
B. Select the globe button on the IP phone.
C. Select Settings > User Preferences.
D. Select Settings > Device Configuration.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Use the router console to view the configuration and answer the question.
210-060 dumps
210-060 dumps
When a call is placed from the Branch Router phone to the PSTN number of 914085551212, the call is failing. What dial-peer is supposed to be used and why is the call failing? Select 2 (two)
A. dial-peer voice 910 pots
B. dial-peer voice 9 pots
C. dial-peer voice 9001 voip
D. destination pattern is incorrect
E. prefix is missing from the dial-peer
F. the port assignment is incorrect in the dial-peer
G. the port number is missing in the dial-peer
Correct Answer: BF

Explanation:
The dial 9, 910, and 9001 dial peer configurations are shown below:
210-060 dumps
210-060 dumps
Here we see that dial peer 9 and 910 match the same destination pattern, but 9 will be used first. However, the port used should be 0/0/0:15 not 0/0/0:12.
210-060 dumps
QUESTION 5
An engineer receives a service ticket because a user cannot log into Cisco Unified CM User Options. Where can the engineer verify that the user account is active?
A. LDAP System Configuration
B. LDAP Directory
C. End User Configuration
D. LDAP Authentication
E. Route Plan Report
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
A user reports that several IP phones in a single department are displaying a continuous “registering” message. 210-060 dumps Which fault domain should be investigated?
A. network router
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager subscriber node
C. network switch
D. IP phones
E. SIP gateway
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
User A notices echo on a call with user B. Both users are using Cisco VoIP phones. User B is using a headset, and user A is using a handset. What is the most likely source of the echo?
A. user A handset
B. user B headset
C. disabled echo cancellation on user A phone profile
D. disabled echo cancellation on user B phone profile
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
What is needed to support SIP Early Media?
A. Media Termination Point
B. Transcoder
C. Annunciator
D. Conference Bridge
E. DSP
F. Route List
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which three characteristics are associated with voice? (Choose three.)
A. greedy
B. TCP retransmits
C. UDP priority
D. delay sensitive
E. drop insensitive
F. benign
G. benign or greedy
Correct Answer: CDF

QUESTION 10
With GETVPN, if a key server is configured to use multicast as the rekey transport mechanism, then under which of these conditions will the key server retransmit the rekey messages?
A. It never retransmit the rekey messages
B. it only retransmit the rekey message when it does not receive the rekey acknowledgment from at least one group member
C. it only retransmit the rekey message when it does not receive the rekey acknowledgment from all group member
D. it only retransmit the rekey message when DPD to the group members fails
E. it always retransmit the rekey message
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 11
In an effort to proactively manage IP telephony infrastructure, a network engineer wants to review usage reports that provide top five users, top five calls, and traffic summary. Which option describes where this information can be retrieved using Cisco Unified Communications Manager?
A. Navigate to Cisco Unified CM Administration > CDR Analysis and Reporting >System Reports > System Overview > Select desired reports.
B. Navigate to Cisco Unified Operating System Administration > Tools > System Reports > System Overview > Select desired reports.
C. Navigate to Cisco Unified Serviceability > Tools > CDR Analysis and Reporting > System Reports > System Overview > Select desired reports.
D. Navigate to Cisco Unified Reporting > Tools > System Reports > System Overview > Select desired reports.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
After getting reports that users cannot make calls out to the PSTN, a network administrator opens the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Administration web page and begins to review route patterns. Why would the administrator look here when troubleshooting PSTN connectivity troubles?
A. A route pattern contains a list of gateways that can reach the PSTN.
B. A route pattern contains dial plan information for calling the PSTN.
C. A route pattern contains the necessary privileges for calling the PSTN.
D. A route pattern contains a list of SIP trunks that can reach the PSTN.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
An engineer is adding a third-party video endpoint to Cisco Unified Communications Manager. Which third-party device type should be used when adding the system?
A. SCCP
B. SIP
C. MGCP
D. H.323
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
How can an administrator determine which codec is being used between two endpoints while a call is in progress? 210-060 dumps
A. Run the codec trace in Cisco Unified Communication Manager.
B. Use Cisco Unified Serviceability network trace.
C. Can only be seen in Cisco SDI traces.
D. Can only be seen in a sniffer trace.
E. Press the ? button twice on one of the IP phones.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 15
Which three network elements are crucial when deploying VoIP devices? (Choose three.)
A. Round-trip time
B. QoS markings
C. Bandwidth
D. Ethernet
E. Fibre
F. Token ring
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 16
Which type of data file is used for bulk import of users into Cisco Unity Connection?
A. .xls
B. .doc
C. .csv
D. .pdf
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
To control telephony costs, management wants to restrict who can place long distance calls. Which two options allow for this restriction? (Choose two.)
A. calling search space
B. partitions
C. route groups
D. SIP trunk
E. gateway
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 18
An end user reports that conference calls are failing. Which fault domain should be investigated first?
A. IP phone
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Media Resources
C. voice gateways
D. network routers and switches
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
Which two tools can be used to measure the quality of a VoIP call? (Choose two.)
A. QoS configuration tool
B. mean opinion score tool
C. bulk administration tool
D. jitter compensation tool
E. rFactor tool
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 20
Which three locations can an administrator import from to create users on Cisco Unity Connection? (Choose three.)
A. Bulk administration tool
B. LDAP
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager via AXL
D. Outlook
E. Presence
F. Cisco Compatible Extensions
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 21
Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager device report provides key information to determine if an additional gateway is needed?
A. Gateway utilization
B. Gateway summary
C. Gateway detail
D. Gateway and line group utilization
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 22
Which three choices are functions or features of Cisco Unity Connection? (Choose three.)
A. video-enabled messaging through converged networks
B. text-to-speech, which allows access to Exchange emails from a telephone
C. voice-enabled message navigation
D. voice-enabled dialing to external users
E. automated attendant capabilities
F. automated call rerouting to agents through round robin, longest idle, or broadcast
Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 23
A network engineer must set up an end-user account for a SIP device to use for authentication. Which end-user information is used for SIP authentication?
A. account ID
B. password
C. PIN
D. digest credentials
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 24
An engineer is configuring the Cisco Unified Communications Manager disaster recovery system. Which three statements about the disaster recovery system are true? (Choose three.)
A. It requires the use of schedules for backups.
B. Backup files are encrypted using the cluster security password.
C. If the backup device is listed in a backup schedule, it cannot be manually deleted.
D. If the backup does not complete within 40 hours, the backup times out.
E. Archiving backups to tape drives is supported.
F. SSL is used between the master and local agents.
Correct Answer: BCF

QUESTION 25
Which option is added number phone configuration is Cisco Unified Communicator Manager to add conference bridge resource to the phone
A. Media Resource Group
B. Conference Resource list
C. Conference Bridge
D. Media Resource Group List
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 26
End user is on a cisco telepresence session with remote participant and can control the camera at the remote endpoint. 210-060 dumps Which feature is underlying?
A. FECC
B. DTMF
C. FEC
D. PIP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 27
A voice engineer has installed an XML-based phone application from a third party and subscribed a user’s 7945 IP phone to the application. Which action does the user take to launch the new service on the IP phone?
A. Select the Applications button on the 7945 IP phone.
B. Select Settings > Applications.
C. Select Settings > Network > Applications.
D. Select the Services button on the 7945 IP phone.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 28
Which two explanations of DTMF dialing are true? (Choose two.)
A. DTMF dialing consists of simultaneous voice-band tones generated when a button is pressed on a telephone.
B. The use of DTMF enables support for advanced telephony services.
C. DTMF dialing uses INVITE messages to signal when the first digit is pressed in a new call.
D. DTMF dialing consists of a simultaneous digital-band pulse generated when a button is pressed on a telephone.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 29
A Cisco administrator is asked to set up two new end users in Cisco Unified Communication Manager. Which two fields are required? (Choose two.)
A. First Name
B. User ID
C. PIN
D. Telephone Number
E. Password
F. Last Name
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 30
A user reports that during calls they hear excessive hissing when neither party is talking.
Which option is one cause of this noise?
A. QoS
B. LoPS
C. VAD
D. EPL
E. SRST
Correct Answer: C

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