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Latest updates Cisco CCNP Enterprise 300-425 exam practice questions
QUESTION 1 An engineer must ensure that the new wireless LAN deployment can support seamless roaming between access points using a standard based on an amendment to the 802.11 protocol. Which protocol must the engineer select? A. 802.11i B. 802.11ac C. 802.11r D. 802.11e Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2 A wireless engineer is utilizing the voice readiness tool in Cisco Prime for a customer that wants to deploy Cisco IP phones. Which dBm range is the network inspected against? A. -78 to -65 dBm B. -72 to -67 dBm C. -85 to -65 dBm D. -85 to -67 dBm Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3 An engineer is reducing the subnet size of the corporate WLAN by segmenting the VLAN into smaller subnets. Clients will be assigned a subnet by location. Which type of groups can the engineer use to map the smaller subnets to the corporate WLAN? A. WLC port groups B. RF groups C. AP groups D. interface groups Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4 During a client roaming event, which device is responsible for communicating the new Layer 2 EID mapping of a wireless supplicant to the fabric domain? A. WLC B. BN C. CP2 D. CP1 Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5 Which non-Wi-Fi interferer can be identified by Metageek Chanalyzer? A. PDAs B. jammers C. smartphones D. printers Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6 Which two considerations must a network engineer have when planning for voice over wireless roaming? (Choose two.) A. Full reauthentication introduces gaps in a voice conversation. B. Roaming time increases when using 802.1x + Cisco Centralized Key Manegement. C. Roaming occurs when the phone has seen at least four APs. D. Roaming occurs when the phone has reached -80 dBs or below. E. Roaming with only 802.1x authentication requires full reauthentication. Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 7 When conducting a site survey for real-time traffic over wireless, which two design capabilities of smartphones and tablets must be considered? (Choose two.) A. no support for 802.11ac B. higher data rates than laptops C. fewer antennas than laptops D. no support for 802.11r E. lower data rates than laptops Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 8 An engineer must decide the cell overlap for a wireless voice deployment. Which Cisco measurement recommendation should be considered? A. The edge of the cell should be -67 dBm. B. The edge of the cell should be below 35 RSSI. C. The measurement should be done on the 2.4-GHz band. D. One AP should be deployed per 3000 square feet. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9 A wireless deployment in a high-density environment is being used by vendors to process credit card payment transactions via handheld mobile scanners. The scanners are having problems roaming between access points in the environment. Which feature on the wireless controller should have been incorporated in the design? A. RX SOP B. 802.11w C. AP Heartbeat Timeout D. Application Visibility Control Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10 An engineer has configured guest anchoring for a newly created SSD however, the mobility tunnels are not up, and EPING is failing from the foreign WLC to the anchor WLC. Which traffic flow must be allowed at the firewall to enable the communication? A. UDP port 16666 B. IP protocol 97 C. UDP port 97 D. TCP port 97 Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11 Clustering Cisco WLCs into a single RF group enables the RRM algorithms to scale beyond the capabilities of a single Cisco WLC. How many WLC and APs in an RF group can the controller software scale up to in WLC release 8.9 depending on the platform? A. up to 20 WLCs and 1000 APs B. up to 20 WLCs and 3000 APs C. up to 20 WLCs and 4000 APs D. up to 20 WLCs and 6000 APs Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12 A customer is running a guest WLAN with a foreign/export-anchor setup. There is one anchor WLC in the US and two in Europe. Anchor WLC priorities are used to prefer local anchors. During a routine network audit, it is discovered that a large number of guest client sessions in the US are anchored to the WLCs in Europe. Which reason explains this behavior? A. The foreign WLC failed and recovered. B. The US anchor WLC failed and recovered. C. The US anchor WLC is anchored to itself with a priority value of zero. D. The anchor WLC is in the same mobility group. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13 A customer is concerned about mesh backhaul link security. Which level of ecnryption does the backhaul link use? A. hash B. AES C. WEP D. 3DES Correct Answer: B
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Latest updates Cisco CCNP Enterprise 300-420 exam practice questions
QUESTION 1 Which feature is required for graceful restart to recover from a processor failure? A. Cisco Express Forwarding B. Virtual Switch System C. Stateful Switchover D. Bidirectional Forwarding Detection Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 Which nonproprietary mechanism can be used to automate rendezvous point distribution in a large PIM domain? A. Embedded RP B. BSR C. Auto-RP D. Static RP Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3 An infrastructure team is concerned about the shared memory utilization of a device, and for this reason, they need to monitor the device state. Which solution limits impact on the device and provides the required data? A. IPFIX B. static telemetry C. on-change subscription D. periodic subscription Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4 Which control-plane technology allows the same subnet to exist across multiple network locations? A. LISP B. VXLAN C. FabricPath D. ISE mobility services Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5 Which design consideration must be made when using IPv6 overlay tunnels? A. Overlay tunnels that connect isolated IPv6 networks can be considered a final IPv6 network architecture. B. Overlay tunnels should only be considered as a transition technique toward a permanent solution. C. Overlay tunnels can be configured only between border devices and require only the IPv6 protocol stack. D. Overlay tunneling encapsulates IPv4 packets in IPv6 packets for delivery across an IPv6 infrastructure. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6 An engineer is designing an enterprise campus network. The LAN infrastructure consists of switches from multiple vendors, and Spanning Tree must be used as a Layer 2 loop prevention mechanism. All configured VLANs must be grouped in two SIP instances. Which standards-based Spanning Tree technology supports this design solution? A. MSTP B. RSTP C. Rapid PVST D. STP Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7 When a first hop redundancy solution is designed, which protocol ensures that load balancing occurs over multiple routers using a single virtual IP address and multiple virtual MAC addresses? A. GLBP B. IRDP C. VRRP D. HSRP Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8 An engineer is looking for a standards-driven YANG model to manage a multivendor network environment. Which model must the engineer choose? A. Native B. OpenConfig C. IETF D. IEEE NETCONF Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9 Which two best practices must be followed when designing an out-of-band management network? (Choose two.) A. Enforce access control B. Facilitate network integration C. Back up data using the management network D. Ensure that the management network is a backup to the data network E. Ensure network isolation Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 10 Which two BGP features will result in successful route exchanges between eBGP neighbors sharing the same AS number? (Choose two.) A. advertise-best-external B. bestpath as-path ignore C. client-to-client reflection D. as-override E. allow-as-in Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 11 When a network is designed using IS-IS protocol, which two circuit types are supported? (Choose two.) A. nonbroadcast multiaccess B. multiaccess C. point-to-multipoint D. nonbroadcast E. point-to-point Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 12 Which method will filter routes between EIGRP neighbors within the same autonomous system? A. distribute-list B. policy-based routing C. leak-map D. route tagging Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13 Company A recently acquired another company. Users of the newly acquired company must be able to access a server that exists on Company A\\’s network, both companies use overlapping IP address ranges. Which action conserves IP address space and provides access to the server? A. Use a single IP address to create overload NAT B. Use a single IP address to create a static NAT entry C. Build one-to-one NAT translation for every user that needs access D. Re-IP overlapping address space in the acquired company Correct Answer: A
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What is the best way to pass the Cisco 300-180 exam? (First: Exam practice test, Second: Lead4pass Cisco expert.) You can get free Cisco CCNP Data Center 300-180 exam practice test questions here. Or choose https://www.lead4pass.com/300-180.html (416 Q&As). Study hard to pass the exam easily!
This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge of troubleshooting Cisco data center infrastructure including:
Data network protocols
Network virtualization and automation
Application Centric Infrastructure (ACI)
Storage
Compute platforms
Management and operations
Latest updates Cisco 300-180 exam practice questions
QUESTION 1 A customer is configuring VSANs in a Cisco UCS domain. After configuring the VSANs 3840, 3841, and 3842 in FC end- host mode, the customer sees that these VSANs are not operational and that Cisco UCS Manager is raising faults. What is the cause of this problem? A. VSANs 3840, 3841, and 3842 should be in the allowed list on the trunk to clear the fault. B. VSANs 3840 to 4079 cannot be used in Fibre Channel end-host mode in a Cisco UCS domain. C. The fabric interconnect needs to be configured in switching mode and the VSANs need to be allowed on the trunk. D. Use the UCS CLI to clear the fault on the VSAN trunk to forward the VSANs with faults. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2 Which statement is true about the show cfs merge status name command? A. In a successful merge, all switches in the fabric are shown separately. B. The command shows the complete Cisco Fabric Services region database. C. The merge master is selected based on the highest sWWN in the fabric. D. In a successful merge, all switches are shown in a local fabric. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3 Which two actions do you need to take to configure jumbo frames on UCS Manager? (Choose two.) A. Choose QoS Policy Jumbo, choose the LAN tab, and set the MTU value to 9000. B. Choose QoS System Class, choose the LAN tab, and set the MTU value to 9000. C. Choose LAN Uplinks Manager, choose the LAN tab, and set the MTU value to the uplinks VLANs to 9000. D. Choose the vNIC, and on the Server Profile set the MTU value to 9000. E. On the Admin tab, under Global Policy, enable Jumbo MTU Bytes. F. Go the fabric interconnect on the Equipment tab, right-click the port, and set the MTU value to 9000. Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 4 Which two maintenance policy options can you use to specify when the Cisco UCS Manager deploys a service profile change? (Choose two.) A. when acknowledged by any user B. immediately C. on the next reboot D. when acknowledged by a user with root privileges E. when acknowledged by a user with administrator privileges Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 5 You successfully install VMware ESXi 5.0 U1 on a Cisco UCS B200 M3 server to a Fibre Channel LUN. When you reboot the server, you see the message “Reboot and Select Proper Boot device or insert Boot Media in selected Boot device and press a key.” What are the first two pieces of information you should gather to troubleshoot the boot failure? (Choose two.) A. Connect to the NX-OS shell via the CLI and run the show npv flogi-table command. B. SSH to the MDS 9124 and run the show flogi database command. C. Validate the boot target WWPN and LUN ID in the service profile. D. Validate the correct source WWPN in the service profile vHBA definition. E. Validate zoning for your WWPN on the Cisco MDS 9124. F. Validate that the boot order indicates the vHBA as the first device. G. Ensure LUN masking is correctly configured on the storage controller. Correct Answer: CF
QUESTION 6 A customer has a Cisco UCS Center cluster. The customer configures LDAP as the AAA protocol and enables SSL for LDAP. The LDAP authentication fails. Which issue is the cause of the failure? A. The LDAP client passed an incorrect from the trustpoint. B. The ca certificate is missing from the trustpoints. C. The LDAP server limit that is set by an administrative authority was exceeded. D. The LDAP time limit that is specified by either the client or the server was exceeded. Correct Answer: B Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/servers-unified-computing/ucs-infrastructure-ucs-manager-software/200092-UCSM-LDAP-Troubleshooting-guide.html
QUESTION 7 Refer to the exhibit.
You are configuring a Cisco APIC for access. Which task is being performed in the exhibit? A. configuring APIC management EpG B. creating the LDAP logjn domain C. creating the LDAP provider D. creating the LDAP provider group Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8 You are configuring a Cisco Nexus 9000 Series Switch. Which configuration can be implemented for VXLAN BGP EVPN? A. VXLAN BGP EVPN by using an NVE interface in a default VRF B. RACLs on the Layer 3 uplinks for the VXLAN traffic C. QoS classification for the VXLAN traffic on all of the interfaces D. DHCP snooping on the VXLAN VLANs Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9 What can prevent you from adding an interface to a pre-existing port-channel on a CISCO Nexus N7K device? A. The port-channel is In LACP passive mode B. The interface already assigned to a different port-channel, C. The interface has been allocated to a different VOC D. no shutdown was issued on the interface. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10 Which actions on a Cisco UCS Server can be performed under the Cisco IMC utilities? (Choose Four.) A. export tech support information to a remote host B. download a tech support file locally C. reboot the Cisco IMC D. recover a corrupt BIOS E. install firmware updates Correct Answer: ABCD
QUESTION 11 Storage VDC creation has failed. Which two steps should be taken before creating the storage VDC? (Choose two.) A. Check that the F1 module has the FCoE license installed. B. Check that the FCoE feature is enabled on the N7K. C. Check that you have allocated the interfaces of the F module on the VDC. D. Check that the network QoS non-drop policy is configured for FCoE traffic. E. Check that the FCoE VLANs are allocated on the VDC. F. Check that the M2 module has the FCoE license installed. Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 12 Which command output shows the interface assigned as the designated receiver of each VLAN? A. show system vlan reserved B. show vlan internal bd-info bd-to-vlan all-bd C. show port internal info all D. show platform software enm internal info vlandb all Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13 Two fabric interconnects fail during a Cisco UCS firmware upgrade. Drag and drop the recovery steps from the left into the correct order on the right. Select and Place:
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This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge and skills related to network fundamentals, LAN switching technologies, routing technologies, infrastructure services, and infrastructure maintenance.
Last date to test: February 23, 2020 The 100-105 ICND1 exam will be retired on February 23, 2020.
Latest updates Cisco 100-105 exam practice questions
QUESTION 1 Which two configuration steps will prevent an unauthorized PC from accessing the corporate network? (Choose two.) A. set the port security aging time to 0 B. create the port as a protected port and statically assign the MAC address to the address table C. configure the switch to discover new MAC addresses after a set time of inactivity D. enable port security on the switch E. create the port as an access port and statically assign the MAC address to the address table Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 2 Refer to the exhibit. If the router Cisco returns the given output and has not had its router ID set manually, what value will OSPF use as its router ID?
A. 192.168.1.1 B. 172.16.1.1 C. 1.1.1.1 D. 2.2.2.2 Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3 From which of the following attacks can Message Authentication Code (MAC) shield your network? A. DoS B. DDoS C. spoofing D. SYN floods Correct Answer: C Message Authentication Code (MAC) can shield your network from spoofing attacks. Spoofing, also known as masquerading, is a popular trick in which an attacker intercepts a network packet, replaces the source address of the packets header with the address of the authorized host, and reinserts fake information which is sent to the receiver. This type of attack involves modifying packet contents. MAC can prevent this type of attack and ensure data integrity by ensuring that no data has changed. MAC also protects against frequency analysis, sequence manipulation, and ciphertext-only attacks. MAC is a secure message digest that requires a secret key shared by the sender and receiver, making it impossible for sniffers to change both the data and the MAC as the receiver can detect the changes. A denial- of-service (DoS) attack floods the target system with unwanted requests, causing the loss of service to users. One form of this attack generates a flood of packets requesting a TCP connection with the target, tying up all resources and making the target unable to service other requests. MAC does not prevent DoS attacks. Stateful packet filtering is the most common defense against a DoS attack. A Distributed Denial of Service attack (DDoS) occurs when multiple systems are used to flood the network and tax the resources of the target system. Various intrusion detection systems, utilizing stateful packet filtering, can protect against DDoS attacks. In a SYN flood attack, the attacker floods the target with spoofed IP packets and causes it to either freeze or crash. A SYN flood attack is a type of denial of service attack that exploits the buffers of a device that accept incoming connections and therefore cannot be prevented by MAC. Common defenses against a SYN flood attack include filtering, reducing the SYN-RECEIVED timer, and implementing SYN cache or SYN cookies.
QUESTION 4 Which three statements about IPv6 address fd14:920b:f83d:4079::/64 are true? (Choose three) A. The subnet ID is 14920bf83d B. The subnet ID is 4079 C. The global ID is 14920bf83d D. The address is a link-local address E. The global ID is 4079 F. The address is a unique local address Correct Answer: BCF
QUESTION 5 This topology contains 3 routers and 1 switch. Complete the topology. Drag the appropriate device icons to the labeled Device Drag the appropriate connections to the locations labeled Connections. 100-105 PDF Dumps | 100-105 Study Guide | 100-105 Braindumps 3 / 11https://www.lead4pass.com/100-105.html 2020 Latest lead4pass 100-105 PDF and VCE dumps Download Drag the appropriate IP addresses to the locations labeled IP address (Hint: use the given host addresses and Main router information) To remove a device or connection, drag it away from the topology. Use information gathered from the Main router to complete the configuration of any additional routers. No passwords are required to access the Main router. The config terminal command has been disabled for the HQ router. The router does not require any configuration.
Configure each additional router with the following: Configure the interfaces with the correct IP address and enable the interfaces. Set the password to allow console access to consolepw Set the password to allow telnet access to telnetpw Set the password to allow privilege mode access to privpw Not E: Because routes are not being added to the configurations, you will not be able to ping through the internetwork. All devices have cable autosensing capabilities disabled. All hosts are PC\\’s Correct Answer: Answer: Specify appropriate devices and drag them on the “Device” boxes For the device at the bottom-right box, we notice that it has 2 interfaces Fa0/2 and Fa0/4; moreover the link connects the PC on the right with the device on the bottom-right is a straight-through link -> it is a switch The question stated that this topology contains 3 routers and 1 switch -> two other devices are routers Place them on appropriate locations as following: (Host D and host E will be automatically added after placing two routers. Click on them to access neighboring routers) Specify appropriate connections between these devices: + The router on the left is connected with the Main router through FastEthernet interfaces: use a crossover cable + The router on the right is connected with the Main router through Serial interfaces: use a serial cable + The router on the right and the Switch: use a straight-through cable + The router on the left and the computer: use a crossover cable (To remember which type of cable you should use, follow these tips: -To connect two serial interfaces of 2 routers we use serial cable -To specify when we use crossover cable or straight-through cable, we should remember: Group 1: Router, Host, Server Group 2: Hub, Switch One device in group 1 + One device in group 2: use straight-through cable Two devices in the same group: use crossover cable For example, we use straight-through cable to connect switch to router, switch to host, hub to host, hub to server… and we use crossover cable to connect switch to switch, switch to hub, router to router, host to host.) Assign appropriate IP addresses for interfaces: From Main router, use show running-config command. (Notice that you may see different IP addresses in the real CCNA exam, the ones shown above are just used for demonstration) From the output we learned that the ip address of Fa0/0 interface of the Main router is 192.168.152.177/28. This address belongs to a subnetwork which has: Increment: 16 (/28 = 255.255.255.240 or 1111 1111.1111 1111.1111 1111.1111 0000) Network address: 192.168.152.176 (because 176 = 16 * 11 and 176 192.168.152.190 and assign it to the Fa0/0 interface the router on the left Use the same method for interface Serial0/0 with an ip address of 192.168.152.161 Increment: 16 Network address: 192.168.152.160 (because 160 = 16 * 10 and 160 and we choose 192.168.152.174 for Serial0/0 interface of the router on the right Interface Fa0/1 of the router on the left IP (of the computer on the left) : 192.168.152.129/28 Increment: 16 Network address: 192.168.152.128 (because 128 = 16 * 8 and 128 we choose 192.168.152.142 from the list Interface Fa0/0 of the router on the right IP (of the computer on the left) : 192.168.152.225/28 Increment: 16 Network address: 192.168.152.224 (because 224 = 16 * 14 and 224 we choose 192.168.152.238 from the list Let\\’s have a look at the picture below to summarize Configure two routers on the left and right with these commands: Router1 = router on the left Assign appropriate IP addresses to Fa0/0 100-105 PDF Dumps | 100-105 Study Guide | 100-105 Braindumps 5 / 11https://www.lead4pass.com/100-105.html 2020 Latest lead4pass 100-105 PDF and VCE dumps Download and Fa0/1 interfaces: Router1>enable Router1#configure terminal Router1(config)#interface fa0/0 Router1(config-if)#ip address 192.168.152.190 255.255.255.240 Router1(config-if)#no shutdown Router1(config-if)#interface fa0/1 Router1(config-if)#ip address 192.168.152.142 255.255.255.240 Router1(config-if)#no shutdown Set passwords (configure on two routers) + Console password: Router1(config-if)#exit Router1(config)#line console 0 Router1(config-line)#password consolepw Router1(config-line)#login Router1(config-line)#exit + Telnet password: Router1(config)#line vty 0 4 Router1(config-line)#password telnetpw Router1(config-line)#login Router1(config-line)#exit + Privilege mode password: Router1(config)#enable password privpw Save the configuration: Router1(config)#exit Router1#copy running-config startup-config Configure IP addresses of Router2 (router on the right) Router2>enable Router2#configure terminal Router2(config)#interface fa0/0 Router2(config-if)#ip address 192.168.152.238 255.255.255.240 Router2(config-if)#no shutdown Router2(config-if)#interface serial0/0 Router2(config-if)#ip address 192.168.152.174 255.255.255.240 Router2(config-if)#no shutdown Then set the console, telnet and privilege mode passwords for Router2 as we did for Router1, remember to save the configuration when you finished.
QUESTION 6 Which two attributes of a packet change at every router along the path from source to destination? (Choose two.) A. destination IP address B. source MAC address C. packet MTU D. source IP address E. destination MAC address Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 7 Which form of NAT maps multiple private IP addresses to a single registered IP address by using different ports? A. static NAT B. dynamic NAT C. overloading D. overlapping E. port loading Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8 Which IP addresses are valid for hosts belonging to the 10.1.160.0/20 subnet? (Choose three.) A. 10.1.168.0 B. 10.1.176.1 C. 10.1.174.255 D. 10.1.160.255 E. 10.1.160.0 F. 10.1.175.255 Correct Answer: ACD All IP address in IP ranges between: 10.1.160.1 and 10.1.175.254 are valid as shown below Address: 10.1.160.0 00001010.00000001.1010 0000.00000000 Netmask:255.255.240.0 = 2011111111.11111111.1111 0000.00000000 Wildcard:0.0.15.25500000000.00000000.0000 1111.11111111 Which implies that Network: 10.1.160.0/20 00001010.00000001.1010 0000.00000000 HostMin:10.1.160.100001010.00000001.1010 0000.00000001 HostMax:10.1.175.25400001010.00000001.1010 1111.11111110 Broadcast:10.1.175.25500001010.00000001.1010 1111.11111111
QUESTION 9 Which statements describe the routing protocol OSPF? (Choose three) A. It supports VLSM. B. It is used to route between autonomous systems. C. It confines network instability to one area of the network. D. It increases routing overhead on the network. E. It allows extensive control of routing updates. F. It is simpler to configure than RIP v2. Correct Answer: ACE The OSPF protocol is based on link-state technology, which is a departure from the Bellman-Ford vector based algorithms used in traditional Internet routing protocols such as RIP. OSPF has introduced new concepts such as authentication of routing updates, Variable Length Subnet Masks (VLSM), route summarization, and so forth. OSPF uses flooding to exchange link-state updates between routers. Any change in routing information is flooded to all routers in the network. Areas are introduced to put a boundary on the explosion of link-state updates. Flooding and calculation of the Dijkstra algorithm on a router is limited to changes within an area.
QUESTION 10 Which configuration must you perform to enable VTP in a switching domain? A. Configure a switch as a client. B. Configure a switch with a VTP domain. C. Configure a switch with VTP mode off to serve as the server switch. D. Configure a switch in transparent mode. 100-105 PDF Dumps | 100-105 Study Guide | 100-105 Braindumps 8 / 11https://www.lead4pass.com/100-105.html 2020 Latest lead4pass 100-105 PDF and VCE dumps Download Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11 Which port security violation mode allows traffic from valid mac address to pass but block traffic from invalid mac address? A. protect B. shutdown C. shutdown vlan D. restrict Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12 All protocols on a network are using their default administrative distances with no redistribution. In which two different ways can you modify them so that OSPF and RIPv2 learned routes are preferred over EIGRP-learned routes? (Choose two.) A. Change the OSPF administrative distance to 5. B. Change the RIP administrative distance to 70. C. Change the EIGRP administrative distance to 70. D. Change the RIP administrative distance to 100. E. Change the EIGRP administrative distance to 100. Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 13 How are MAC addresses removed from a MAC address table? A. They are removed automatically if they remain inactive for the duration of the switch aging timer. B. They are removed automatically on a FIFO basis when the address-table limit has been reached. C. They must be manually cleared from the table. D. They are removed automatically if they remain inactive for the duration of the global MAC address timer. Correct Answer: D
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This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below.
Implement database objects (30–35%)
Implement programming objects (15-20%)
Design database objects (25–30%)
Optimize and troubleshoot queries (25–30%)
Who should take this exam?
This exam is intended for database professionals who build and implement databases across organizations and who ensure high levels of data availability. Their responsibilities include creating database files, data types, and tables; planning, creating, and optimizing indexes; ensuring data integrity; implementing views, stored procedures, and functions; and managing transactions and locks.
Latest updates Microsoft 70-464 exam practice questions
QUESTION 1
You administer a SQL Server 2014 instance.
The server is capable of 10000 IO/second (IOPS). During the time period when the second process executes, the disk
IO can reach 7000 IOPS, and CPU use can average 30% over the eight processors.
The first process summarizes the day\\’s activity executed by a login of [SummaryReportLogin]. The second process
submits transactions executed by a login of [ETLLogin].
A Resource Governor classifier function has been created to return WG_Low for connections from the [ETLLogin] and
[SummaryReportLogin].
You need to set up the Resource Group and Workgroup Pools on the instance.
You have the following requirements:
1.
Both processes must never use more than 50 percent of the CPU at any one time.
2.
The number of active queries that these processes can execute simultaneously should be limited to a maximum of 10.
3.
The SummaryReportLogin process must always achieve the minimum IOPS required to be minimally affected during
executing the ETLLogin processes.
Develop the solution by selecting and arranging the required code blocks in the correct order.
You may not need all of the code blocks.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Note: CREATE WORKLOAD RESOURCE POOL * Resource pools. A resource pool, represents the physical resources of the server. You can think of a pool as a virtual SQL Server instance inside of a SQL Server instance. * Workload groups. A workload group serves as a container for session requests that have similar classification criteria. A workload allows for aggregate monitoring of the sessions, and defines policies for the sessions. Each workload group is in a resource pool. * CAP_CPU_PERCENT =value Specifies a hard cap on the CPU bandwidth that all requests in the resource pool will receive. Limits the maximum CPU bandwidth level to be the same as the specified value. value is an integer with a default setting of 100. The allowed range for value is from 1 through 100. * MIN_IOPS_PER_VOLUME =value Specifies the minimum I/O operations per second (IOPS) per disk volume to reserve for the resource pool. * GROUP_MAX_REQUESTS =value Specifies the maximum number of simultaneous requests that are allowed to execute in the workload group. value must be a 0 or a positive integer.
QUESTION 2 You have a database named database1. Each table in database1 has one index per column. Users often report that creating items takes a long time. You need to perform the following maintenance tasks: Identify unused indexes. Identify indexes that need to be defragmented. What should you use? To answer, drag the appropriate function to the correct management task in the answer area. (Answer choices may be used once, more than once, or not at all.) Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
* sys.dm_db_index_usage_stats Returns counts of different types of index operations and the time each type of operation was last performed. * sys.dm_db_index_physical_stats Returns size and fragmentation information for the data and indexes of the specified table or view.
QUESTION 3 You run the following code:
You need to ensure that the root node of the XML data stored in the Details column is . What should you implement? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer. A. A user-defined data type B. An XML index C. A Data Definition Language (DDL) trigger D. A Data Manipulation Language (DML) trigger E. An XML schema collection Correct Answer: E http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms187856.aspx
QUESTION 4 You need to implement a solution that meets the data recovery requirements. You update each stored procedure to accept a parameter named @transactionID. What should you add next to the beginning of each stored procedure? A. SAVE TRANSACTION WITH MARK @transactionID B. ROLLBACK DISTRIBUTED TRANSACTION @transactionID C. BEGIN TRANSACTION WITH MARK @transactionID D. COMMIT TRANSACTION @transactionID Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5 You have a database for a mission-critical web application. The database is stored on a SQL Server 2012 instance and is the only database on the instance. The application generates all T-SQL statements dynamically and does not use stored procedures. You need to maximize the amount of memory available for data caching. Which advanced server option should you modify? A. Optimize for Ad hoc Workloads B. Enable Contained Databases C. Allow Triggers to Fire Others D. Scan for Startup Procs Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6 You need to encapsulate a T-SQL script into a reusable user-defined object. The object must meet the following requirements: Permit insertions into a table variable. Support structured exception handling. Prevent changes to the definition of referenced objects. Support the use of the APPLY operator on the output of the object. Which type of object should you use? A. An inline table-valued function B. A stored procedure C. A scalar user-defined function D. A multi-statement table-valued function Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7 You have a database named database1. Each table in database1 has one index per column. Users often report that creating items takes a long time. You need to perform the following maintenance tasks: Identify unused indexes. Identify indexes that need to be defragmented. What should you use? To answer, drag the appropriate function to the correct management task in the answer area. (Answer choices may be used once, more than once, or not at all.) Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Note: * sys.dm_db_index_usage_stats Returns counts of different types of index operations and the time each type of operation was last performed. * sys.dm_db_index_physical_stats Returns size and fragmentation information for the data and indexes of the specified table or view.
QUESTION 8 You have a Microsoft SQL Azure database. You have the following stored procedure:
You discover that the stored procedure periodically fails to update HR.Employees. You need to ensure that HR.Employees is always updated when up_employees executes. The solution must minimize the amount of time required for the stored procedure to execute and the number of locks held. What should you do? A. Add the following line of code to line 05: SET TRANSACTION ISOLATION LEVEL SNAPSHOT B. Add the following line of code to line 13: WITH (UPDLOCK) C. Add the following line of code to line 05: SET TRANSACTION ISOLATION LEVEL SERIALIZABLE D. Add the following line of code to line 08: WITH (UPDLOCK) Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9 You execute the following code:
You need to select the task that has an IsFinished value of true from the Project that has an Id value of 1. Which code segment should you use?
A. Option A B. Option B C. Option C D. Option D Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10 You have a server that has SQL Server 2012 installed. You need to identify which parallel execution plans are running in serial. Which tool should you use? A. Performance Monitor B. Database Engine Tuning Advisor C. Data Profile Viewer D. Extended Events Correct Answer: D References: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb677278.aspx http://msdn.microsoft.com/en- us/library/bb630282.aspx http://www.sql-server-performance.com/2006/query-execution-plan-analysis/ http://www.simple-talk.com/sql/learn-sql-server/understanding-and-using-parallelism-in-sqlserver/ http://www.sqlserverc entral.com/articles/SQL+Server+2012/At+last%2c+execution+plans+show+true+thread+reservations./92458/ http://sqlblog.com/blogs/paul_white/archive/2011/12/23/forcing-a-parallel-query-executionplan.aspx http://sqlblog.com/blogs/paul_white/archive/2012/05/02/parallel-row-goals-gone-rogue.aspx http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb895310.aspx http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb895313.aspx http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/hh231122.aspx
QUESTION 11 You have a SQL Server instance named SQL\Instance1. Instance1 contains a database named Database1. You need to recommend an index defragmentation solution for an index on a disk-based table named ContentIndex. ContentIndex must meet the following requirements: 1. Remain online during the defragmentation. 2. Update distribution statistics. 3. Perform defragmentation as quickly as possible. Which type of index defragmentation solution should you include in the recommendation? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer. A. DBCC DBREINDEX B. REORGANIZE C. REBUILD D. DBCC INDEXDEFRAG Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12 You have a database named DB1. You plan to configure change data capture on the existing tables in DB1. The database file settings for the DB1 are shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
You need to minimize disk contention caused by change data capture. What should you do? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer. A. Increase the autogrowth value of the database file. B. Set the database recovery model to simple. C. Increase the autogrowth value of the log file. D. Configure change data capture to use to a secondary filegroup. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13 You discover that the usp_GetOrdersAndItems stored procedure takes a long time to complete while usp_AddOrder or usp_AddXMLOrder run. You need to ensure that usp_GetOrdersAndItems completes as quickly as possible. What should you do? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.) A. Set the isolation level of the usp_GetOrdersAndItems stored procedure to SERIALIZABLE. B. Execute the ALTER DATABASE Sales SET ALLOW_SNAPSHOT_ISOLATION ON statement. C. Set the isolation level of the usp_AddOrder stored procedure to SERIALIZABLE. D. Set the isolation level of the usp_GetOrdersAndItems stored procedure to SNAPSHOT. E. Set the isolation level of the usp_AddOrder stored procedure to SNAPSHOT. F. Execute the ALTER DATABASE Sales SET ALLOW_SNAPSHOT_ISOLATION OFF statement. Correct Answer: BD
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What is the best way to pass the Microsoft 70-740 exam? (First: Exam practice test, Second: Lead4pass Microsoft expert.) You can get free Microsoft MCSA 70-740 exam practice test questions here. Or choose https://www.lead4pass.com/70-740.html (337 Q&As). Study hard to pass the exam easily!
This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below.
Install Windows Servers in Host and Compute Environments (10-15%)
Implement Storage Solutions (15-20%)
Implement Hyper-V (20-25%)
Implement Windows Containers (5-10%)
Implement High Availability (30-35%)
Maintain and Monitor Server Environments (10-15%)
Who should take this exam?
Candidates for this exam are involved with the installation, storage, and compute functionalities available in Windows Server 2016. Candidates perform general installation tasks, as well as creating and managing images for deployment.
Candidates should have experience with local and server storage solutions including the configuration of disks and volumes, Data Deduplication, High Availability, Disaster Recovery, Storage Spaces Direct, and Failover Clustering solutions. The candidates should also be familiar with managing Hyper-V and Containers as well as maintaining and monitoring servers in physical and compute environments.
Latest updates Microsoft 70-740 exam practice questions
QUESTION 1 You have an Active Director domain named Contoso.com. The domain contains servers named Server 1, Server2 and Server3 that run Windows Server 2016 Server1 and Server2 are nodes in a Hyper V cluster named Cluster1. You add a Hyper V Replica Broker role named Broker 1 to Cluster 1 Server3 is a Hyper-V server. A virtual machine named VM1 runs on Server3. Live Migration is enabled on all three servers and it is configured to use Kerberos authentication only. You need to ensure that you can perform the migration of VM1 to Server2 What should you do? A. Modify the Storage Migration settings on Server3 B. Modify the Cluster Permissions for Cluster1. C. Add the Server3 computer account to the Replicator group on Server1 and Server2. D. Modify the Delegation settings for the Server3 computer account. Correct Answer: D References: https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/jj134199(v=ws.11).aspx#BKMK_Step1
QUESTION 2 You have a server that runs Windows Server 2016. You run the commands shown in the following output PS G:\> Get-DedupVolume | f1
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 3 You have a Hyper-V failover cluster that contains three nodes. Virtual machines are distributed evenly across the cluster nodes. You need to ensure that if a node loses connectivity from the other nodes, the virtual machines on the node will be transitioned to one of the remaining nodes after one minute. Which settings should you modify? A. QuarantineDuration and QuarantineThreshold B. SameSubnetDelay and CrossSubnetDelay C. QuorumArbitrationTimeMax and RequestReplyTimeout D. ResiliencyPeriod and ResiliencyLevel Correct Answer: C References: https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa369123(v=vs.85).aspxhttps://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb394696(v=vs.85).aspx
QUESTION 4 You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 is a Hyper-V host. You run the commands shown in the following graphic:
Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information presented in the graphic. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 5 You have a server named Server l that runs Windows Server 2016. On Server 1. you have a custom Image of Windows Server 2016 Standard In a I lie named Ini4nel.wim. The image is mounted to C:\Folderl. You discover corrupted tiles in the WinSxS folder of the mounted Image. Frorn the Windows Server 2016 installation media, you mount an image of Windows Server 2016 Standard from Install win to C:\foldef2. You need to repair the corrupted image. Which command should run? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 6 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain has two clusters named FC1 and FC2. The domain contains servers that run Windows Server 2016. The Servers are configured as shown in the following table.
Server1 hosts a highly available virtual machine named VM1. You need to move VM1 from Server1 to Server3 by using live migration. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order. Select and Place:
QUESTION 7 A company named Contoso, Ltd has five Hyper-V hosts that are configured as shown In the following table.
What are two valid live migration scenarios for virtual machines in your environment? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. A. from Server4 to Server5 B. from Server1 to Server5 C. from Server3 to Server4 D. from Server2 to Server3 Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 8 You have two servers named Server1 and Server2. A firewall exists between Server1 and Server2. Both servers run Windows Server Update Services (WSUS). Server1 downloads updates from Microsoft update. Server2 must synchronize updates from Server1. Which port should to open on the firewall? A. 80 B. 443 C. 3389 D. 8530 Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso com The domain contains tour servers named Server 1. Server2. Server3. and Server4 that run Windows Server 2016. Server 1 and Server2 are nodes in Hyper-V cluster named Cluster1 You have a highly available virtual machine named VM1. Server1 is the owner node of VM1 Server3and Server4 are nodes of a scale-out file server named Cluster2. The storage on Server1 is configured as shown in the following table.
You need to move the virtual disk of VM1 to a different location. What should you do? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 10 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same similar answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series. Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question. You have an Active Directory domain that contains two Hyper-V servers named Server1 and Server2. Server1 has Windows Server 2016 installed. Server2 has Windows Server 2012 R2 installed. Each Hyper-V server has three network cards. Each network card is connected to a different subnet. Server1 contains a dedicated migration network. Server2 contains a virtual machine named VM5. You plan to perform a live migration of VM5 to Server1. You need to ensure that Server1 uses all available networks to perform the live migration of VM5. What should you run1? A. the Mount-VHD cmdlet B. the Diskpart command C. the Set-VHD cmdlet D. the Set-VM cmdlet E. the Set-VMHost cmdlet F. the Set-VMProcessor cmdlet G. the Install-WindowsFeature cmdlet H. the Optimize-VHD cmdlet Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 11 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, white others might not have a correct solution. You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 hosts a line-of-business application named App1. App1 has a memory leak that occasionally causes the application to consume an excessive amount of memory. You need to log an event in the Application event log whenever App1 consume more than 4 GB of memory. Solution: You create a performance counter data collector. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12 You have a Hyper-V host named Server1 that hosts a virtual machine named VM1. VM1 runs Windows Server 2016 and is configured as shown in the following table.
You need to ensure that you can manually increase and decrease the amount of memory allocated to VM1 while VM1 is running. What should you do? A. Disable Dynamic Memory B. Enable Integration Services C. Upgrade the configuration version Correct Answer: A References: https://www.altaro.com/hyper-v/hot-add-remove-memory-hyper-v-2016/
QUESTION 13 You have a server named Server1. You enable BitLocker Drive Encryption (BitLocker) on Server1. You need to change the password for the Trusted Platform Module (TPM) chip. What should you run on Server1? A. Initialize-Tpm B. Import-TpmOwnerAuth C. repair-bde.exe D. bdehdcfg-exe Correct Answer: B
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“Implementing an Azure Data Solution” Exam DP-200. Candidates for this exam are Microsoft Azure data engineers who collaborate with business stakeholders to identify and meet the data requirements to implement data solutions that use Azure data services.
Azure data engineers are responsible for data-related tasks that include provisioning data storage services, ingesting streaming and batch data, transforming data, implementing security requirements, implementing data retention policies, identifying performance bottlenecks, and accessing external data sources.
Here you can get the latest free DP-200 exam exercise questions and answers for free and easily improve your skills!
DP-200 exam
Candidates for this exam must be able to implement data solutions that use the following Azure services: Azure Cosmos DB, Azure SQL Database, Azure SQL Data Warehouse, Azure Data Lake Storage, Azure Data Factory, Azure Stream Analytics, Azure Databricks, and Azure Blob storage.
Free Microsoft Azure DP-200 Exam Practice Questions
QUESTION 1
You are creating a managed data warehouse solution on Microsoft Azure.
You must use PolyBase to retrieve data from Azure Blob storage that resides in parquet format and toad the data into a
large table called FactSalesOrderDetails.
You need to configure Azure SQL Data Warehouse to receive the data.
Which four actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to
the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 2 You manage security for a database that supports a line of business application. Private and personal data stored in the database must be protected and encrypted. You need to configure the database to use Transparent Data Encryption (TDE). Which five actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, select the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Step 1: Create a master key Step 2: Create or obtain a certificate protected by the master key Step 3: Set the context to the company database Step 4: Create a database encryption key and protect it by the certificate Step 5: Set the database to use encryption Example code: USE master; GO CREATE MASTER KEY ENCRYPTION BY PASSWORD = \\’\\’; go CREATE CERTIFICATE MyServerCert WITH SUBJECT = \\’My DEK Certificate\\’; go USE AdventureWorks2012; GO CREATE DATABASE ENCRYPTION KEY WITH ALGORITHM = AES_128 ENCRYPTION BY SERVER CERTIFICATE MyServerCert; GO ALTER DATABASE AdventureWorks2012 SET ENCRYPTION ON; GO References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/relational-databases/security/encryption/transparent-data-encryption
QUESTION 3 You implement 3 Azure SQL Data Warehouse instance. You plan to migrate the largest fact table to Azure SQL Data Warehouse The table resides on Microsoft SQL Server on- premises and e 10 terabytes (TB) in size. Incoming queues use the primary key Sale Key column to retrieve data as displayed in the following table:
You need to distribute the fact table across multiple nodes to optimize performance of the table. Which technology should you use? A. hash distributed table with clustered ColumnStore index B. hash distributed table with clustered index C. heap table with distribution replicate D. round robin distributed table with clustered index E. round robin distributed table with clustered ColumnStore index Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4 A company builds an application to allow developers to share and compare code. The conversations, code snippets, and links shared by people in the application are stored in a Microsoft Azure SQL Database instance. The application allows for searches of historical conversations and code snippets. When users share code snippets, the code snippet is compared against previously share code snippets by using a combination of Transact-SQL functions including SUBSTRING, FIRST_VALUE, and SQRT. If a match is found, a link to the match is added to the conversation. Customers report the following issues: Delays occur during live conversations A delay occurs before matching links appear after code snippets are added to conversations You need to resolve the performance issues. Which technologies should you use? To answer, drag the appropriate technologies to the correct issues. Each technology may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Box 1: memory-optimized table In-Memory OLTP can provide great performance benefits for transaction processing, data ingestion, and transient data scenarios. Box 2: materialized view To support efficient querying, a common solution is to generate, in advance, a view that materializes the data in a format suited to the required results set. The Materialized View pattern describes generating prepopulated views of data in environments where the source data isn\\’t in a suitable format for querying, where generating a suitable query is difficult, or where query performance is poor due to the nature of the data or the data store. These materialized views, which only contain data required by a query, allow applications to quickly obtain the information they need. In addition to joining tables or combining data entities, materialized views can include the current values of calculated columns or data items, the results of combining values or executing transformations on the data items, and values specified as part of the query. A materialized view can even be optimized for just a single query. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/architecture/patterns/materialized-view
QUESTION 5 You need to ensure phone-based polling data upload reliability requirements are met. How should you configure monitoring? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
Explanation/Reference: Box 1: FileCapacity FileCapacity is the amount of storage used by the storage account
QUESTION 6 You need to ensure that phone-based polling data can be analyzed in the PollingData database. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer are and arrange them in the correct order. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Explanation/Reference: All deployments must be performed by using Azure DevOps. Deployments must use templates used in multiple environments No credentials or secrets should be used during deployments
QUESTION 7 Note: This question is part of series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contain a unique solution. Determine whether the solution meets the stated goals. You develop data engineering solutions for a company. A project requires the deployment of resources to Microsoft Azure for batch data processing on Azure HDInsight. Batch processing will run daily and must: Scale to minimize costs Be monitored for cluster performance You need to recommend a tool that will monitor clusters and provide information to suggest how to scale. Solution: Monitor clusters by using Azure Log Analytics and HDInsight cluster management solutions. Does the solution meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: A HDInsight provides cluster-specific management solutions that you can add for Azure Monitor logs. Management solutions add functionality to Azure Monitor logs, providing additional data and analysis tools. These solutions collect important performance metrics from your HDInsight clusters and provide the tools to search the metrics. These solutions also provide visualizations and dashboards for most cluster types supported in HDInsight. By using the metrics that you collect with the solution, you can create custom monitoring rules and alerts. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/hdinsight/hdinsight-hadoop-oms-log-analytics-tutorial
QUESTION 8 A company is deploying a service-based data environment. You are developing a solution to process this data. The solution must meet the following requirements: Use an Azure HDInsight cluster for data ingestion from a relational database in a different cloud service Use an Azure Data Lake Storage account to store processed data Allow users to download processed data You need to recommend technologies for the solution. Which technologies should you use? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
Box 1: Apache Sqoop Apache Sqoop is a tool designed for efficiently transferring bulk data between Apache Hadoop and structured datastores such as relational databases. Azure HDInsight is a cloud distribution of the Hadoop components from the Hortonworks Data Platform (HDP). Incorrect Answers: DistCp (distributed copy) is a tool used for large inter/intra-cluster copying. It uses MapReduce to effect its distribution, error handling and recovery, and reporting. It expands a list of files and directories into input to map tasks, each of which will copy a partition of the files specified in the source list. Its MapReduce pedigree has endowed it with some quirks in both its semantics and execution. RevoScaleR is a collection of proprietary functions in Machine Learning Server used for practicing data science at scale. For data scientists, RevoScaleR gives you data-related functions for import, transformation and manipulation, summarization, visualization, and analysis. Box 2: Apache Kafka Apache Kafka is a distributed streaming platform. A streaming platform has three key capabilities: Publish and subscribe to streams of records, similar to a message queue or enterprise messaging system. Store streams of records in a fault-tolerant durable way. Process streams of records as they occur. Kafka is generally used for two broad classes of applications: Building real-time streaming data pipelines that reliably get data between systems or applications Building real-time streaming applications that transform or react to the streams of data Box 3: Ambari Hive View You can run Hive queries by using Apache Ambari Hive View. The Hive View allows you to author, optimize, and run Hive queries from your web browser. References: https://sqoop.apache.org/ https://kafka.apache.org/intro https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/hdinsight/hadoop/apache-hadoop-use-hive-ambari-view
QUESTION 9 You implement an event processing solution using Microsoft Azure Stream Analytics. The solution must meet the following requirements: -Ingest data from Blob storage -Analyze data in real time -Store processed data in Azure Cosmos DB Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 10 You manage a financial computation data analysis process. Microsoft Azure virtual machines (VMs) run the process in daily jobs, and store the results in virtual hard drives (VHDs.) The VMs product results using data from the previous day and store the results in a snapshot of the VHD. When a new month begins, a process creates a new VHD. You must implement the following data retention requirements: Daily results must be kept for 90 days Data for the current year must be available for weekly reports Data from the previous 10 years must be stored for auditing purposes Data required for an audit must be produced within 10 days of a request. You need to enforce the data retention requirements while minimizing cost. How should you configure the lifecycle policy? To answer, drag the appropriate JSON segments to the correct locations. Each JSON segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bat between panes or scroll to view content. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
The Set-AzStorageAccountManagementPolicy cmdlet creates or modifies the management policy of an Azure Storage account. Example: Create or update the management policy of a Storage account with ManagementPolicy rule objects.
QUESTION 11 A company plans to use Platform-as-a-Service (PaaS) to create the new data pipeline process. The process must meet the following requirements. Ingest: – Access multiple data sources – Provide the ability to orchestrate workflow – Provide the capability to run SQL Server Integration Services packages. Store: – Optimize storage for big data workloads. – Provide encryption of data at rest. – Operate with no size limits. Prepare and Train: – Provide a fully-managed and interactive workspace for exploration and visualization. – Provide the ability to program in R, SQL, Python, Scala, and Java. – Provide seamless user authentication with Azure Active Directory. Model and Serve: – Implement native columnar storage. – Support for the SQL language – Provide support for structured streaming. You need to build the data integration pipeline. Which technologies should you use? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 12 You are developing a solution using a Lambda architecture on Microsoft Azure. The data at test layer must meet the following requirements: Data storage: -Serve as a repository (or high volumes of large files in various formats. -Implement optimized storage for big data analytics workloads. -Ensure that data can be organized using a hierarchical structure. Batch processing: -Use a managed solution for in-memory computation processing. -Natively support Scala, Python, and R programming languages. -Provide the ability to resize and terminate the cluster automatically. Analytical data store: -Support parallel processing. -Use columnar storage. -Support SQL-based languages. You need to identify the correct technologies to build the Lambda architecture. Which technologies should you use? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 13 A company has a SaaS solution that uses Azure SQL Database with elastic pools. The solution contains a dedicated database for each customer organization. Customer organizations have peak usage at different periods during the year. You need to implement the Azure SQL Database elastic pool to minimize cost. Which option or options should you configure? A. Number of transactions only B. eDTUs per database only C. Number of databases only D. CPU usage only E. eDTUs and max data size Correct Answer: E The best size for a pool depends on the aggregate resources needed for all databases in the pool. This involves determining the following: Maximum resources utilized by all databases in the pool (either maximum DTUs or maximum vCores depending on your choice of resourcing model). Maximum storage bytes utilized by all databases in the pool. Note: Elastic pools enable the developer to purchase resources for a pool shared by multiple databases to accommodate unpredictable periods of usage by individual databases. You can configure resources for the pool based either on the DTU-based purchasing model or the vCore-based purchasing model. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/sql-database/sql-database-elastic-pool
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Latest Cisco CCDP 300-101 Practice Questions and Answers
QUESTION 1 Which two statements about DMVPN are true? (Choose two.) A. IPsec encryption not supported with statically addressed spokes. B. t requires full-mesh connectivity on the network. C. It uses NHRP to create a mapping database of spoke addresses D. Multicast traffic is not supported E. It supports dynamic addresses for spokes in a hub-and-spoke VPN topology. Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 2 Where must a network engineer configure the IP helper-address command on a router? A. On the interface that will receive the broadcasts B. On the DHCP configuration C. the interface that is closed to the destination DHCP server D. on the global configuration mode Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3 Which NAT command do you enter to disable dynamic ARP learning on an interface? A. R1(config-if)#ip nat enable B. R1(config-if)#ip nat inside C. R1(config)#ip nat serive D. R1(config-if)#ip nat outside E. R1(config)#ip nat allows-static-host Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 4 Which statement describes the difference between a manually configured IPv6 in IPv4 tunnel versus an automatic 6to4 tunnel? A. A manually configured IPv6 in IPv4 tunnel allows multiple IPv4 destinations. B. An automatic 6to4 tunnel allows multiple IPv4 destinations. C. A manually configured IPv6 in IPv4 tunnel does not require dual-stack (IPv4 and IPv6) routers at the tunnel endpoints. D. An automatic 6to4 tunnel does not require dual-stack (IPv4 and IPv6) routers at the tunnel endpoints Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5 Refer to the exhibit. A new TAC engineer came to you for advice. A GRE over IPsec tunnel was configured, but the tunnel is not coming up. What did the TAC engineer configure incorrectly?
A. The crypto map is not configured correctly B. The crypto ACL is not configured correctly. C. The crypto map is not applied to the correct interface. D. The OSPF network is not configured correctly. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6 A network engineer wants to ensure an optimal end-to-end delay-bandwidth product. The delay is less than 64KB. Which TCP feature ensures steady-state throughput? A. Window scaling B. Network buffer C. Round-trip timers D. TCP acknowledgments Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8 When unicast reverse path forwarding is configured on an interface, which action does the interface take first when it receives a packet? A. It checks the ingress access list 300-101 PDF Dumps | 300-101 Study Guide | 300-101 Braindumps 4 / 7https://www.lead4pass.com/300-101.html 2019 Latest lead4pass 300-101 PDF and VCE dumps Download B. It checks the egress access list C. It verifies that the source has a valid VEF adjacency D. It verifies a reverse path via the FIB to the source Correct Answer: D When a packet is received at the interface where Unicast RPF and ACLs have been configured, the following actions occur: Step 1: Input ACLs configured on the inbound interface are checked. Step 2: Unicast RPF checks to see if the packet has arrived on the best return path to the source, which it does by doing a reverse lookup in the FIB table
QUESTION 9 which the Valid range for BGP private ASNs? A. 64512-65535 B. 62464-65024 C. 64512-65024 D. 62464-64511 Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10 In IPv6, the interfaces running OSPF can be configured with multiple address prefixes. Which statement is true about the IPv6 addresses that can be included into the OSPF process? A. Specific addresses can be selected using a route map. B. Specific addresses can be selected using an ACL. C. Specific addresses cannot be selected for importation into the OSPF process. D. Specific addresses can be selected using a prefix list. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11 On a Frame relay, we are unable to ping the remote router, how to solve the problem? A. DLC is active B. DLC is not active and deleted C. Frame Relay map is configured D. Need an ACL to allow PING Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12 You want to configure a device to select an OSPF-learned route as the preferred path over an EBGP-learned route Which action must you take? A. Increase the OSPF cost B. Decrease the OSPF cost C. Increase the OSPF administrative distance D. Decrease the OSPF administrative distance Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13 Which three methods can a network engineer use to fix a metric based routing loop in the network? A. A.Implement offset lists at network boundaries B. B. Filter routes manually using distribute lists C. C. Filter routes manually using prefix lists D. D. Implement proper network summarisation on key routing points E. E. Filter routes based on tags F. F. Utilise root database filters Correct Answer: ABE
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Free test Cisco CCIE 400-151 Exam questions and Answers
QUESTION 1 Which goal of peer-gateway in vPC is true? A. Use the same bridge ID when sending BPDUs from switches in s vPC pair. B. Configure the MAC address of the vPC peer as a gateway MAC. C. Transmit BPDUs from the secondary and primary vPC switch. D. Act as a single router when peering dynamic routing protocols over a vPC. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2 Which three benefits do VXLANs offer compared to VLANs (Choose three.) A. It provides a solution to extend Layer 2 segments over a shared Layer 3 routed network. B. It provides better utilization of available network paths in the underlying infrastructure. C. VXLAN uses a 16-bit VNIS to overcome the 4094 VLAN scale limitation. D. VXLAN uses a 24-bit VNID to overcome the 4094 VLAN scale limitation. E. It provides a solution to extend Layer 2 segments over a single Layer 2 VLAN. F. It provides better utilization of available network paths in the overlay infrastructure. Correct Answer: ABD VXLANOverview As its name indicates, VXLAN is designed to provide the same Ethernet Layer 2 network services as VLAN does today, but with greater extensibility and flexibility. Compared to VLAN, VXLAN offers the following benefits: Flexible placement of multitenant segments throughout the data center: It provides a solution to extend Layer 2 segments over the underlying shared network infrastructure so that tenant workload can be placed across physical pods in the data center. Higher scalability to address more Layer 2 segments: VLANs use a 12-bit VLAN ID to address Layer 2 segments, which results in limiting the scalability of only 4094 VLANs. VXLAN uses a 24-bit segment ID known as the VXLAN network identifier (VNID), which enables up to 16 million VXLAN segments to coexist in the same administrative domain. Better utilization of available network paths in the underlying infrastructure: VLAN uses the Spanning Tree Protocol for loop prevention, which ends up not using half of the network links in a network by blocking redundant paths. In contrast, VXLAN packets are transferred through the underlying network based on its Layer 3 header and can take complete advantage of Layer 3routing, equal-cost multipath (ECMP) routing, and link aggregation protocols to use all available paths. VXLAN Encapsulation and Packet Format VXLAN is a Layer 2 overlay scheme over a Layer 3 network. It uses MAC Address-in-User Datagram Protocol (MAC-in-UDP) encapsulation to provide a means to extend Layer 2 segments across the data center network. VXLAN is a solution to support a flexible, large-scale multitenant environment over a shared common physical infrastructure. The transport protocol over the physical data center network is IP plus UDP.
QUESTION 3 Which two of the following options are true about OpenStack Cinder? (Choose two.) A. Attached to multiple instances simultaneously. B. Data Storage C. Persistent storage D. It can only be attached to one instance at a time. E. Ephemeral storage. Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 4 Drag and drop the term of the Cisco Prime Service Catalog from the left column onto the correct definition on the right. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 5 Drag and drop the objects of the ACI policy model from the left onto the correct definition on right. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 6 Which two guidelines apply to private VLAN configuration when you are running FabricPath? (Choose two.) A. On the F-Series modules, user-configured static MAC addresses are programmed on all forwarding engines that have ports in that VLAN. B. The system does support hierarchical static MAC addresses. C. FabricPath ports can be put into a private VLAN. D. All VLANs in a private VLAN must be in the same VLAN mode; either CE or FabricPath. Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 7 Which two descriptions of the Cisco 7000 RISE Technology are true? (Choose two.) A. RISE enables remote inspection of control plane traffic to address security concerns. B. RISE can provide ADC offload freeing resources in the ADC. C. RISE enables remote inspection of data plane traffic to address security concerns D. RISE enables a physical appliance to appear as a service module in the Cisco Nexis 7000 chassis E. RISE can be utilized to provide management capabilities for non-Cisco routers. Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 8 After you deploy a Layer 4?Layer 7 service graph in Cisco ACI, where do you modify the parameters of the Layer 4 ?Layer 7 device(s)? A. under the Service Graph Template B. under the Provider EPG > L4-L7 Service Parameters C. under the Consumer EPG > L4-L7 Service Parameters D. under the Deployed Graph Instance Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9 While doing service insertion with vAsA with route peering, which two parts must be configured? (Choose two.) A. The chassis must be specified when the L4-L7 device is created. B. The path for interfaces must be specified when the L4-L7 device is created. C. The VM name must be specified when the L4-L7 device is created. D. The route peering profile must be specified when the L4-L7 Service Graph template is created Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 10 Which two statements about CFS are true? (Choose two.) A. CFS distributes the local NTP configuration to master only which then forwards to all devices in the network. B. After enabling CFS, a network-wide lock is applied to NTP whenever an NTP configuration is started and released once after the change has been committed or discarded. C. If CFS is used to distribute NTP, all devices in the network must have the different VRFs configured then as used for NTP. D. You must manually distribute NTP authentication keys on the NTP server and Cisco NX-OS devices across the network. E. CFS requires a license to be installed before it can be used to distribute NTP. Correct Answer: BD Cisco Fabric Services (CFS) distributes the local NTP configuration to all Cisco devices in the network. After enabling CFS on your device, a network-wide lock is applied to NTP whenever an NTP configuration is started. After making the NTP configuration changes, you can discard or commit them. In either case, the CFS lock is then released from the NTP application.
QUESTION 11 Which two differences between hybrid and multi-cloud networking are true? (Choose two.) A. Network Transport from hybrid to multiple cloud providers B. Network Transport from on-premises to multiple public cloud providers C. Network Transport from on-premises to hybrid cloud providers D. Network Transport from a private cloud provider to multiple cloud providers E. Network Transport from on-premises to a single public cloud provider F. Network Transport from on-premises to multiple public cloud providers and between public cloud providers Correct Answer: BE Reference: https://www.openstack.org/assets/presentation-media/shmcfarl-multicloud-net-over-berlin.pdf
QUESTION 12 After VTEP devices have established BGP neighbor adjacencies with other VTEPs or with Internal BGP route reflectors, which three pieces of information are exchanged through BGP? (Choose three.) A. VTEP address B. VTEP peer list C. VPNv4 prefixes D. router MAC address E. Layer 3 VNI Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 13 How do you manually configure a vNIC MAC address? A. Use this identity dynamic-mac command. B. Modify the dynamic vNIC connection policy. C. Use them as-address-table static command. D. Modify the adapter policy. Correct Answer: A
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