Lead4Pass MS-600 Dumps is the best material for Microsoft role-based MS-600 exam

Microsoft, Microsoft Role-based, ms-600, MS-600 Building Applications and Solutions with Microsoft 365 Core Services, ms-600 dumps, ms-600 exam, MS-600 exam pdf, MS-600 Exam questions, MS-600 Practice test
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Lead4Pass MS-600 Dumps contains 185 latest exam questions and answers, as well as PDF and VCE two most portable study tools to help candidates complete all exam questions efficiently and finally pass the exam successfully.

Read some MS-600 exam questions and answers online

Number of exam questionsExam nameExam codeLast dumps
15Building Applications and Solutions with Microsoft 365 Core ServicesMS-600MS-600 dumps
Question 1:

You are building email notifications for an expensing system.

When a user receives an email notification, the email will contain a comment field. When the user submits a comment, the data will be returned to the expensing system for processing.

What should you do to implement the notification by using the minimum amount of development effort?

A. Create a Microsoft Office Add-in that has an action pane to display the notifications

B. Leverage Microsoft Graph notifications

C. Leverage the Azure SignalR Service and implement web notifications

D. Configure the expensing system to send actionable messages

Correct Answer: D

Whether you are filling out a survey, approving an expense report, or updating a CRM sales opportunity, Actionable Messages enable you to take quick actions right from within Outlook. Developers can now embed actions in their emails or

notifications, elevating user engagement with their services and increasing organizational productivity.

Office 365 provides two solutions to enhance productivity with Outlook Actionable Messages: actionable messages via email, and actionable messages via Office 365 Connectors.

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/outlook/actionable-messages/

Question 2:

DRAG DROP

You need to implement the role functionality for the backend web service calls.

Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

Select and Place:

ms-600 questions 2

Correct Answer:

ms-600 questions 2-1

Question 3:

This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.

You can use App Studio for Microsoft Teams to develop all the components of a bot application.

Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct.

A. No change is needed

B. configure a Teams tab in an application

C. develop a SharePoint Framework (SPFx) web part

D. provision a bot by using the Bot Framework

Correct Answer: B

Tabs provide a place for you to display rich interactive web content. You can define both personal and team tabs.

There can be only 1 team tab per app, but up to 16 personal tabs per app.

Incorrect Answers:

D: Bots that you create in Microsoft Bot Framework can be specified in an App manifest and included as Teams Apps. Reference: https://blog.thoughtstuff.co.uk/2019/04/what-is-app-studio-in-microsoft-teams-and-why-do-i-care/

Question 4:
ms-600 questions 4

HOTSPOT

You are developing a single-page application (SPA) named App1 that will be used by the public. Many users of App1 restrict pop-up windows from opening in their browsers. You need to authenticate the users by using the Microsoft identity platform. The solution must meet the following requirements:

*

Ensure that App1 can read the profile of a user.

*

Minimize user interaction during authentication.

*

Prevent App1 from requiring admin consent for any permissions.

How should you complete the code? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

ms-600 questions 4-1

Correct Answer:

ms-600 questions 4-2

Question 5:

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets have more than one correct solution, while others

might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.

You are developing a new application named App1 that uses the Microsoft identity platform to authenticate to Azure Active Directory (Azure AD).

Currently, App1 can read user profile information.

You need to allow App1 to read the user\’s calendar.

Solution: Add https://graph.windows.net/user.read to the list of scopes during the initial login request.

Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes

B. No

Correct Answer: B

Microsoft Graph Calendars. Read allows the app to read events in user calendars.

For your app to access data in Microsoft Graph, the user or administrator must grant it the correct permissions via a consent process.

Application permissions are used by apps that run without a signed-in user present; for example, apps that run as background services or daemons. Application permissions can only be consented to by an administrator.

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/develop/v2-permissions-and-consent

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/graph/permissions-reference

Question 6:

You have a line-of-business API that is secured by using Azure Active Directory (Azure AD).

You deploy a solution to the app catalog. The solution requests permission to the API.

What should you do in the SharePoint admin center to ensure that the solution can access the API?

A. Create a SharePoint security group and add the solution

B. Create an access policy

C. Enable sandbox solutions

D. Approve a pending permission request

Correct Answer: D

Developers building a SharePoint Framework solution that requires access to specific resources secured with Azure AD list these resources along with the required permission scopes in the solution manifest.

When deploying the solution package to the app catalog, SharePoint creates permission requests and prompts the administrator to manage the requested permissions.

For each requested permission, tenant administrators can decide whether they want to grant or deny the specific permission. All permissions are granted to the whole tenant and not to a specific application that has requested them.

When the tenant administrator grants specific permission, it is added to the SharePoint Online Client Extensibility Azure AD application, which is provisioned by Microsoft in every Azure AD and which is used by the SharePoint Framework in the OAuth flow to provide solutions with valid access tokens.

Question 7:

You have a single-page application (SPA) named TodoListSPA and a server-based web app named TodoListService.

The permissions for the TodoList SPA API are configured as shown in the TodoList SPA exhibit. (Click the TodoListSPA tab.)

ms-600 questions 7

The permissions for the TodoListService API are configured as shown in the TodoListService exhibit. (Click the TodoListService tab.)

ms-600 questions 7-1

You need to ensure that TodoListService can access a Microsoft OneDrive file of the signed-in user. The solution must use the principle of least privilege. Which permission should to grant?

A. the Sites.Read.All delegated permission for TodoListService

B. the Sites.Read.All delegated permission for TodoListSpa

C. the Sites.Read.All application permission for TodoListSPA

D. the Sites.Read.All application permission for TodoListService

Correct Answer: A

A client application gains access to a resource server by declaring permission requests. Two types are available:

“Delegated” permissions, which specify scope-based access using delegated authorization from the signed-in resource owner, are presented to the resource at run-time as “SCP” claims in the client\’s access token. “Application” permissions,

which specify role-based access using the client application\’s credentials/identity, are presented to the resource at run-time as “roles” claims in the client\’s access token.

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/develop/developer-glossary#permissions

Question 8:

You are building a Microsoft Outlook add-in.

Which object should you use to save additional information in an email?

A. CustomProperties

B. CustomXMLParts

C. RoamingSettings

D. localStorage

Correct Answer: B

Question 9:

You need to display the profile picture of the currently signed-in user. Which REST query should you use to retrieve the picture?

A. GET me photo $value

B. GET / me/photos/0

C. GET /users/ {UserPricincipleName} / photo

D. GET / me/ photo

Correct Answer: D

Question 10:

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

ms-600 questions 10

Correct Answer:

ms-600 questions 10-1

Box 1: No Box 2: Yes

ms-600 questions 10-2

The partial table lists the events that your bot can receive and take action on.

Box 3: Yes

The messageReaction event is sent when a user adds or removes his or her reaction to a message which was originally sent by your bot.

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoftteams/platform/resources/bot-v3/bots-notifications

Question 11:

You need to develop an add-in for Microsoft Excel that can be used from the Windows, Mac, and web versions of Excel.

What are two ways to develop the add-in? Does each correct answer present a complete solution?

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. From Microsoft Teams, install App Studio

B. From Microsoft Visual Studio that has the Microsoft Office/SharePoint development workload installed, create a new project that uses a Web Add-in template

C. From the Microsoft Office 365 portal, use Microsoft PowerApps

D. Use the Yeoman generator for Microsoft Office Add-ins to create the project, and then open the project in Microsoft Visual Studio Code

E. From Microsoft Visual Studio that has the Microsoft Office/SharePoint development workload installed, create a new project that uses a Visual Studio Tools for Office (VSTO) template

Correct Answer: DE

D: Run the following command to create an add-in project using the Yeoman generator: yo office Visual Studio Code is a great tool to help you develop your custom Office Add-ins regardless if they are for Outlook, Word, Excel, PowerPoint and run in web clients, Windows clients, iOS clients or on macOS. Open the project in Visual

Studio Code by entering the following on the command line from within the same folder where you ran the generator: code.

E: You can create VSTO Add-ins for Excel.

To create a new Excel VSTO Add-in project in Visual Studio

2.

Start Visual Studio.

3.

On the File menu, point to New, and then click Project.

4.

In the templates pane, expand Visual C# or Visual Basic, and then expand Office/SharePoint.

5.

Under the expanded Office/SharePoint node, select the Office Add-ins node.

6.

In the list of project templates, select Excel 2010 Add-in or Excel 2013 Add-in.

7.

In the Name box, type FirstExcelAddIn.

8.

Click OK. Visual Studio creates the FirstExcelAddIn project and opens the ThisAddIn code file in the editor.

References:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office/dev/add-ins/tutorials/excel-tutorial https://code.visualstudio.com/docs/other/office#_use-visual-studio-code-to-develop-your-office-addin https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/visualstudio/vsto/walkthrough-creating-your-first-vsto-add-in-for-excel

Question 12:

You need to protect the backend web service to meet the technical requirements.

Which four actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

Select and Place:

ms-600 questions 12

Correct Answer:

ms-600 questions 12-1

Here is a quick overview of the steps:

Step 1: Register an application in Azure AD for the backend web service

Register an application (backend app) in Azure AD to represent the API.

Step 2: Set the App ID URI for the backend service application registration

When the application is created (step 1) select Expose an API and click on Save and continue to create an Application ID URI.

Step 3: Defend the scopes in the backend web service application registration

In the Add, a scope page, create a new scope supported by the API. (e.g., Read) then click on Add scope to create the scope. Repeat this step to add all scopes supported by your API.

Step 4: Register an application in Azure AD for E-invoicing.

Step 4.1 Register another application in Azure AD to represent a client application

Step 4.2 Now that you have registered two applications to represent the API and the Developer Console, you need to grant permission to allow the client app to call the backend app.

Scenario:

Secure access to the backend web service by using Azure AD

E-invoicing will have an internal logic that will dynamically identify whether the user should be allowed to call the backend API.

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/api-management/api-management-howto-protect-backend-with-aad

Question 13:

You need to develop a SharePoint Framework (SPFx) solution that interacts with Microsoft SharePoint and Teams. The solution must share the same code base. What should you include in the solution?

A. Include the Microsoft Authentication Library for .NET (MSALNET) in the solution.

B. Grant admin consent to the Teams API.

C. Make the code aware of the Teams context and the SharePoint context.

D. Publish the solution to an Azure App Service.

Correct Answer: A

Question 14:

You have a SharePoint Framework (SPFx) 1.5 solution.

You need to ensure that the solution can be used as a tab in Microsoft Teams.

What should you do first?

A. Convert the solution to use the Bot Framework

B. Deploy the solution to a developer site collection

C. Deploy the solution to the Microsoft AppSource store

D. Upgrade the solution to the latest version of SPFx

Correct Answer: D

Starting with the SharePoint Framework v1.8, you can implement your Microsoft Teams tabs using SharePoint Framework.

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sharepoint/dev/spfx/web-parts/get-started/using-web-part-as-ms-teams-tab

Question 15:

You are developing a mobile application that will display the currently signed-in user\’s display name and the application settings. The application settings are stored as a Microsoft graph extension of the user profile. Users of the application have

intermittent network connectivity. You need to retrieve the least amount of data by using a single REST request. The solution must minimize network traffic.

Which URI Should you use to retrieve the data?

ms-600 questions 15

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Correct Answer: C

…

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[Oct 2022] CCNP Collaboration 300-810 CLICA exam questions latest update from Lead4Pass

300-810 dumps, 300-810 exam questions, 300-810 Implementing Cisco Collaboration Applications (CLICA), 300-810 practice test, Cisco, Cisco CCNP

Lead4Pass continues to share the latest 15 CCNP Collaboration 300-810 CLICA exam questions and answers to help you study online, welcome to download the 300-810 dumps provided by Lead4Pass: https://www.lead4pass.com/300-810.html Contains 59 practical and valid exam questions and answers, and provides PDF files and VCE simulation tools to help you quickly learn and pass the CCNP Collaboration 300-810 CLICA exam.

Number of exam questionsExam nameFromRelease timePrevious issue
15Implementing Cisco Collaboration Applications (CLICA)Lead4PassOct 10, 2022300-810 exam dumps questions (Q1-Q13)

Continue to study CCNP Collaboration 300-810 CLICA exam knowledge:

New Question 14:

Refer to the exhibit.

CCNP Collaboration 300-810 CLICA exam questions 14

An administrator is troubleshooting an issue with XMPP Federation between two. eight-node IM and Presence clusters. After looking at the logs, the administrator finds this message and must publish one or more DNS SRV records containing one or more addresses of the IM and Presence node(s). How many nodes must be selected to publish?

A. 1

B. 5

C. 10

D. 20

Correct Answer: A

New Question 15:

In the integration of Cisco Unity Connection using SIP, which SIP trunk security profile option is required for MWI to work correctly?

A. Accept out-of-dialog refer

B. Accept replaces header

C. Accept unsolicited notification

D. Accept presence subscription

Correct Answer: C

New Question 16:

Which CLI command is used to collect traces from the Cisco Presence engine for seven days?

A. file build log cisco_presence_engine 7

B. file build log cisco_presence 168

C. file build log presence_engine 7

D. file build log presence_engine 168

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/im_presence/configAdminGuide/12_0_1/cup0_b_config-admin-guide-imp-1201/cup0_b_config-admin-guide-imp-1201_chapter_010101.html

New Question 17:

An administrator is configuring call handlers in Cisco Unity Connection. The administrator must ensure that internal extensions are restricted so that callers must go through the company operator to reach employees, and so that callers hear an error message if they attempt to dial extensions directly. Which setting is configured to accomplish this task?

A. Transfer Rules

B. Caller Input

C. Greetings

D. Message Settings

Correct Answer: B

New Question 18:

Which two SSO features are true? (Choose two.)

A. allows Jabber to use LDAP directory services for contact imports

B. allows LDAP user import on Cisco Unified Communications Manager

C. improves productivity by reducing time spent re-entering credentials for the same identity

D. transfers the authentication from the system that hosts the applications to a third-party system

E. reduces costs by decreasing the number of help calls that are made for voicemail PIN resets

Correct Answer: CD

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/SAML_SSO_deployment_guide/11_0_1/CUCM_BK_SF9D0502_00_saml-sso-deployment-guide-1101/CUCM_BK_SF9D0502_00_saml-sso-deployment-guide11_chapter_01.html

New Question 19:

An administrator must configure a federation between company A and company B using the SIP/simple protocol. What are the configuration items that are available?

A. Port 5061; TLS encryption; Instant Messaging, Presence, and VoIP support

B. no encryption; Instant Messaging, Presence, and VoIP support

C. port 5222; TLS encryption; Instant Messaging, Presence, and VoIP support

D. no encryption; Instant Messaging support

Correct Answer: A

New Question 20:

An engineer is importing users into Cisco Unity Connection using AXL and discovers that some users are not listed in the import view. Which action should be taken to resolve this issue?

A. Configure the user primary extension to their directory number.

B. Configure the user digest credentials to match the user password.

C. Configure the user access control group assignment to Standard CTI Enabled.

D. Configure the username and password in LDAP.

Correct Answer: A

New Question 21:

Refer to the exhibit.

CCNP Collaboration 300-810 CLICA exam questions 21

A Jabber user is unable to access voicemail. During troubleshooting, an administrator captures this screenshot. What are the two ways to resolve this issue? (Choose two.)

A. Ask the user to click on the Connect to a device” button and use the correct username and password.

B. Ensure the user is not locally created on Cisco Unity Connection with a password expiring separately from the password that is used for Jabber.

C. Make sure the Jabber service profile created in Cisco UCM contains Unity Connection UC service with a voicemail server configured.

D. Ask an administrator to create an account for this user in Cisco Unity Connection but remove the Unity Connection UC service from the Cisco UCM Jabber service profile. Check if “OAuth with Refresh Login Flow” is enabled on Cisco Unity Connection but disabled in Cisco UCM.

Correct Answer: AB

New Question 22:

Which SAML component defines the content of data transferred from an IdP to a service provider?

A. protocol

B. assertion

C. binding

D. profiles

Correct Answer: B

New Question 23:

Which Cisco IM and Presence service must be activated and running for IM Presence to successfully integrate with Cisco Unified Communications Manager?

A. Cisco DHCP Monitor Service

B. Cisco AXL Web Service

C. Self-Provisioning IVR

D. Cisco XCP Authentication Service

Correct Answer: B

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/im_presence/configAdminGuide/12_0_1/cup0_b_config-admin-guide-imp-1201/cup0_b_config-admin-guide-imp-1201_chapter_0100.html

New Question 24:

Which two command line arguments can you specify when installing Cisco Jabber for windows? (Choose two.)

A. CISCO_UDS_DOMAIN

B. TFTP_ADDRESS

C. VOICEMAIL_SERVER_ADDRESS

D. SERVICES_DOMAIN

E. TFTP

Correct Answer: DE

New Question 25:

Refer to the exhibit.

CCNP Collaboration 300-810 CLICA exam questions 25

An administrator troubleshoots push notifications, and Cisco TAC requests the trace files from the cluster. From which location should the files be collected?

CCNP Collaboration 300-810 CLICA exam questions 25-1

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Correct Answer: B

New Question 26:

Refer to the exhibit

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CCNP Collaboration 300-810 CLICA exam questions 26

Users complain that the message waiting light on the IP phone does not light up when receiving a new voicemail With which codec must the engineer configure a dial peer on Cisco UCME for MW1 traffic to resolve this issue?

A. G.729r8

B. G.729ar8

C. G.711ulaw

D. G.711alaw

Correct Answer: C

New Question 27:

What prevents toll fraud on voicemail ports?

A. IP address trusted list on the PSTN gateway

B. CSS

C. Block OffNet to OffNet Transfer service parameter

D. FAC

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/unified-communications/unity-connection/119337-technote-cuc-00.html

New Question 28:

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer assists a user who reports that the voicemall notifications show correctly on the desk phone are not available in the jabber client. Which action resolves this issue?

A. Reset the Jabber client and have the user sign in again

B. Set the voicemail profile on the user\’s line on the CSF device.

C. Configure the voicemail profile on the user\’s service profile

D. Ensure that the voicemail server is listed in the user\’s CTI profile

Correct Answer: C

…

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Latest updates Cisco 350-401 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1:

What is the correct EBGP path attribute list, ordered from most preferred to the least preferred, that the BGP best-path Does algorithm use?

A. weight. AS path, local preference. MED
B. weight, local preference AS path, MED
C. local preference weight AS path, MED
D. local preference, weight MED, AS path

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2:

Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the correct routing protocol types on the right.
Select and Place:

lead4pass 350-401 exam questions q1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 350-401 exam questions q1-1

QUESTION 3:

At which Layer does the Cisco DNA Center support REST controls?

A. EEM applets or scripts
B. Session layer
C. YMAL output from responses to API calls
D. Northbound APIs

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4:

A network is being migrated from IPV4 to IPV6 using a dual-stack approach. Network management is already 100%
IPV6 enabled.
In a dual-stack network with two dual-stack NetFlow collections, how many flow exporters are needed per network device in the flexible NetFlow configuration?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5:

Which two descriptions of FlexConnect mode for Cisco APs are true? (Choose two.)

A. APS that operate in FlexConnect mode cannot detect rogue APs.
B. FlexConnect mode is used when the APs are set up in a mesh environment and used to bridge between each other.
C. FlexConnect mode is a feature that is designed to allow specified CAPWAP-enabled APs to exclude themselves from
managing data traffic between clients and infrastructure.
D. When connected to the controller, FlexConnect APs can tunnel traffic back to the controller.
E. FlexConnect mode is a wireless solution for branch office and remote office deployments.

Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 6:

To increase total throughput and redundancy on the links between the wireless controller and switch, the customer
enabled LAG on the wireless controller. Which EtherChannel mode must be configured on the switch to allow the WLC
to connect?

A. Auto
B. Active
C. On
D. Passive

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7:

Refer to the exhibit.

lead4pass 350-401 exam questions q7

Assuming that R is a CE router, which VRF is assigned to Gi0/0 on R1?

A. VRF VPN_B
B. Default VRF
C. Management VRF
D. VRF VPN_A

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8:

Which statement about agent-based versus agentless configuration management tools is true?

A. Agentless tools require no messaging systems between masters and slaves.
B. Agentless tools use proxy nodes to interface with slave nodes.
C. Agent-based tools do not require a high-level language interpreter such as Python or Ruby on slave nodes.
D. Agent-based tools do not require the installation of additional software packages on the slave nodes.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9:

Which LISP infrastructure device provides connectivity between non-sites and LISP sites by receiving non-LISP traffic
with a LISP site destination?

A. PETR
B. PITR
C. map resolver
D. map server

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10:
lead4pass 350-401 exam questions q10

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is designing a guest portal on Cisco ISE using the default configuration. During the
testing phase, the engineer receives a warning when displaying the guest portal. Which issue is occurring?

A. The server that is providing the portal has an expired certificate
B. The server that is providing the portal has a self-signed certificate
C. The connection is using an unsupported protocol
D. The connection is using an unsupported browser

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11:

Which technology provides a secure communication channel for all traffic at Layer 2 of the OSI model?

A. MACsec
B. IPsec
C. SSL
D. Cisco Trusts

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12:

Which two pieces of information are necessary to compute SNR? (Choose two.)

A. EIRP
B. noise floor
C. antenna gain
D. RSSI
E. transmit power

Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 13:

Which behavior can be expected when the HSRP versions are changed from 1 to 2?

A. Each HSRP group reinitializes because the virtual MAC address has changed.
B. No changes occur because versions 1 and 2 use the same virtual MAC OUI.
C. Each HSRP group reinitializes because the multicast address has changed.
D. No changes occur because the standby router is upgraded before the active router.

Correct Answer: A

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Tips: The answer is announced at the end of the article

QUESTION 1:

Which is a function performed by the dedicated third radio in MR access points?

A. RF optimization (Auto RF)
B. WLAN controller
C. Site survey planning
D. DHCP addressing

QUESTION 2:

Which feature solution of Cisco DNA Center drives the concept of SLA and guarantees that the infrastructure is doing
what do you intend it to do?

A. Cisco DNA Assurance
B. Cisco ACI Anywhere
C. Cisco DNA Spaces
D. Cisco HyperFlex

QUESTION 3:

Which approach describes the high-velocity Cisco Meraki sales cycle?

A. See, Try, Buy
B. Compete, Pilot, Support
C. POC, QandA, Rollout
D. Discover, Design, Demo

QUESTION 4:

What would be an indicator that a customer could benefit from a Meraki cloud-managed network?

A. Customer needs modular hardware customization and granular, command-line level interfacing

B. Customer prefers direct access to on-premises appliances and servers via in-line terminal management

C. Customer requires end-to-end visibility and a network that can be quickly deployed and easily managed by a limited
IT stat

D. Customer seeks to implement a diverse solution of firewalls with 3rd party integration alongside other clouds
application.

QUESTION 5:

What is the interface used to access the Cisco Meraki Dashboard?

A. Web browser
B. Terminal (Mac) or Command Prompt (Windows)
C. Cisco Los command-line interface (CLI)
D. Secure Shell (SSH)

QUESTION 6:

What do customers using the ISR 4000 and ISR 1100 series routers need to do to enable the Web User interface?

A. nothing, it is configured by default
B. purchase a license and configure an admin account for up to 5 routers
C. complete a configuration process with help from Cisco support
D. purchase a license for the browser-based system

QUESTION 7:

What is one benefit of Cisco Umbrella?

A. view of the network at a fixed point in the past to troubleshoot issues
B. protection against command-and-control callbacks
C. easy hardware installation
D. real-time telemetry

QUESTION 8:

What is one of the key drivers of growing security threats in the market?

A. comprehensive security solutions
B. security solution fragmentation
C. increased demand for cybersecurity professionals
D. hardware with integrated security solution

QUESTION 9:

What is the term given to cloud-brokered site-to-site VPN tunnels built using Cisco Meraki MX Security Appliances?

A. Auto-provisioning IPsec VPN (Auto VPN)
B. Secure Shell tunneling (SSH)
C. Generic Routing Encapsulation (GRE)
D. Dynamic Multipoint VPN (DMVPN)

QUESTION 10:

Which Cisco product is the network management system, foundational controller, and analytics platform all the center of
……. network?

A. Cisco DNA Spaces
B. Cisco Meraki
C. Cisco DNA Center
D. Cisco Wireless Solutions

QUESTION 11:

What is the one-way Catalyst 9200 that achieves IT simplicity?

A. view all network devices on a single pane of glass dashboard
B. remote wipe any device on the network
C. direct access devices wirelessly via OTA with Bluetooth
D. enable virtual stacking

QUESTION 12:

What is Cisco Switch Selector?

A. a tool that can help customers compare options and identify the right switch for their needs
B. a dashboard view of all an enterprise\’s switches
C. a configuration tool that helps small business customers rapidly deploy a new switch
D. a cloud-based solution to optimize network performance

QUESTION 13:

Which three product capabilities allow Cisco DNA Spaces to deliver business value?

A. Sense, Act, and Partner
B. View, Interpret, and Act
C. See, Anticipate and Respond
D. See, Act, and Extend

……

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QUESTION 1:

What are two ways that Cisco helps customers secure loT deployments? (Choose two.)

A. network analysis
B. secure remote access
C. segmentation and visibility
D. cross-architecture automation
E. limited access points

Correct Answer: CE

 

QUESTION 2:

Which statement best embodies trust-centric security?

A. Protect users from attacks by enabling strict security policies.
B. Prevent attacks via an intelligence-based policy then detect, investigate, and remediate.
C. Verify before granting access via identity-based policies for users, devices, apps, and locations.
D. Verify before granting access via MDM software.

Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 3:

In which two ways should companies modernize their security philosophies? (Choose two.)

A. Expand their IT departments
B. Decrease internal access and reporting
C. Complement threat-centric tactics with trust-centric methods
D. Reinforce their threat-centric security tactics
E. Rebuild their security portfolios with new solutions

Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 4:

In the Campus, NGFW use case, which capability is provided by NGFW and NGIPS?

A. Flexible AAA Options
B. Identity Services Engine
C. Differentiated Mobile Access
D. High throughput maintained while still protecting domains against threats

Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 5:

What are two steps customers can take to evolve to a trust-centric security philosophy? (Choose two.)

A. Require and install agents on mobile devices.
B. Block BYOD devices.
C. Limit internal access to networks
D. Always verify and never trust everything inside and outside the perimeter.
E. Only grant access to authorized users and devices.

Correct Answer: BE

 

QUESTION 6:

What are the three key benefits of Cisco NGFW? (Choose three.)

A. Reduces throughput
B. Prepares defenses
C. Reduces complexity
D. Identifies anomalous traffic
E. Detects and remediates threats faster
F. Increases traffic latency

Correct Answer: BCE

 

QUESTION 7:

Which feature of AnyConnect provides better access security across wired and wireless connections with 802.1X?

A. Trusted Network Detection
B. Secure Layer 2 Network Access
C. Flexible AAA Options
D. AnyConnect with AMP

Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 8:

What are the two key capabilities of Meraki? (Choose two.)

A. application visibility and control
B. security automation
C. contextual awareness
D. device profiling
E. identity-based and device-aware security

Correct Answer: AD

 

QUESTION 9:

What does Cisco provide via Firepower\\’s simplified, consistent management?

A. Reduced complexity
B. Improved speed to security
C. Reduced downtime
D. Higher value

Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 10:

What is a key feature of Duo?

A. Provides SSL VPN
B. Authenticates user identity for remote access
C. Automates policy creation for IT staff
D. Supports pxGrid

Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 11:

Which two loT environment layers are protected by AMP for Endpoints? (Choose two.)

A. Internet/Cloud
B. Control Layer
C. Data Center
D. Access Points
E. Things

Correct Answer: BD

 

QUESTION 12:

Which two Cisco products help manage data access policy consistently? (Choose two.)

A. Duo
B. Cloudlock
C. AMPforEndpoints
D. pxGrid
E. Steathwatch

Correct Answer: BD

 

QUESTION 13:

Which two loT environment layers are protected by Stealthwatch? (Choose two.)

A. Things
B. Endpoints
C. Internet/Cloud
D. Access Points
E. Control Layer

Correct Answer: AD

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QUESTION 1:

A wireless engineer is using an Ekahau site survey to validate that an existing wireless network is operating as expected, which type of survey should be used to identify the end-to-end network performance?

A. GPS assisted
B. Spectrum analysis
C. Passive
D. Active ping

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://support.ekahau.com/hc/en-us/articles/115004973067-Spectrum-Analysis-Surveys

 

QUESTION 2:

A customer called with a requirement that internal clients must be on different subnets depending on the building they are in. All-access points are operating in local mode and will not be modified, and this is a single controller solution.

Which design approach creates the desired result?

A. Create AP groups for each desired location, map the correct VLANs to the internal SSID, and add the access points for that location.

B. Create an SSID place it to the desired VLAN under WLANs and configure 802.1x in ISE to assign the correct VLAN based on the SSID from which the client is authenticating

C. Create FlexConnect groups, place the access points in and set the correct VLAN to SSID mapping based on location.

D. Create mobility anchors for the SSID and on the controller under the internal SSID create a foreign map to the desired VLAN based on location.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wireless-mobility/wireless-vlan/71477-ap-group-vlans-wlc.html

 

QUESTION 3:

A customer has two Cisco 550B WLCs that manage all the access points in their network and provide N+1 redundancy and load balancing. The primary Cisco WLC has 60 licenses and the secondary Cisco WLC has 40. The customer wants to convert the N+1 model to an HA model and provide SSO. Configuration must be performed during a maintenance window. After performing all the configurations on both controllers, the config redundancy unit secondary command is
issued on the secondary Cisco WLC and it fails.

Which parameter needs to be in place to complete the configuration?

A. A cable in the RP port
B. The secondary Cisco WLC needs a minimum of 50 base licenses
C. The primary Cisco WLC is already set as the secondary unit.
D. SSO needs to be enabled

Correct Answer: B

Reference:

 
QUESTION 4:

An engineer is designing a wireless deployment for a university auditorium. Which two features can be used to help deal
with the issues introduced by high AP count? (Choose two.)

A. TSPEC
B. RXSOP
C. TPC
D. LSS
E. DFS

Correct Answer: CE

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wireless-mobility/80211/200069-Overview-on-802-11h-Transmit-Power-Cont.html

 

QUESTION 5:

An engineer must repurpose a lab WLC appliance for use in the production environment of the enterprise. After the new WLC is configured with the information of the other WLC, the mobility tunnels are still not coming up. What is the reason?

A. A firewall is blocking UDP port 16667 between the WLCs.
B. The WLC management interfaces are in the same VLAN.
C. The hardware platform is incompatible.
D. The mobility groups are different.

Correct Answer: D

……

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Latest updates Cisco CCNP Enterprise 300-425 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
An engineer must ensure that the new wireless LAN deployment can support seamless roaming between access points
using a standard based on an amendment to the 802.11 protocol. Which protocol must the engineer select?
A. 802.11i
B. 802.11ac
C. 802.11r
D. 802.11e
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
A wireless engineer is utilizing the voice readiness tool in Cisco Prime for a customer that wants to deploy Cisco IP
phones. Which dBm range is the network inspected against?
A. -78 to -65 dBm
B. -72 to -67 dBm
C. -85 to -65 dBm
D. -85 to -67 dBm
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
An engineer is reducing the subnet size of the corporate WLAN by segmenting the VLAN into smaller subnets. Clients
will be assigned a subnet by location. Which type of groups can the engineer use to map the smaller subnets to the
corporate WLAN?
A. WLC port groups
B. RF groups
C. AP groups
D. interface groups
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
During a client roaming event, which device is responsible for communicating the new Layer 2 EID mapping of a
wireless supplicant to the fabric domain?
A. WLC
B. BN
C. CP2
D. CP1
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which non-Wi-Fi interferer can be identified by Metageek Chanalyzer?
A. PDAs
B. jammers
C. smartphones
D. printers
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Which two considerations must a network engineer have when planning for voice over wireless roaming? (Choose two.)
A. Full reauthentication introduces gaps in a voice conversation.
B. Roaming time increases when using 802.1x + Cisco Centralized Key Manegement.
C. Roaming occurs when the phone has seen at least four APs.
D. Roaming occurs when the phone has reached -80 dBs or below.
E. Roaming with only 802.1x authentication requires full reauthentication.
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 7
When conducting a site survey for real-time traffic over wireless, which two design capabilities of smartphones and
tablets must be considered? (Choose two.)
A. no support for 802.11ac
B. higher data rates than laptops
C. fewer antennas than laptops
D. no support for 802.11r
E. lower data rates than laptops
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 8
An engineer must decide the cell overlap for a wireless voice deployment. Which Cisco measurement recommendation
should be considered?
A. The edge of the cell should be -67 dBm.
B. The edge of the cell should be below 35 RSSI.
C. The measurement should be done on the 2.4-GHz band.
D. One AP should be deployed per 3000 square feet.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
A wireless deployment in a high-density environment is being used by vendors to process credit card payment
transactions via handheld mobile scanners. The scanners are having problems roaming between access points in the
environment. Which feature on the wireless controller should have been incorporated in the design?
A. RX SOP
B. 802.11w
C. AP Heartbeat Timeout
D. Application Visibility Control
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
An engineer has configured guest anchoring for a newly created SSD however, the mobility tunnels are not up, and
EPING is failing from the foreign WLC to the anchor WLC. Which traffic flow must be allowed at the firewall to enable
the communication?
A. UDP port 16666
B. IP protocol 97
C. UDP port 97
D. TCP port 97
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Clustering Cisco WLCs into a single RF group enables the RRM algorithms to scale beyond the capabilities of a single
Cisco WLC. How many WLC and APs in an RF group can the controller software scale up to in WLC release 8.9
depending on the platform?
A. up to 20 WLCs and 1000 APs
B. up to 20 WLCs and 3000 APs
C. up to 20 WLCs and 4000 APs
D. up to 20 WLCs and 6000 APs
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
A customer is running a guest WLAN with a foreign/export-anchor setup. There is one anchor WLC in the US and two in
Europe. Anchor WLC priorities are used to prefer local anchors. During a routine network audit, it is discovered that a
large number of guest client sessions in the US are anchored to the WLCs in Europe. Which reason explains this
behavior?
A. The foreign WLC failed and recovered.
B. The US anchor WLC failed and recovered.
C. The US anchor WLC is anchored to itself with a priority value of zero.
D. The anchor WLC is in the same mobility group.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
A customer is concerned about mesh backhaul link security. Which level of ecnryption does the backhaul link use?
A. hash
B. AES
C. WEP
D. 3DES
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1:

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must design an automatic failover solution. The solution should allow HSRP to detect a WAN 1 failure and initiate an automatic failover, making router R2 the active HSRP router. Which two solutions should the engineer choose? (Choose two.)

A. Implement Enhanced Object Tracking on roster R1
B. use a floating static route
C. Implement IP SLA on router R1
D. Implement PBR on router R1
E. use IP source routing

Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 2:

An engineer must design a VPN solution for a company that has multiple branches connecting to the main office. What are two advantages of using DMVPN instead of IPsec tunnels to accomplish this task? (Choose two.)

A. support for AES 256-bit encryption
B. greater scalability
C. support for anycast gateway
D. lower-traffic overhead
E. dynamic spoke-to-spoke tunnels

Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 3:

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is designing an OSPF network for a client. Requirements dictate that the routers in Area 1 should receive all routers belonging to the network, including EIGRP, except the ones originated in the RIP domain. Which action should the engineer take?

A. Make area 1 an NSSA.
B. Make area 1 a stub.
C. Make area 1 a standard OSPF area.
D. Make the area 1 router part of area 0.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4:

Which NETCONF operation creates filtering that is specific to the session notifications?

A.
B.
C.

D.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5:

A large chain of stores currently uses MPLS-based T1 lines to connect their stores to their data center. An architect must design a new solution to improve availability and reduce costs while keeping these considerations in mind:

1.
The company uses multicast to deliver training to the stores.
2.
The company uses dynamic routing protocols and has implemented QoS.
3.
To simplify deployments, tunnels should be created dynamically on the hub when additional stores open.
Which solution should be included in this design?

A. VPLS
B. GET VPN
C. DMVPN
D. IPsec

Correct Answer: C

……

Continue learning to see more free Cisco 300-420 exam questions

Latest updates Cisco CCNP Enterprise 300-420 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
Which feature is required for graceful restart to recover from a processor failure?
A. Cisco Express Forwarding
B. Virtual Switch System
C. Stateful Switchover
D. Bidirectional Forwarding Detection
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which nonproprietary mechanism can be used to automate rendezvous point distribution in a large PIM domain?
A. Embedded RP
B. BSR
C. Auto-RP
D. Static RP
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
An infrastructure team is concerned about the shared memory utilization of a device, and for this reason, they need to
monitor the device state. Which solution limits impact on the device and provides the required data?
A. IPFIX
B. static telemetry
C. on-change subscription
D. periodic subscription
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which control-plane technology allows the same subnet to exist across multiple network locations?
A. LISP
B. VXLAN
C. FabricPath
D. ISE mobility services
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which design consideration must be made when using IPv6 overlay tunnels?
A. Overlay tunnels that connect isolated IPv6 networks can be considered a final IPv6 network architecture.
B. Overlay tunnels should only be considered as a transition technique toward a permanent solution.
C. Overlay tunnels can be configured only between border devices and require only the IPv6 protocol stack.
D. Overlay tunneling encapsulates IPv4 packets in IPv6 packets for delivery across an IPv6 infrastructure.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
An engineer is designing an enterprise campus network. The LAN infrastructure consists of switches from multiple
vendors, and Spanning Tree must be used as a Layer 2 loop prevention mechanism. All configured VLANs must be
grouped in two SIP instances. Which standards-based Spanning Tree technology supports this design solution?
A. MSTP
B. RSTP
C. Rapid PVST
D. STP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
When a first hop redundancy solution is designed, which protocol ensures that load balancing occurs over multiple
routers using a single virtual IP address and multiple virtual MAC addresses?
A. GLBP
B. IRDP
C. VRRP
D. HSRP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
An engineer is looking for a standards-driven YANG model to manage a multivendor network environment. Which model
must the engineer choose?
A. Native
B. OpenConfig
C. IETF
D. IEEE NETCONF
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Which two best practices must be followed when designing an out-of-band management network? (Choose two.)
A. Enforce access control
B. Facilitate network integration
C. Back up data using the management network
D. Ensure that the management network is a backup to the data network
E. Ensure network isolation
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 10
Which two BGP features will result in successful route exchanges between eBGP neighbors sharing the same AS
number? (Choose two.)
A. advertise-best-external
B. bestpath as-path ignore
C. client-to-client reflection
D. as-override
E. allow-as-in
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 11
When a network is designed using IS-IS protocol, which two circuit types are supported? (Choose two.)
A. nonbroadcast multiaccess
B. multiaccess
C. point-to-multipoint
D. nonbroadcast
E. point-to-point
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 12
Which method will filter routes between EIGRP neighbors within the same autonomous system?
A. distribute-list
B. policy-based routing
C. leak-map
D. route tagging
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Company A recently acquired another company. Users of the newly acquired company must be able to access a server
that exists on Company A\\’s network, both companies use overlapping IP address ranges. Which action conserves IP
address space and provides access to the server?
A. Use a single IP address to create overload NAT
B. Use a single IP address to create a static NAT entry
C. Build one-to-one NAT translation for every user that needs access
D. Re-IP overlapping address space in the acquired company
Correct Answer: A

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The latest update NetApp NS0-175 dump with PDF and VCE from Lead4Pass

Cisco and NetApp FlexPod, NetApp, NS0-175 Cisco and NetApp FlexPod Design Specialist, NS0-175 exam dumps, NS0-175 exam questions, NS0-175 practice test, Uncategorized
netapp ns0-175 exam updated
This is the latest update of NetApp NS0-175 test questions and answers. You can take part in the free practice test on this site to test your abilities! To ensure that you successfully pass the NetApp NS0-175 exam, please visit the NetApp NS0-175 exam dump directly at https://www.lead4pass.com/ns0-175.html. If you are a novice, you can follow us for a long time! We will update the content for free throughout the year!

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All official Netapp certification information:https://www.netapp.com/support-and-training/netapp-learning-services/certifications/

Next, you can participate in the NetApp NS0-175 online practice test, and the answer will be announced at the end of the article. We will also share the free NetApp NS0-175 exam PDF!

NetApp NS0-175 free online practice test

QUESTION 1

A customer has configured a FlexPod solution and is experiencing issues with connectivity from the Cisco Nexus
switches to the NetApp AFF controllers. The customer must verify connectivity using the FC protocol. What are two
ways to troubleshoot this problem? (Choose two.)

A. Use the WWNN
B. Use the WWPN
C. Use the FCID
D. Use Domain ID

QUESTION 2

A customer wants to replace their Cisco UCS 6248UP with the current Cisco UCS 6454. They are currently using six 16
Gbit uplinks per Fabric Interconnect for FC and do not want to change the speed and number of ports used. In this
scenario, what is the minimum number of unified ports that must be configured for FC for a comparable configuration?

A. 8
B. 6
C. 16
D. 12

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/ucs-manager/GUI-User-Guides/NetworkMgmt/4-0/b_UCSM_Network_Mgmt_Guide_4_0/b_UCSM_Network_Mgmt_Guide_4_0_chapter_0100.html

QUESTION 3

A customer wants a low latency and high IOPS FlexPod solution and decides on an end-to-end NVMe design. In this
scenario, which three components are required to accomplish this task? (Choose three.)

A. NetApp FAS with a 32Gbps FC HBA
B. Cisco Application Policy Infrastructure Controller (APIC)
C. Cisco MDS Series switches
D. NetApp AFF with a 32Gbps FC HBA
E. Cisco UCS Virtual Interface Card (VIC) 1400 series

QUESTION 4

A customer wants a FlexPod solution that is designed for high-performance applications and that will support 32 Gbps
Fibre Channel block storage. In this scenario, which two components should you recommend to the customer? (Choose
two.)

A. NetApp AFF C190
B. NetApp AFF A800
C. Cisco Nexus 93180YC-FX
D. Cisco Nexus 9504

QUESTION 5

A customer has a FlexPod configuration that supports FC and uses Cisco MDS switches. The customer wants to add a
48-Port 32 Gbps Advanced Fibre Channel Switching blade to support both 32 Gbps FC and 32 Gbps NVMe-oF. In this
scenario, which Cisco switch is appropriate?

A. MDS 9250i
B. MDS 9706
C. MDS 9148S
D. MDS 9396S

QUESTION 6

You are designing a FlexPod solution with secure multitenancy for a company. Each department in the company wants
to use its own storage and to be integrated with Windows Active Directory. In this scenario, which three technologies
should be included in the design? (Choose three.)

A. IPspaces
B. NVMe
C. S3
D. CIFS
E. Storage Virtual Machine

QUESTION 7

In which two sources would you verify scale-out maximums for NetApp and Cisco UCS environments? (Choose two.)

A. Cisco Configurations Limits
B. Cisco UCS Hardware and Software Compatibility List
C. NetApp Hardware Universe
D. NetApp Interoperability Matrix

QUESTION 8

A partner wants to develop a FlexPod Datacenter solution for a customer that will use Cisco ACI.
In contrast to a FlexPod solution with NX-OS, which two additional requirements must be satisfied? (Choose two.)

A. Use two Cisco Application Policy Infrastructure Controllers (APICs)
B. Deploy the Cisco Nexus 900 Series Switches in a core-edge topology
C. Deploy the Cisco Nexus 900 Series Switches in a leaf-spine topology
D. Use three Cisco Application Policy Infrastructure Controllers (APICs)

QUESTION 9

Click the Exhibit button. Exhibit 1.

netapp ns0-175 exam questions q9
netapp ns0-175 exam questions q9-1
netapp ns0-175 exam questions q9-2

Referring to the exhibit, UCS Fabric Interconnect 6300-A fails as shown in Figure 1. Due to the storage LIF
configuration, after UCS Fabric Interconnect 6300-A is restored, traffic flows as shown in Figure 2. To enable this
capability, on which two UCS port types should storage VLANs be accessible? (Choose two.)

A. uplink ports
B. appliance ports
C. fabric ports
D. switch ports

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/ucs-manager/GUI-User-Guides/GettingStarted/3-2/b_UCSM_Getting_Started_Guide_3_2/b_UCSM_Getting_Started_Guide_3_2_chapter_010.pdf (8)

QUESTION 10

You have a FlexPod solution that consists of a NetApp AFF A800 storage system, a Cisco MDS 9148S switch, and a
Cisco UCS 6232 Fabric Interconnect. You want to upgrade NetApp ONTAP software on the AFF A800 to take
advantage of a new feature.
In this scenario, which three tools would enable you to verify if the upgrade would be performed safely? (Choose three.)

A. NetApp Interoperability Matrix Tool
B. Cisco Intersight
C. Cisco Data Center Network Manager
D. Cisco UCS Hardware and Software Compatibility List
E. NetApp Active IQ Upgrade Advisor

QUESTION 11

Which Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnect model has multiple 100 Gbps ports available for use?

A. Cisco UCS 6332
B. Cisco UCS 6324
C. Cisco UCS 6454
D. Cisco UCS 6332-16UP

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/products/collateral/servers-unified-computing/ucs-b-series-bladeservers/6400-specsheet.pdf

QUESTION 12

You are sizing a FlexPod Virtual Desktop solution for a customer with 500 virtual desktops in a shared Remote Desktop
Services (RDS) topology. In this scenario, which Cisco best practice should you use?

A. You should avoid placing more than 20 users per physical host
B. You should avoid over-committing physical CPU resources for virtual machines
C. You should avoid changing the virtual host disk queue depth
D. You should avoid multiple vCPUs per individual virtual machine

Reference: https://www.vmware.com/content/dam/digitalmarketing/vmware/en/pdf/techpaper/View51_on_FlexPod_Desi
gn_Guide.pdf

QUESTION 13

A customer is deploying a FlexPod Datacenter and planning to boot from SAN each their UCS blades using the Fibre
Channel Protocol. In this scenario, which three actions would accomplish their objective? (Choose three.)

A. Use only a pair of Cisco Nexus 9318YC-FX switches
B. Create a group on the NetApp ONTAP storage system with the appropriate IQs
C. Use only a pair of Cisco Nexus 9336C-FX2 switches
D. Use a pair of Cisco MDS 9148T and a fair of Cisco 9336C-FX2 switches together
E. Create a group on the NetApp ONTAP storage system with the appropriate WWPNs

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Microsoft Azure DP-200 exam exercise questions, DP-200 dumps easy to prepare for passing exams

Microsoft, Microsoft Azure

THIS EXAM RETIRED ON AUGUST 31, 2021. A replacement exam, DP-203, is available. For more information, visit the DP-203, exam details page.

Notice: All Microsoft certification practice questions will be updated in Fulldumps.com! Fulldumps contain full-year updates of Microsoft’s entire series, and the latest release of new words!

Maybe you should take a look at the latest update of the DP-203 exam content

This site has shared 19 popular Microsoft exam questions! If you want to view the early content, you can click here

“Implementing an Azure Data Solution” Exam DP-200. Candidates for this exam are Microsoft Azure data engineers who collaborate with business stakeholders to identify and meet the data requirements to implement data solutions that use Azure data services.

Azure data engineers are responsible for data-related tasks that include provisioning data storage services, ingesting streaming and batch data, transforming data, implementing security requirements, implementing data retention policies, identifying performance bottlenecks, and accessing external data sources.

Here you can get the latest free DP-200 exam exercise questions and answers for free and easily improve your skills!

DP-200 exam

Candidates for this exam must be able to implement data solutions that use the following Azure services: Azure Cosmos DB, Azure SQL Database, Azure SQL Data Warehouse, Azure Data Lake Storage, Azure Data Factory, Azure Stream Analytics, Azure Databricks, and Azure Blob storage.

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Watch the Microsoft Azure DP-200 video tutorial online （The latest update of the DP-203 exam content）

Table of Contents:

Latest Microsoft Azure DP-200 pdf

[PDF] Free Microsoft Azure DP-200 pdf dumps download from Google Drive: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1H70200WCZAc8N43RdlP4JVsNXdOm0D2U

Microsoft Certified: Azure Data Engineer Associate：https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/azure-data-engineer.aspx

Skills measured

  • Implement data storage solutions
  • Manage and develop data processing
  • Monitor and optimize data solutions
  • Design Azure data storage solutions
  • Design data processing solutions
  • Design for data security and compliance

Free Microsoft Azure DP-200 Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1

You are creating a managed data warehouse solution on Microsoft Azure. 

You must use PolyBase to retrieve data from Azure Blob storage that resides in parquet format and toad the data into a

large table called FactSalesOrderDetails. 

You need to configure Azure SQL Data Warehouse to receive the data. 

Which four actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to

the answer area and arrange them in the correct order. 

Select and Place:lead4pass dp-200 exam question q1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass dp-200 exam question q1-1

QUESTION 2
You manage security for a database that supports a line of business application.
Private and personal data stored in the database must be protected and encrypted.
You need to configure the database to use Transparent Data Encryption (TDE).
Which five actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, select the appropriate actions from the list of actions to
the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:lead4pass dp-200 exam question q2

Correct Answer:

lead4pass dp-200 exam question q2-1

Step 1: Create a master key
Step 2: Create or obtain a certificate protected by the master key
Step 3: Set the context to the company database
Step 4: Create a database encryption key and protect it by the certificate
Step 5: Set the database to use encryption
Example code: USE master; GO CREATE MASTER KEY ENCRYPTION BY PASSWORD = \\’\\’; go CREATE
CERTIFICATE MyServerCert WITH SUBJECT = \\’My DEK Certificate\\’; go USE AdventureWorks2012; GO CREATE
DATABASE ENCRYPTION KEY WITH ALGORITHM = AES_128 ENCRYPTION BY SERVER CERTIFICATE
MyServerCert; GO ALTER DATABASE AdventureWorks2012 SET ENCRYPTION ON; GO
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/relational-databases/security/encryption/transparent-data-encryption

QUESTION 3
You implement 3 Azure SQL Data Warehouse instance.
You plan to migrate the largest fact table to Azure SQL Data Warehouse The table resides on Microsoft SQL Server on-
premises and e 10 terabytes (TB) in size.
Incoming queues use the primary key Sale Key column to retrieve data as displayed in the following table:lead4pass dp-200 exam question q3

You need to distribute the fact table across multiple nodes to optimize performance of the table.
Which technology should you use?
A. hash distributed table with clustered ColumnStore index
B. hash distributed table with clustered index
C. heap table with distribution replicate
D. round robin distributed table with clustered index
E. round robin distributed table with clustered ColumnStore index
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
A company builds an application to allow developers to share and compare code. The conversations, code snippets,
and links shared by people in the application are stored in a Microsoft Azure SQL Database instance. The application
allows for searches of historical conversations and code snippets.
When users share code snippets, the code snippet is compared against previously share code snippets by using a
combination of Transact-SQL functions including SUBSTRING, FIRST_VALUE, and SQRT. If a match is found, a link to
the match is added to the conversation.
Customers report the following issues: Delays occur during live conversations A delay occurs before matching links
appear after code snippets are added to conversations
You need to resolve the performance issues.
Which technologies should you use? To answer, drag the appropriate technologies to the correct issues. Each
technology may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll
to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:lead4pass dp-200 exam question q4

Correct Answer:

lead4pass dp-200 exam question q4-1

Box 1: memory-optimized table
In-Memory OLTP can provide great performance benefits for transaction processing, data ingestion, and transient data
scenarios.
Box 2: materialized view
To support efficient querying, a common solution is to generate, in advance, a view that materializes the data in a format
suited to the required results set. The Materialized View pattern describes generating prepopulated views of data in
environments where the source data isn\\’t in a suitable format for querying, where generating a suitable query is
difficult, or where query performance is poor due to the nature of the data or the data store.
These materialized views, which only contain data required by a query, allow applications to quickly obtain the
information they need. In addition to joining tables or combining data entities, materialized views can include the current
values of
calculated columns or data items, the results of combining values or executing transformations on the data items, and
values specified as part of the query. A materialized view can even be optimized for just a single query.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/architecture/patterns/materialized-view

QUESTION 5
You need to ensure phone-based polling data upload reliability requirements are met. How should you configure
monitoring? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one
point.
Hot Area:

lead4pass dp-200 exam question q5

Correct Answer:

lead4pass dp-200 exam question q5-1

Explanation/Reference:
Box 1: FileCapacity
FileCapacity is the amount of storage used by the storage account

QUESTION 6
You need to ensure that phone-based polling data can be analyzed in the PollingData database.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions
to the answer are and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:

lead4pass dp-200 exam question q6

Correct Answer:

lead4pass dp-200 exam question q6-1

Explanation/Reference:
All deployments must be performed by using Azure DevOps. Deployments must use templates used in multiple
environments No credentials or secrets should be used during deployments

QUESTION 7
Note: This question is part of series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contain a
unique solution. Determine whether the solution meets the stated goals.
You develop data engineering solutions for a company.
A project requires the deployment of resources to Microsoft Azure for batch data processing on Azure
HDInsight. Batch processing will run daily and must:
Scale to minimize costs
Be monitored for cluster performance
You need to recommend a tool that will monitor clusters and provide information to suggest how to scale.
Solution: Monitor clusters by using Azure Log Analytics and HDInsight cluster management solutions.
Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
HDInsight provides cluster-specific management solutions that you can add for Azure Monitor logs.
Management solutions add functionality to Azure Monitor logs, providing additional data and analysis tools.
These solutions collect important performance metrics from your HDInsight clusters and provide the tools to search the
metrics. These solutions also provide visualizations and dashboards for most cluster types supported in HDInsight. By
using the metrics that you collect with the solution, you can create custom monitoring rules and alerts.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/hdinsight/hdinsight-hadoop-oms-log-analytics-tutorial

QUESTION 8
A company is deploying a service-based data environment. You are developing a solution to process this data.
The solution must meet the following requirements:
Use an Azure HDInsight cluster for data ingestion from a relational database in a different cloud service
Use an Azure Data Lake Storage account to store processed data
Allow users to download processed data
You need to recommend technologies for the solution.
Which technologies should you use? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
Hot Area:

lead4pass dp-200 exam question q8

Correct Answer:

lead4pass dp-200 exam question q8-1

Box 1: Apache Sqoop
Apache Sqoop is a tool designed for efficiently transferring bulk data between Apache Hadoop and structured
datastores such as relational databases.
Azure HDInsight is a cloud distribution of the Hadoop components from the Hortonworks Data Platform (HDP).
Incorrect Answers:
DistCp (distributed copy) is a tool used for large inter/intra-cluster copying. It uses MapReduce to effect its distribution,
error handling and recovery, and reporting. It expands a list of files and directories into input to map tasks, each of
which
will copy a partition of the files specified in the source list. Its MapReduce pedigree has endowed it with some quirks in
both its semantics and execution.
RevoScaleR is a collection of proprietary functions in Machine Learning Server used for practicing data science at scale.
For data scientists, RevoScaleR gives you data-related functions for import, transformation and manipulation,
summarization, visualization, and analysis.
Box 2: Apache Kafka
Apache Kafka is a distributed streaming platform.
A streaming platform has three key capabilities:
Publish and subscribe to streams of records, similar to a message queue or enterprise messaging system.
Store streams of records in a fault-tolerant durable way.
Process streams of records as they occur.
Kafka is generally used for two broad classes of applications:
Building real-time streaming data pipelines that reliably get data between systems or applications
Building real-time streaming applications that transform or react to the streams of data
Box 3: Ambari Hive View
You can run Hive queries by using Apache Ambari Hive View. The Hive View allows you to author, optimize, and run
Hive queries from your web browser.
References:
https://sqoop.apache.org/
https://kafka.apache.org/intro
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/hdinsight/hadoop/apache-hadoop-use-hive-ambari-view

QUESTION 9
You implement an event processing solution using Microsoft Azure Stream Analytics.
The solution must meet the following requirements:
-Ingest data from Blob storage
-Analyze data in real time
-Store processed data in Azure Cosmos DB
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions
to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:lead4pass dp-200 exam question q9

Correct Answer:

lead4pass dp-200 exam question q9-1

QUESTION 10
You manage a financial computation data analysis process. Microsoft Azure virtual machines (VMs) run the process in
daily jobs, and store the results in virtual hard drives (VHDs.)
The VMs product results using data from the previous day and store the results in a snapshot of the VHD. When a new
month begins, a process creates a new VHD.
You must implement the following data retention requirements:
Daily results must be kept for 90 days
Data for the current year must be available for weekly reports
Data from the previous 10 years must be stored for auditing purposes
Data required for an audit must be produced within 10 days of a request.
You need to enforce the data retention requirements while minimizing cost.
How should you configure the lifecycle policy? To answer, drag the appropriate JSON segments to the correct locations.
Each JSON segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bat between
panes or scroll to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:lead4pass dp-200 exam question q10

Correct Answer:

lead4pass dp-200 exam question q10-1

The Set-AzStorageAccountManagementPolicy cmdlet creates or modifies the management policy of an Azure Storage
account.
Example: Create or update the management policy of a Storage account with ManagementPolicy rule objects.

lead4pass dp-200 exam question q10-2

Action -BaseBlobAction Delete -daysAfterModificationGreaterThan 100
PS C:\>$action1 = Add-AzStorageAccountManagementPolicyAction -InputObject $action1 -BaseBlobAction
TierToArchive -daysAfterModificationGreaterThan 50
PS C:\>$action1 = Add-AzStorageAccountManagementPolicyAction -InputObject $action1 -BaseBlobAction TierToCool
-daysAfterModificationGreaterThan 30
PS C:\>$action1 = Add-AzStorageAccountManagementPolicyAction -InputObject $action1 -SnapshotAction Delete
-daysAfterCreationGreaterThan 100
PS C:\>$filter1 = New-AzStorageAccountManagementPolicyFilter -PrefixMatch ab,cd
PS C:\>$rule1 = New-AzStorageAccountManagementPolicyRule -Name Test -Action $action1 -Filter $filter1
PS C:\>$action2 = Add-AzStorageAccountManagementPolicyAction -BaseBlobAction Delete
-daysAfterModificationGreaterThan 100
PS C:\>$filter2 = New-AzStorageAccountManagementPolicyFilter
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/az.storage/set-azstorageaccountmanagementpolicy

QUESTION 11
A company plans to use Platform-as-a-Service (PaaS) to create the new data pipeline process. The process must meet
the following requirements.
Ingest:
– Access multiple data sources
– Provide the ability to orchestrate workflow
– Provide the capability to run SQL Server Integration Services packages.
Store:
– Optimize storage for big data workloads.
– Provide encryption of data at rest.
– Operate with no size limits.
Prepare and Train:
– Provide a fully-managed and interactive workspace for exploration and visualization.
– Provide the ability to program in R, SQL, Python, Scala, and Java.
– Provide seamless user authentication with Azure Active Directory.
Model and Serve:
– Implement native columnar storage.
– Support for the SQL language
– Provide support for structured streaming.
You need to build the data integration pipeline.
Which technologies should you use? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
Hot Area:

lead4pass dp-200 exam question q11

Correct Answer:

lead4pass dp-200 exam question q11-1

QUESTION 12
You are developing a solution using a Lambda architecture on Microsoft Azure.
The data at test layer must meet the following requirements:
Data storage:
-Serve as a repository (or high volumes of large files in various formats.
-Implement optimized storage for big data analytics workloads.
-Ensure that data can be organized using a hierarchical structure. Batch processing:
-Use a managed solution for in-memory computation processing.
-Natively support Scala, Python, and R programming languages.
-Provide the ability to resize and terminate the cluster automatically. Analytical data store:
-Support parallel processing.
-Use columnar storage.
-Support SQL-based languages. You need to identify the correct technologies to build the Lambda architecture. Which
technologies should you use? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area NOTE: Each correct
selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

lead4pass dp-200 exam question q12

Correct Answer:

lead4pass dp-200 exam question q12-1

QUESTION 13
A company has a SaaS solution that uses Azure SQL Database with elastic pools. The solution contains a dedicated
database for each customer organization. Customer organizations have peak usage at different periods during the
year.
You need to implement the Azure SQL Database elastic pool to minimize cost.
Which option or options should you configure?
A. Number of transactions only
B. eDTUs per database only
C. Number of databases only
D. CPU usage only
E. eDTUs and max data size
Correct Answer: E
The best size for a pool depends on the aggregate resources needed for all databases in the pool. This involves
determining the following:
Maximum resources utilized by all databases in the pool (either maximum DTUs or maximum vCores depending on your
choice of resourcing model).
Maximum storage bytes utilized by all databases in the pool.
Note: Elastic pools enable the developer to purchase resources for a pool shared by multiple databases to
accommodate unpredictable periods of usage by individual databases. You can configure resources for the pool based
either on the
DTU-based purchasing model or the vCore-based purchasing model. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/sql-database/sql-database-elastic-pool

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latest updated Cisco 300-820 exam questions and answers

QUESTION 1
Which two licenses are required for the Expressway B2B feature to work? (Choose two)
A. Traversal Server
B. Advanced Networking
C. Device Provisioning
D. Rich Media Sessions
E. TURN Relays
Correct Answer: AD

 

QUESTION 2
Which two statements about Mobile and Remote Access certificate are true? (Choose two.)
A. Expressway Core can use private CA signed certificate.
B. You must upload the root certificates in the phone trust store.
C. Expressway must generate certificate signing request.
D. Expressway Edge must use public CA signed certificate.
E. The Jabber client can work with public or private CA signed certificate.
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.

cisco 300-820 questions q3

Which two outbound connections should an administrator configure on the internal firewall? (Choose two.)
A. XMPP: TCP 7400
B. SIP: TCP 7001
C. SIP TCP 5061
D. Media: UDP 36012 to 59999
E. HTTPS: TCP 8443
Correct Answer: AB
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/expressway/config_guide/X12-5/CiscoExpressway-IP-Port-Usage-for-Firewall-Traversal-Deployment-Guide-X12-5.pdf

 

QUESTION 4
Which configuration is required when implementing Mobile and Remote Access on Cisco Expressway?
A. IPS
B. SAML authentication
C. Cisco Unified CM publisher address
D. SSO
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 5

cisco 300-820 questions q5

Refer to the exhibit. Which two numbers match the regular expression? (Choose two.)
A. d20d16d20d22
B. 2091652010224
C. 209165200225
D. d209d165d200d224
E. 209165200224
Correct Answer: CE

 

QUESTION 6
When an Expressway-E is configured for static NAT, which Session Description Protocol attribute is modified to reflect
the NAT address?
A. SDP b-line
B. SIP record route
C. SDP c-line
D. SDP m-line
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 7
Which role does Call Policy play when preventing toll fraud on Expressways?
A. It controls which calls are allowed, which calls are rejected, and which calls are redirected to a different destination.
B. It changes the calling and called number on a call.
C. It changes the audio protocol used by a call through Expressways.
D. It changes the audio codec used in a call through Expressways.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 8
When designing the call control on a Cisco Expressway Core, which is the sequence of dial plan functions?
A. transforms, CPL, user policy, search rules
B. search rules, zones, local zones
C. DNS zone, local zone, search rules
D. search rules, transforms
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 9
Which step is taken when configuring a Cisco Expressway solution?
A. Configure the Expressway-E by using a non-traversal server zone.
B. Enable static NAT on the Expressway-E only.
C. Disable H.323 mode on the Expressway-E.
D. Enable H.323 H.460.19 demultiplexing mode on the Expressway-C.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 10
What is a key configuration requirement for Hybrid Message Service High Availability deployment with multiple IM and
Presence clusters?
A. You must have the Intercluster Sync Agent working across your IM and Presence clusters.
B. You must have the Intercluster Lookup Service working across all of your IM and Presence clusters.
C. Your IM and Presence Service clusters must have Multiple Device Messaging disabled.
D. AXL service should be activated only on the publisher of each IM and Presence cluster.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 11
How does an administrator configure an Expressway to make sure an external caller cannot reach a specific internal
address?
A. add the specific URI in the firewall section of the Expressway and block it
B. block the call with a call policy rule in the Expressway-E
C. add a search rule route all calls to the Cisco UCM
D. configure FAC for the destination alias on the Expressway
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 12
Cisco Collaboration endpoints are exchanging encrypted signaling messages.
What is one major complication in implementing NAT ALG for voice and video devices?
A. Internal endpoints cannot use addresses from the private address space.
B. The NAT ALG cannot inspect the contents of encrypted signaling messages.
C. NAT ALG introduces jitter in the voice path.
D. Source addresses cannot provide the destination addresses that remote endpoints should use for return packets.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 13
What is the purpose of a transform in the Expressway server?
A. A transform has the function as a neighbor zone in the Expressway. It creates a connection with another server.
B. A transform changes the audio codec when the call goes through the Expressway.
C. A transform is used to route calls to a destination.
D. A transform changes an alias that matches certain criteria into another alias.
Correct Answer: D

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