[2021.7] Free Cisco 300-820 exam practice test and latest updates 300-820 dumps from Lead4pass

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latest updated Cisco 300-820 exam questions and answers

QUESTION 1
Which two licenses are required for the Expressway B2B feature to work? (Choose two)
A. Traversal Server
B. Advanced Networking
C. Device Provisioning
D. Rich Media Sessions
E. TURN Relays
Correct Answer: AD

 

QUESTION 2
Which two statements about Mobile and Remote Access certificate are true? (Choose two.)
A. Expressway Core can use private CA signed certificate.
B. You must upload the root certificates in the phone trust store.
C. Expressway must generate certificate signing request.
D. Expressway Edge must use public CA signed certificate.
E. The Jabber client can work with public or private CA signed certificate.
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.

cisco 300-820 questions q3

Which two outbound connections should an administrator configure on the internal firewall? (Choose two.)
A. XMPP: TCP 7400
B. SIP: TCP 7001
C. SIP TCP 5061
D. Media: UDP 36012 to 59999
E. HTTPS: TCP 8443
Correct Answer: AB
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/expressway/config_guide/X12-5/CiscoExpressway-IP-Port-Usage-for-Firewall-Traversal-Deployment-Guide-X12-5.pdf

 

QUESTION 4
Which configuration is required when implementing Mobile and Remote Access on Cisco Expressway?
A. IPS
B. SAML authentication
C. Cisco Unified CM publisher address
D. SSO
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 5

cisco 300-820 questions q5

Refer to the exhibit. Which two numbers match the regular expression? (Choose two.)
A. d20d16d20d22
B. 2091652010224
C. 209165200225
D. d209d165d200d224
E. 209165200224
Correct Answer: CE

 

QUESTION 6
When an Expressway-E is configured for static NAT, which Session Description Protocol attribute is modified to reflect
the NAT address?
A. SDP b-line
B. SIP record route
C. SDP c-line
D. SDP m-line
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 7
Which role does Call Policy play when preventing toll fraud on Expressways?
A. It controls which calls are allowed, which calls are rejected, and which calls are redirected to a different destination.
B. It changes the calling and called number on a call.
C. It changes the audio protocol used by a call through Expressways.
D. It changes the audio codec used in a call through Expressways.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 8
When designing the call control on a Cisco Expressway Core, which is the sequence of dial plan functions?
A. transforms, CPL, user policy, search rules
B. search rules, zones, local zones
C. DNS zone, local zone, search rules
D. search rules, transforms
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 9
Which step is taken when configuring a Cisco Expressway solution?
A. Configure the Expressway-E by using a non-traversal server zone.
B. Enable static NAT on the Expressway-E only.
C. Disable H.323 mode on the Expressway-E.
D. Enable H.323 H.460.19 demultiplexing mode on the Expressway-C.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 10
What is a key configuration requirement for Hybrid Message Service High Availability deployment with multiple IM and
Presence clusters?
A. You must have the Intercluster Sync Agent working across your IM and Presence clusters.
B. You must have the Intercluster Lookup Service working across all of your IM and Presence clusters.
C. Your IM and Presence Service clusters must have Multiple Device Messaging disabled.
D. AXL service should be activated only on the publisher of each IM and Presence cluster.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 11
How does an administrator configure an Expressway to make sure an external caller cannot reach a specific internal
address?
A. add the specific URI in the firewall section of the Expressway and block it
B. block the call with a call policy rule in the Expressway-E
C. add a search rule route all calls to the Cisco UCM
D. configure FAC for the destination alias on the Expressway
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 12
Cisco Collaboration endpoints are exchanging encrypted signaling messages.
What is one major complication in implementing NAT ALG for voice and video devices?
A. Internal endpoints cannot use addresses from the private address space.
B. The NAT ALG cannot inspect the contents of encrypted signaling messages.
C. NAT ALG introduces jitter in the voice path.
D. Source addresses cannot provide the destination addresses that remote endpoints should use for return packets.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 13
What is the purpose of a transform in the Expressway server?
A. A transform has the function as a neighbor zone in the Expressway. It creates a connection with another server.
B. A transform changes the audio codec when the call goes through the Expressway.
C. A transform is used to route calls to a destination.
D. A transform changes an alias that matches certain criteria into another alias.
Correct Answer: D

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[2021.7] Free Microsoft MS-600 exam practice test and latest updates MS-600 dumps from Lead4pass

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latest updated Microsoft MS-600 exam questions and answers

QUESTION 1
You need to develop a SharePoint Framework (SPFx) solution that interacts with Microsoft SharePoint and Teams. The
solution must share the same code base. What should you include in the solution?
A. Include the Microsoft Authentication Library for .NET (MSALNET) in the solution.
B. Grant admin consent to the Teams API.
C. Make the code aware of the Teams context and the SharePoint context.
D. Publish the solution to an Azure App Service.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 2
You are developing a single-page application (SPA).
You plan to access user data from Microsoft Graph by using an AJAX call.
You need to obtain an access token by the Microsoft Authentication Library (MSAL). The solution must minimize
authentication prompts.
How should you complete the code segment? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

.Correct Answer:

Box 1: loginPopup
Box 2: acquireTokenSilent
The pattern for acquiring tokens for APIs with MSAL.js is to first attempt a silent token request by using the
acquireTokenSilent method. When this method is called, the library first checks the cache in browser storage to see if a
valid token
exists and returns it. When no valid token is in the cache, it sends a silent token request to Azure Active Directory
(Azure AD) from a hidden iframe. This method also allows the library to renew tokens.
Box 3: acquireTokenPopup
//AcquireToken Failure, send an interactive request.
Example:
userAgentApplication.loginPopup(applicationConfig.graphScopes).then(function (idToken) { //Login Success
userAgentApplication.acquireTokenSilent(applicationConfig.graphScopes).then(function (accessToken) {
//AcquireToken Success
updateUI();
}, function (error) {
//AcquireToken Failure, send an interactive request.
userAgentApplication.acquireTokenPopup(applicationConfig.graphScopes).then(function (accessToken) {
updateUI();
}, function (error) {
console.log(error);
});
})
}, function (error) {
console.log(error);
});
Reference: https://github.com/AzureAD/microsoft-authentication-library-for-js/issues/339

 

QUESTION 3
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.
You can use a Command Set extension to develop a breadcrumb element that will appear on every Microsoft
SharePoint page.
Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the
statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct.
A. No change is needed
B. an Application Customizer
C. a Field Customizer
D. a web part
Correct Answer: B
Application Customizers provide access to well-known locations on SharePoint pages that you can modify based on
your business and functional requirements. For example, you can create dynamic header and footer experiences that
render across all the pages in SharePoint Online.
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sharepoint/dev/spfx/extensions/get-started/using-page-placeholder-withextensions

 

QUESTION 4
DRAG DROP
You are developing an application that will upload files that are larger than 50 MB to Microsoft OneDrive.
You need to recommend an upload solution to ensure that the file upload process can resume if a network error occurs
during the upload.
Which four actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the actions from the list of actions to the answer
area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:

QUESTION 5
You have an application that has the code shown in the exhibits. (Click the JavaScript Version tab or the C# Version
tab.)
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
JavaScript Version

C# Version

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Box 1: No
Box 2: No
Box 3: Yes
A file is downloaded from OneDrive and saved locally.
Drive/Root is the drive resource is the top level object representing a user\\’s OneDrive or a document library in
SharePoint.
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/graph/api/resources/drive

 

QUESTION 6
DRAG DROP
You are developing a sever-based application that has the following requirements:
Prompt the user to fill out a form that contains a keyword. Search the Microsoft OneDrive folder for files that contain the
keyword and return the results to the user.
Allow the user to select one of the files from the results. Copy the selected file to an Azure Blob storage container.
Which four actions should the application perform in sequence? To answer, move the actions from the list of actions to
the
answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:

QUESTION 7
You have a SharePoint Framework (SPFx) 1.5 solution.
You need to ensure that the solution can be used as a tab in Microsoft Teams.
What should you do first?
A. Convert the solution to use the Bot Framework
B. Deploy the solution to a developer site collection
C. Deploy the solution to the Microsoft AppSource store
D. Upgrade the solution to the latest version of SPFx
Correct Answer: D
Starting with the SharePoint Framework v1.8, you can implement your Microsoft Teams tabs using SharePoint
Framework. Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sharepoint/dev/spfx/web-parts/get-started/using-web-part-asms-teams-tab

 

QUESTION 8
You have a custom Microsoft Word add-in that was written by using Microsoft Visual Studio Code.
A user reports that there is an issue with the add-in.
You need to debug the add-in for Word Online.
What should you do before you begin debugging in Visual Studio Code?
A. Disable script debugging in your web browser
B. Sideload the add-in
C. Publish the manifest to the Microsoft SharePoint app catalog
D. Add the manifest path to the trusted catalogs
Correct Answer: C
Debug your add-in from Excel or Word on the web
To debug your add-in by using Office on the web (see step 3):
9. Deploy your add-in to a server that supports SSL.
10.In your add-in manifest file, update the SourceLocation element value to include an absolute, rather than a relative,
URI.
11.Upload the manifest to the Office Add-ins library in the app catalog on SharePoint.
12.Launch Excel or Word on the web from the app launcher in Office 365, and open a new document.
13.On the Insert tab, choose My Add-ins or Office Add-ins to insert your add-in and test it in the app.
14.Use your favorite browser tool debugger to debug your add-in.
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office/dev/add-ins/testing/debug-add-ins-in-office-online


QUESTION 9
You are developing a Microsoft Office Add-in for Microsoft Word. Which Office Ul element can contain commands from
the add-in?
A. dialog boxes
B. the Quick Access Toolbar (QAT)
C. context menus
D. task panes
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 10
You need to develop a server-based web app that will be registered with the Microsoft identity platform. The solution
must ensure that the app can perform operations on behalf of the user. Which type of authorization flow should you
use?
A. authorization code
B. refresh token
C. resource owner password
D. device code
Correct Answer: A
In web server apps, the sign-in authentication flow takes these high-level steps: You can ensure the user\\’s identity by
validating the ID token with a public signing key that is received from the Microsoft identity platform endpoint. A session
cookie is set, which can be used to identify the user on subsequent page requests.

In addition to simple sign-in, a web server app might need to access another web service, such as a REST API. In this
case, the web server app engages in a combined OpenID Connect and OAuth 2.0 flow, by using the OAuth 2.0
authorization code flow. Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/develop/v2-app-types

 

QUESTION 11
You company has a third-party invoicing web app.
You need to display the app within Microsoft Teams for one user only. The app will not require conversational
interactions.
How should you display the app by using the minimum amount of effort?
A. Instruct the user to add a website tab
B. Instruct the user to add an App Studio app
C. Create a SharePoint Framework (SPFx) web part
D. Create a search-based messaging extension
Correct Answer: A
There are currently three methods of app integration in Teams: Connectors, Bots, and Tabs. Tabs offer more extensive
integration by allowing you to view entire third-party services within Microsoft Teams. Reference:
https://www.sherweb.com/blog/office-365/o365-microsoft-teams-apps/

 

QUESTION 12
You need to retrieve a list of the last 10 files that the current user opened from Microsoft OneDrive. The response must
contain only the file ID and the file name.
Which URI should you use to retrieve the results? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

“graph.microsoft.com” “drive” onedrive
Box 1: root
/root – The root folder for the drive.
Box 2: $select=id,name
To specify a different set of properties to return than the default set provided by the Graph, use the $select query option.
The $select option allows for choosing a subset or superset of the default set returned. For example, when retrieving
your messages, you might want to select that only the from and subject properties of messages are returned.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/onedrive/developer/rest-api/concepts/addressing-driveitems
https://developer.microsoft.com/en-us/graph/docs/overview/query_parameters

 

QUESTION 13
You are developing a Microsoft Teams application.
Which Teams feature provides you with the ability to invoke a model popup by using the minimum amount of custom
code?
A. An adaptive card
B. A bot
C. A connector
D. A task module
Correct Answer: B

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latest updated Cisco 300-810 exam questions and answers

QUESTION 1
Which two methods does Cisco Jabber use for contact searching in an on-premises deployment model? (Choose two.)
A. HTTP
B. XMPP
C. UDS
D. LDAP
E. SIP
Correct Answer: CD
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/srnd/collab11/collab11/presence.html

 

QUESTION 2
Which function of the Cisco IM and Presence high availability solution is true?
A. When the server has been restored to a normal state, user sessions remain on the backup server.
B. When an event takes place, the end user sessions are not moved from the failed server to the backup.
C. When the server has been restored, the server automatically fails back.
D. When a high availability event takes place, the end user sessions are moved from the failed server to the backup.
Correct Answer: D
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/unified-communications/unified-communications-manager-im-presenceservice/200958-IM-and-Presence-Server-High-Availability.html

 

QUESTION 3
Which service must be activated on Cisco Unity Connection to utilize LDAP synchronization?
A. Cisco Tomcat
B. Cisco Sync Agent
C. Cisco DirSync
D. Cisco RIS Data Collector
Correct Answer: C
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/connection/10x/administration/guide/10xcucsagx/10xcucsag120.html

 

QUESTION 4
Which component of SAML SSO defines the transport mechanism that is used to deliver the SAML messages between
entities?
A. profiles
B. metadata
C. assertions
D. bindings
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 5
Which SAML 2.0 profile is supported by Cisco UCM, Cisco Unified IM and Presence, and Unity Connection version 10.x
and above?
A. single logout
B. web browser SSO
C. name identifier management
D. identity provider discovery
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 6

Refer to the exhibit.

cisco 300-810 questions q6

Users report that they cannot see the Chat Rooms icon on their Cisco Jabber clients. This feature works without issue in
the lab. An engineer reviews the Cisco IMandP and Jabber configuration and finds that the jabber-config.xml file is
configured properly to support this feature. Which activity should be performed on the IMandP server to resolve this
issue?
A. Activate Cisco XCP Connection Manager in Cisco Unified Serviceability > Tools > Service Activation.
B. Restart Cisco XCP Message Archiver in Cisco Unified Serviceability > Tools > Control Center – Feature Services.
C. Restart XCP Text Conference Manager in Cisco Unified Serviceability > Tools > Control Center – Network Services.
D. Activate XCP Text Conference Manager in Cisco Unified Serviceability > Tools > Service Activation.
Correct Answer: D
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/unified-communications/jabber-windows/118684-probsol-chat-00.html

 

QUESTION 7
What are two Cisco Jabber 12.6 on-premises deployment types that can be run on a Windows- enabled PC? (Choose
two.)
A. Contact Center Agent
B. IM-only
C. multicloud-based
D. Full UC
E. cloud-based
Correct Answer: BD
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/jabber/12_6/cjab_b_on-prem-deployment-ciscojabber_12-6.pdf

 

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit.

cisco 300-810 questions q8

Users connected to the internal network report a “Cannot communicate with the server” error while trying to log in to
Cisco Jabber using auto service discovery. The Jabber diagnostics and the SRV record configuration are as shown in
the exhibit. The host cucm1.ccnp.cisco.com is correctly resolved by the user desktops with the Cisco Unified
Communications Manager IP address. Why is the user not able to log in?
A. SRV protocol is not set up correctly. It should be _tls instead of _tcp.
B. Marking weight as 0 on the SRV record makes it inactive, so Jabber cannot discover the Cisco Unified CM.
C. The port specified on the SRV record is wrong.
D. The domain ccnp.cisco.com does not exist on the DNS server.
Correct Answer: C
Reference:
https://community.cisco.com/t5/collaboration-voice-and-video/jabber-client-login-and-login-issues/ta-p/3143446

 

QUESTION 9
Which two protocols does the Cisco IM Presence service use to federate with external domains? (Choose two.)
A. XMPP
B. SNMP
C. SIP
D. SCCP
E. SMPP
Correct Answer: AC
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/im_presence/interdomain_federation/11_5_1/cup0_b_interdomain-federation-guide-imp-115.pdf

 

QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit.

cisco 300-810 questions q10

Which statement is true?
A. If the IMandP node in sub-cluster-1 goes down, then users assigned to it are randomly split between the two
remaining subclusters.
B. The administrator must add one node to each subcluster for high availability.
C. IMandP nodes in each subscluster must be configured from the same OVA template.
D. Each Cisco IMandP subcluster must have the same number of nodes.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 11
An engineer is configuring DNS for service discovery in a Jabber deployment for on-premises clients. Which snippet will
complete the SRV record name _tcp.example.com?
A. _cisco_uds
B. _collab_edge
C. _xmpp.server
D. _xmpp-client
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.ciscolive.com/c/dam/r/ciscolive/us/docs/2016/pdf/BRKCOL-2344.pdf

 

QUESTION 12
Which SAML component specifies the mapping of SAML assertion protocol message exchanges with standard
messaging formats or communication protocols such as SOAP exchanges?
A. SAML binding
B. SAML assertion
C. SAML profiles
D. SAML protocol
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Security_Assertion_Markup_Language

 

QUESTION 13
SAML SSO is enabled in Cisco Unified Communications Manager. What happens when a browser- based client
attempts to access a protected resource on a service provider?
A. The browser follows the redirect and issues an HTTPS GET request to the IdP.
B. The IdP checks for a valid browser session.
C. The service provider generates a SAML authentication request.
D. The SAML request is maintained as a query parameter in the GET request.
Correct Answer: C
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/SAML_SSO_deployment_guide/12_5_1/cucm_b_samlsso-deployment-guide-12_5/cucm_b_saml-sso-deployment-guide-12_5_chapter_01.html

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latest updated Microsoft DP-203 exam questions and answers

QUESTION 1
HOTSPOT
Which Azure Data Factory components should you recommend using together to import the daily inventory data from
the SQL server to Azure Data Lake Storage? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Explanation:
Box 1: Self-hosted integration runtime
A self-hosted IR is capable of running copy activity between a cloud data store and a data store in a private network.
Box 2: Schedule trigger
Schedule every 8 hours
Box 3: Copy activity
Scenario:
Customer data, including name, contact information, and loyalty number, comes from Salesforce and can be imported
into Azure once every eight hours. Row modified dates are not trusted in the source table.
Product data, including product ID, name, and category, comes from Salesforce and can be imported into Azure once
every eight hours. Row modified dates are not trusted in the source table.

 

QUESTION 2
HOTSPOT
You use Azure Data Factory to prepare data to be queried by Azure Synapse Analytics serverless SQL pools.
Files are initially ingested into an Azure Data Lake Storage Gen2 account as 10 small JSON files. Each file contains the
same data attributes and data from a subsidiary of your company.
You need to move the files to a different folder and transform the data to meet the following requirements:
Provide the fastest possible query times.
Automatically infer the schema from the underlying files.
How should you configure the Data Factory copy activity? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Box 1: Preserver hierarchy
Compared to the flat namespace on Blob storage, the hierarchical namespace greatly improves the performance of
directory management operations, which improves overall job performance.
Box 2: Parquet
Azure Data Factory parquet format is supported for Azure Data Lake Storage Gen2.
Parquet supports the schema property.
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/blobs/data-lake-storage-introduction
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/data-factory/format-parquet

 

QUESTION 3
HOTSPOT
You need to design the partitions for the product sales transactions. The solution must meet the sales transaction
dataset requirements.
What should you include in the solution? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Box 1: Sales date
Scenario: Contoso requirements for data integration include:
Partition data that contains sales transaction records. Partitions must be designed to provide efficient loads by month.
Boundary values must belong to the partition on the right.
Box 2: An Azure Synapse Analytics Dedicated SQL pool
Scenario: Contoso requirements for data integration include:
Ensure that data storage costs and performance are predictable.
The size of a dedicated SQL pool (formerly SQL DW) is determined by Data Warehousing Units (DWU).
Dedicated SQL pool (formerly SQL DW) stores data in relational tables with columnar storage. This format significantly
reduces data storage costs and improves query performance.
Synapse analytics dedicated SQL pool
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/synapse-analytics/sql-data-warehouse/sql-data-warehouse-overview-what-is

 

QUESTION 4
You plan to create an Azure Databricks workspace that has a tiered structure. The workspace will contain the following
three workloads:
A workload for data engineers who will use Python and SQL.
A workload for jobs that will run notebooks that use Python, Scala, and SOL.
A workload that data scientists will use to perform ad hoc analysis in Scala and R.
The enterprise architecture team at your company identifies the following standards for Databricks environments:
The data engineers must share a cluster.
The job cluster will be managed by using a request process whereby data scientists and data engineers provide
packaged notebooks for deployment to the cluster.
All the data scientists must be assigned their own cluster that terminates automatically after 120 minutes of inactivity.
Currently, there are three data scientists.
You need to create the Databricks clusters for the workloads.
Solution: You create a High Concurrency cluster for each data scientist, a High Concurrency cluster for the data
engineers, and a Standard cluster for the jobs.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
Need a High Concurrency cluster for the jobs.
Standard clusters are recommended for a single user. Standard can run workloads developed in any language: Python,
R, Scala, and SQL.
A high concurrency cluster is a managed cloud resource. The key benefits of high concurrency clusters are that they
provide Apache Spark-native fine-grained sharing for maximum resource utilization and minimum query latencies.
Reference:
https://docs.azuredatabricks.net/clusters/configure.html

 

QUESTION 5
You have an Azure Synapse Analytics dedicated SQL pool that contains a large fact table. The table contains 50
columns and 5 billion rows and is a heap.
Most queries against the table aggregate values from approximately 100 million rows and return only two columns.
You discover that the queries against the fact table are very slow.
Which type of index should you add to provide the fastest query times?
A. nonclustered column store
B. clustered column store
C. nonclustered
D. clustered
Correct Answer: B
Clustered columnstore indexes are one of the most efficient ways you can store your data in a dedicated SQL pool.
Columnstore tables won\\’t benefit a query unless the table has more than 60 million rows.
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/synapse-analytics/sql/best-practices-dedicated-sql-pool

 

QUESTION 6
You have a table in an Azure Synapse Analytics dedicated SQL pool. The table was created by using the following
Transact-SQL statement.

You need to alter the table to meet the following requirements:
Ensure that users can identify the current manager of employees.
Support creating an employee reporting hierarchy for your entire company.
Provide fast lookup of the managers\\’ attributes such as name and job title.
Which column should you add to the table?
A. [ManagerEmployeeID] [int] NULL
B. [ManagerEmployeeID] [smallint] NULL
C. [ManagerEmployeeKey] [int] NULL
D. [ManagerName] [varchar](200) NULL
Correct Answer: A
Use the same definition as the EmployeeID column.
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/analysis-services/tabular-models/hierarchies-ssas-tabular

 

QUESTION 7
HOTSPOT
You build an Azure Data Factory pipeline to move data from an Azure Data Lake Storage Gen2 container to a database
in an Azure Synapse Analytics dedicated SQL pool.
Data in the container is stored in the following folder structure.
/in/{YYYY}/{MM}/{DD}/{HH}/{mm}
The earliest folder is /in/2021/01/01/00/00. The latest folder is /in/2021/01/15/01/45.
You need to configure a pipeline trigger to meet the following requirements:
Existing data must be loaded.
Data must be loaded every 30 minutes.
Late-arriving data of up to two minutes must be included in the load for the time at which the data should have arrived.
How should you configure the pipeline trigger? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Box 1: Tumbling window
To be able to use the Delay parameter we select the Tumbling window.
Box 2:
Recurrence: 30 minutes, not 32 minutes
Delay: 2 minutes.
The amount of time to delay the start of data processing for the window. The pipeline run is started after the expected
execution time plus the amount of delay. The delay defines how long the trigger waits past the due time before
triggering a
new run. The delay doesn\\’t alter the window start time.
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/data-factory/how-to-create-tumbling-window-trigger

 

QUESTION 8
You have an Azure Synapse Analytics dedicated SQL pool.
You need to ensure that data in the pool is encrypted at rest. The solution must NOT require modifying applications that
query the data.
What should you do?
A. Enable encryption at rest for the Azure Data Lake Storage Gen2 account.
B. Enable Transparent Data Encryption (TDE) for the pool.
C. Use a customer-managed key to enable double encryption for the Azure Synapse workspace.
D. Create an Azure key vault in the Azure subscription to grant access to the pool.
Correct Answer: B
Transparent Data Encryption (TDE) helps protect against the threat of malicious activity by encrypting and decrypting
your data at rest. When you encrypt your database, associated backups and transaction log files are encrypted without
requiring any changes to your applications. TDE encrypts the storage of an entire database by using a symmetric key
called the database encryption key.
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/synapse-analytics/sql-data-warehouse/sql-data-warehouse-overviewmanage-security

 

QUESTION 9
You need to implement the surrogate key for the retail store table. The solution must meet the sales transaction dataset
requirements. What should you create?
A. a table that has an IDENTITY property
B. a system-versioned temporal table
C. a user-defined SEQUENCE object
D. a table that has a FOREIGN KEY constraint
Correct Answer: A
Scenario: Implement a surrogate key to account for changes to the retail store addresses.
A surrogate key on a table is a column with a unique identifier for each row. The key is not generated from the table
data. Data modelers like to create surrogate keys on their tables when they design data warehouse models. You can
use the IDENTITY property to achieve this goal simply and effectively without affecting load performance.
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/synapse-analytics/sql-data-warehouse/sql-data-warehouse-tablesidentity

 

QUESTION 10
HOTSPOT
You are creating dimensions for a data warehouse in an Azure Synapse Analytics dedicated SQL pool.
You create a table by using the Transact-SQL statement shown in the following exhibit.

Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information
presented in the graphic. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Box 1: Type 2
A Type 2 SCD supports versioning of dimension members. Often the source system doesn\\’t store versions, so the
data warehouse load process detects and manages changes in a dimension table. In this case, the dimension table
must use
a surrogate key to provide a unique reference to a version of the dimension member. It also includes columns that
define the date range validity of the version (for example, StartDate and EndDate) and possibly a flag column (for
example,
current) to easily filter by current dimension members.
Incorrect Answers:
A Type 1 SCD always reflects the latest values, and when changes in source data are detected, the dimension table
data is overwritten.
Box 2: a business key
A business key or natural key is an index that identifies the uniqueness of a row based on columns that exist naturally in a
table according to business rules. For example, business keys are customer code in a customer table, composite of
sales
order header number and sales order item line number within a sales order details table.
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/learn/modules/populate-slowly-changing-dimensions-azure-synapse-analyticspipelines/3-choose-between-dimension-types

 

QUESTION 11
You have an Azure Databricks workspace named workspace1 in the Standard pricing tier.
You need to configure workspace1 to support autoscaling all-purpose clusters. The solution must meet the following
requirements:
Automatically scale down workers when the cluster is underutilized for three minutes.
Minimize the time it takes to scale to the maximum number of workers.
Minimize costs.
What should you do first?
A. Enable container services for workspace1.
B. Upgrade workspace1 to the Premium pricing tier.
C. Set Cluster-Mode to High Concurrency.
D. Create a cluster policy in workspace1.
Correct Answer: B
For clusters running Databricks Runtime 6.4 and above, optimized autoscaling is used by all-purpose clusters in the
Premium plan Optimized autoscaling:
Scales up from min to max in 2 steps.
Can scale down even if the cluster is not idle by looking at shuffle file state.
Scales down based on a percentage of current nodes.
On job clusters, scales down if the cluster is underutilized over the last 40 seconds.
On all-purpose clusters, scales down if the cluster is underutilized over the last 150 seconds.
The spark. data bricks.aggressiveWindowDownS Spark configuration property specifies in seconds how often a cluster
makes down-scaling decisions. Increasing the value causes a cluster to scale down more slowly. The maximum value
is
600.
Note: Standard autoscaling
Starts with adding 8 nodes. Thereafter, scales up exponentially, but can take many steps to reach the max. You can
customize the first step by setting the spark. data bricks. autoscaling.standardFirstStepUp Spark configuration property.
Scales down only when the cluster is completely idle and it has been underutilized for the last 10 minutes.
Scales down exponentially, starting with 1 node.
Reference:
https://docs.databricks.com/clusters/configure.html

 

QUESTION 12
You are creating an Azure Data Factory data flow that will ingest data from a CSV file, cast columns to specified types
of data, and insert the data into a table in an Azure Synapse Analytic dedicated SQL pool. The CSV file contains three
columns named username, comment, and date.
The data flow already contains the following:
A source transformation.
A Derived Column transformation to set the appropriate types of data.
A sink transformation to land the data in the pool.
You need to ensure that the data flow meets the following requirements:
All valid rows must be written to the destination table.
Truncation errors in the comment column must be avoided proactively.
Any rows containing comment values that will cause truncation errors upon insert must be written to a file in blob
storage.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. To the data flow, add a sink transformation to write the rows to a file in blob storage.
B. To the data flow, add a Conditional Split transformation to separate the rows that will cause truncation errors.
C. To the data flow, add a filter transformation to filter out rows that will cause truncation errors.
D. Add a select transformation to select only the rows that will cause truncation errors.
Correct Answer: AB
B: Example:
1.
This conditional split transformation defines the maximum length of “title” to be five. Any row that is less than or equal to
five will go into the GoodRows stream. Any row that is larger than five will go into the BadRows stream.
2.
This conditional split transformation defines the maximum length of “title” to be five. Any row that is less than or equal to
five will go into the GoodRows stream. Any row that is larger than five will go into the BadRows stream.

A:
3.
Now we need to log the rows that failed. Add a sink transformation to the BadRows stream for logging. Here, we\\’ll
“auto-map” all of the fields so that we have logging of the complete transaction record. This is a text-delimited CSV file
output to a single file in Blob Storage. We\\’ll call the log file “badrows.csv”.
4.
The completed data flow is shown below. We are now able to split off error rows to avoid the SQL truncation errors and
put those entries into a log file. Meanwhile, successful rows can continue to write to our target database.

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/data-factory/how-to-data-flow-error-rows

 

QUESTION 13
HOTSPOT
You are building an Azure Stream Analytics job to identify how much time a user spends interacting with a feature on a
webpage.
The job receives events based on user actions on the webpage. Each row of data represents an event. Each event has
a type of either \\’start\\’ or \\’end\\’.
You need to calculate the duration between start and end events.
How should you complete the query? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Box 1: DATEDIFF
DATEDIFF function returns the count (as a signed integer value) of the specified datepart boundaries crossed between
the specified startdate and enddate.
Syntax: DATEDIFF ( datepart , startdate, enddate )
Box 2: LAST
The LAST function can be used to retrieve the last event within a specific condition. In this example, a condition is an
event of type Start, partitioning the search by PARTITION BY user and feature. This way, every user and feature is
treated independently when searching for the Start event. LIMIT DURATION limits the search back in time to 1 hour
between the End and Start events.
Example:
SELECT [user], feature, DATEDIFF( second, LAST(Time) OVER (PARTITION BY [user], feature LIMIT
DURATION(hour, 1) WHEN Event = \\’start\\’), Time) as duration
FROM input TIMESTAMP BY Time
WHERE Event = \\’end\\’
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/stream-analytics/stream-analytics-stream-analytics-query-patterns

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latest updated Microsoft AZ-140 exam questions and answers

QUESTION 1
You have a Windows Virtual Desktop host pool that runs Windows 10 Enterprise multi-session. You need to configure
automatic scaling of the host pool to meet the following requirements:
1.
Distribute new user sessions across all running session hosts.
2.
Automatically start a new session host when concurrent user sessions exceed 30 users per host. What should you
include in the solution?
A. an Azure Automation account and the depth-first load balancing algorithm
B. an Azure Automation account and the breadth-first load balancing algorithm
C. an Azure load balancer and the breadth-first load balancing algorithm
D. an Azure load balancer and the depth-first load balancing algorithm
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-desktop/host-pool-load-balancing
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-desktop/configure-host-pool-load-balancing

 

QUESTION 2
HOTSPOT
You have a Windows Virtual Desktop deployment.
You need to ensure that all the connections to the managed resources in the host pool require multi-factor
authentication (MFA).
Which two settings should you modify in a conditional access policy? To answer, select the appropriate options in the
answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/authentication/tutorial-enable-azure-mfa

 

QUESTION 3
HOTSPOT
You have an Azure virtual machine named VM1 that runs Windows 10 Enterprise multi-session.
You plan to add language packs to VM1 and create a custom image of VM1 for a Windows Virtual Desktop host pool.
You need to ensure that modern apps can use the additional language packs when you deploy session hosts by using
the custom image.
Which command should you run first? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/troubleshoot/windows-server/deployment/issues-appx-cleanupmaintenance-task
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/scheduledtasks/disablescheduledtask?view=windowsserver2019-ps

 

QUESTION 4
You have a Windows Virtual Desktop host pool that contains 20 Windows 10 Enterprise multi-session hosts.
Users connect to the Windows Virtual Desktop deployment from computers that run Windows 10.
You plan to implement FSLogix Application Masking.
You need to deploy Application Masking rule sets. The solution must minimize administrative effort.
To where should you copy the rule sets?
A. the FSLogix profile container of each user
B. C:\Program Files\FSLogix\Apps\Rules on every Windows 10 computer
C. C:\Program Files\FSLogix\Apps\Rules on every session host
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-desktop/fslogix-office-app-rule-editor

 

QUESTION 5
You plan to deploy Windows Virtual Desktop to meet the department requirements shown in the following table.

You plan to use Windows Virtual Desktop host pools with load balancing and autoscaling.
You need to recommend a host pool design that meets the requirements. The solution must minimize costs.
What is the minimum number of host pools you should recommend?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-desktop/create-host-pools-azure-marketplace

 

QUESTION 6
DRAG-DROP
You have a Windows Virtual Desktop host pool named Pool1. Pool1 contains session hosts that use the FSLogix profile
containers hosted in Azure NetApp Files volumes.
You need to back up profile files by using snapshots.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions
to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-netapp-files/azure-netapp-files-manage-snapshots

 

QUESTION 7
You plan to deploy Windows Virtual Desktop. The deployment will use existing virtual machines. You create a Windows
Virtual Desktop host pool.
You need to ensure that you can add virtual machines to the host pool.
What should you do first?
A. Register the Microsoft.DesktopVirtualization provider.
B. Generate a registration key.
C. Run the Invoke-AzVMRunCommand cmdlet.
D. Create a role assignment.
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-desktop/create-host-pools-azure-marketplace


QUESTION 8
You need to configure the virtual machines that have the Pool1 prefix. The solution must meet the technical
requirements. What should you use?
A. a Windows Virtual Desktop automation task
B. Virtual machine auto-shutdown
C. Service Health in Azure Monitor
D. Azure Automation
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/logic-apps/create-automation-tasks-azure-resources

 

QUESTION 9
You have an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named contoso.com and an Azure virtual network named
VNET1.
To VNET1, you deploy an Azure Active Directory Domain Services (Azure AD DS) managed domain named
litwareinc.com.
To VNET1, you plan to deploy a Windows Virtual Desktop host pool named Pool1.
You need to ensure that you can deploy Windows 10 Enterprise host pools to Pool1.
What should you do first?
A. Modify the settings of the litwareinc.com DNS zone.
B. Modify the DNS settings of VNET1.
C. Add a custom domain name to contoso.com.
D. Implement Azure AD Connect cloud sync.
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory-domain-services/tutorial-create-instance

 

QUESTION 10
You need to recommend an authentication solution that meets the performance requirements.
Which two actions should you include in the recommendation? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Join all the session hosts to Azure AD.
B. In each Azure region that will contain the Windows Virtual Desktop session hosts, create an Azure Active Directory
Domain Service (Azure AD DS) managed domain.
C. Deploy domain controllers for the on-premises Active Directory domain on Azure virtual machines.
D. Deploy read-only domain controllers (RODCs) on Azure virtual machines.
E. In each Azure region that will contain the Windows Virtual Desktop session hosts, create an Active Directory site.
Correct Answer: AC
Reference: https://www.compete366.com/blog-posts/how-to-implement-azure-windows-virtual-desktop-wvd/
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-desktop/create-host-pools-azure-marketplace

 

QUESTION 11
HOTSPOT
Your network contains an on-premises Active Directory domain that syncs to an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD)
tenant. The domain contains the users shown in the following table.

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-desktop/environment-setup

 

QUESTION 12
You need to configure the user settings of Admin1 to meet the user profile requirements. What should you do?
A. Modify the membership of the FSLogix ODFC Exclude List group.
B. Modify the membership of the FSLogix Profile Exclude List group.
C. Modify the HKLM\SOFTWARE\FSLogix\Profiles registry settings.
D. Modify the HKLM\SOFTWARE\FSLogix\ODFC registry settings.
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/fslogix/overview
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/fslogix/configure-profile-container-tutorial#set-up-include-and-exclude-user-groups

 

QUESTION 13
You have a Windows Virtual Desktop host pool that contains two session hosts. The Microsoft Teams client is installed
on each session host.
You discover that only the Microsoft Teams chat and collaboration features work. The calling and meeting features are
disabled.
You need to ensure that users can set the calling and meeting features from within Microsoft Teams.
What should you do?
A. Install the Remote Desktop WebRTC Redirector Service.
B. Configure Remote audio mode in the RDP Properties.
C. Install the Teams Meeting add-in for Outlook.
D. Configure audio input redirection.
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-desktop/teams-on-wvd

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latest updated Cisco 700-765 exam questions and answers

QUESTION 1
What are two ways that Cisco helps customers secure loT deployments? (Choose two.)
A. network analysis
B. secure remote access
C. segmentation and visibility
D. cross-architecture automation
E. limited access points
Correct Answer: CE

 

QUESTION 2
Which statement best embodies trust-centric security?
A. Protect users from attacks by enabling strict security policies.
B. Prevent attacks via an intelligence-based policy then detect, investigate, and remediate.
C. Verify before granting access via identity-based policies for users, devices, apps, and locations.
D. Verify before granting access via MDM software.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 3
In which two ways should companies modernize their security philosophies? (Choose two.)
A. Expand their IT departments
B. Decrease internal access and reporting
C. Complement threat-centric tactics with trust-centric methods
D. Reinforce their threat-centric security tactics
E. Rebuild their security portfolios with new solutions
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 4
In the Campus NGFW use case, which capability is provided by NGFW and NGIPS?
A. Flexible AAA Options
B. Identity Services Engine
C. Differentiated Mobile Access
D. High throughput maintained while still protecting domains against threats
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 5
What are two steps customers can take to evolve to a trust-centric security philosophy? (Choose two.)
A. Require and install agents on mobile devices.
B. Block BYOD devices.
C. Limit internal access to networks
D. Always verify and never trust everything inside and outside the perimeter.
E. Only grant access to authorized users and devices.
Correct Answer: BE

 

QUESTION 6
What are three key benefits of Cisco NGFW? (Choose three.)
A. Reduces throughput
B. Prepares defenses
C. Reduces complexity
D. Identifies anomalous traffic
E. Detects and remediates threats faster
F. Increases traffic latency
Correct Answer: BCE

 

QUESTION 7
Which feature of AnyConnect provides better access security across wired and wireless connections with 802.1X?
A. Trusted Network Detection
B. Secure Layer 2 Network Access
C. Flexible AAA Options
D. AnyConnect with AMP
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 8
What are two key capabilities of Meraki? (Choose two.)
A. application visibility and control
B. security automation
C. contextual awareness
D. device profiling
E. identity-based and device-aware security
Correct Answer: AD

 

QUESTION 9
What does Cisco provide via Firepower\\’s simplified, consistent management?
A. Reduced complexity
B. Improved speed to security
C. Reduced downtime
D. Higher value
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 10
What is a key feature of Duo?
A. Provides SSL VPN
B. Authenticates user identity for remote access
C. Automates policy creation for IT staff
D. Supports pxGrid
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 11
Which two loT environment layers are protected by AMP for Endpoints? (Choose two.)
A. Internet/Cloud
B. Control Layer
C. Data Center
D. Access Points
E. Things
Correct Answer: BD

 

QUESTION 12
Which two Cisco products help manage data access policy consistently? (Choose two.)
A. Duo
B. Cloudlock
C. AMPforEndpoints
D. pxGrid
E. Steathwatch
Correct Answer: BD

 

QUESTION 13
Which two loT environment layers are protected by Stealthwatch? (Choose two.)
A. Things
B. Endpoints
C. Internet/Cloud
D. Access Points
E. Control Layer
Correct Answer: AD

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QUESTION 1
Which Cisco ISE service allows an engineer to check the compliance of endpoints before connecting to the network?
A. personas
B. Qualys
C. nexpose
D. posture
Correct Answer: D
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/ise/2-1/admin_guide/b_ise_admin_guide_21/b_ise_admin_guide_20_chapter_010110.html
Posture is a service in Cisco Identity Services Engine (Cisco ISE) that allows you to check the state, also known as
posture, of all the endpoints that are connecting to a network for compliance with corporate security policies. This allows
you to control clients to access protected areas of a network.

 

QUESTION 2
Which two probes must be enabled for the ARP cache to function in the Cisco ISE profile service so that a user can
reliably bind the IP address and MAC addresses of endpoints? (Choose two.)
A. NetFlow
B. SNMP
C. HTTP
D. DHCP
E. RADIUS
Correct Answer: DE
Cisco ISE implements an ARP cache in the profiling service so that you can reliably map the IP addresses and the
MAC addresses of endpoints. For the ARP cache to function, you must enable either the DHCP probe or the RADIUS
probe. The DHCP and RADIUS probes carry the IP addresses and the MAC addresses of endpoints in the payload
data. The DHCP-requested address attribute in the DHCP probe and the Framed-IP-address attribute in the RADIUS
probe carries the IP addresses of endpoints, along with their MAC addresses, which can be mapped and stored in the
ARP cache.
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/ise/2-1/admin_guide/b_ise_admin_guide_21/b_ise_admin_guide_20_chapter_010100.html

 

QUESTION 3
What allows an endpoint to obtain a digital certificate from Cisco ISE during a BYOD flow?
A. Network Access Control
B. My Devices Portal
C. Application Visibility and Control
D. Supplicant Provisioning Wizard
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 4
Which two events trigger a CoA for an endpoint when CoA is enabled globally for ReAuth? (Choose two.)
A. endpoint marked as lost in My Devices Portal
B. addition of endpoint to My Devices Portal
C. endpoint profile transition from Aop.e-dev.ee to Apple-iPhone
D. endpoint profile transition from Unknown to Windows 10-Workstation
E. updating of endpoint dACL.
Correct Answer: CD

 

QUESTION 5
Which profiling probe collects the user-agent string?
A. DHCP
B. AD
C. HTTP
D. NMAP
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 6
Which two components are required for creating a Native Supplicant Profile within a BYOD flow? (Choose two )
A. Windows Settings
B. Connection Type
C. iOS Settings
D. Redirect ACL
E. Operating System
Correct Answer: BE

 

QUESTION 7
In which two ways can users and endpoints be classified for TrustSec?
(Choose two.)
A. VLAN
B. SXP
C. dynamic
D. QoS
E. SGACL
Correct Answer: AE

 

QUESTION 8
Which two endpoint compliance statuses are possible? (Choose two.)
A. unknown
B. known
C. invalid
D. compliant
E. valid
Correct Answer: AD

 

QUESTION 9
Which default endpoint identity group does an endpoint that does not match any profile in Cisco ISE become a member
of?
A. Endpoint
B. unknown
C. blacklist
D. white list
E. profiled
Correct Answer: B
If you do not have a matching profiling policy, you can assign an unknown profiling policy. The endpoint is therefore
profiled as Unknown. The endpoint that does not match any profile is grouped within the Unknown identity group. The
endpoint profiled to the Unknown profile requires that you create a profile with an attribute or a set of attributes collected
for that endpoint.
https://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/security/ise/1.0/user_guide/ise10_man_identities.html

 

QUESTION 10
If a user reports a device lost or stolen, which portal should be used to prevent the device from accessing the network
while still providing information about why the device is blocked?
A. Client Provisioning
B. Guest
C. BYOD
D. Blacklist
Correct Answer: D
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/Enterprise/Borderless_Networks/Unified_Access/BYOD_Design_Guide/Managing_Lost_or_Stolen_Device.html#90273
The Blacklist identity group is system generated and maintained by ISE to prevent access to lost or stolen devices. In
this design guide, two authorization profiles are used to enforce the permissions for wireless and wired devices within
the Blacklist:
1.
Blackhole WiFi Access
2.
Blackhole Wired Access

 

QUESTION 11
Which two task types are included in the Cisco ISE common tasks support for TACACS+ profiles?
(Choose two.)
A. Firepower
B. WLC
C. IOS
D. ASA
E. Shell
Correct Answer: BE
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/ise/2-1/admin_guide/b_ise_admin_guide_21/b_ise_admin_guide_20_chapter_0100010.html
TACACS+ ProfileTACACS+ profiles control the initial login session of the device administrator. A session refers to each
individual authentication, authorization, or accounting request. A session authorization request to a network device
elicits
an ISE response. The response includes a token that is interpreted by the network device, which limits the commands
that may be executed for the duration of a session. The authorization policy for a device administration access service
can
contain a single shell profile and multiple command sets.
The TACACS+ profile definitions are split into two components:
1.
Common tasks
2.
Custom attributes
There are two views on the TACACS+ Profiles page (Work Centers > Device Administration > Policy Elements > Results
> TACACS Profiles)–Task Attribute View and Raw View. Common tasks can be entered using the Task Attribute View
and custom attributes can be created in the Task Attribute View as well as the Raw View.
The Common Tasks section allows you to select and configure the frequently used attributes for a profile. The attributes
that are included here are those defined by the TACACS+ protocol draft specifications. However, the values can be
used
in the authorization of requests from other services. In the Task Attribute View, the ISE administrator can set the
privileges that will be assigned to the device administrator. The common task types are:
1.
Shell
2.
WLC
3.
Nexus
4.
Generic
The Custom Attributes section allows you to configure additional attributes. It provides a list of attributes that are not
recognized by the Common Tasks section. Each definition consists of the attribute name, an indication of whether the
attribute is mandatory or optional, and the value for the attribute. In the Raw View, you can enter the mandatory
attributes using an equal to (=) sign between the attribute name and its value, and optional attributes are entered using an
asterisk (*) between the attribute name and its value. The attributes entered in the Raw View are reflected in the Custom
Attributes section in the Task Attribute View and vice versa. The Raw View is also used to copy-paste the attribute list
(for example, another product\\’s attribute list) from the clipboard onto ISE. Custom attributes can be defined for
nonshell services.

 

QUESTION 12
What is needed to configure wireless guest access on the network?
A. endpoint already profiled in ISE
B. WEBAUTH ACL for redirection
C. valid user account in Active Directory
D. Captive Portal Bypass turned on
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 13
Which description of the use of low-impact mode in a Cisco ISE deployment is correct?
A. It continues to use the authentication open capabilities of the switch port, which allows traffic to enter the switch
before an authorization result.
B. Low-impact mode must be the final phase in deploying Cisco ISE into a network environment using the phased
approach.
C. It enables authentication (with authentication open), sees exactly which devices fail and which succeed, andcorrects
the failed authentications before they
D. The port does not allow any traffic before the authentication (except for EAP, Cisco Discovery Protocol, and LDP),
and then the port is assigned to specific authorization results after the authentication
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
Which Firepower feature allows users to configure bridges in routed mode and enables devices to perform Layer 2
switching between interfaces?
A. FlexConfig
B. BDI
C. SGT
D. IRB
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/620/relnotes/Firepower_System_Release_Notes_Version_620/new_features_and_functionality.html

 

QUESTION 2
How many report templates does the Cisco Firepower Management Center support?
A. 20
B. 10
C. 5
D. unlimited
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/60/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guidev60/Working_with_Reports.html

 

QUESTION 3
After deploying a network-monitoring tool to manage and monitor networking devices in your organization, you realize
that you need to manually upload a MIB for the Cisco FMC. In which folder should you upload the MIB file?
A. /etc/sf/DCMIB.ALERT
B. /sf/etc/DCEALERT.MIB
C. /etc/sf/DCEALERT.MIB
D. system/etc/DCEALERT.MIB
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firesight/541/firepower-module-user-guide/asa-firepower
module-user-guide-v541/Intrusion-External-Responses.pdf

 

QUESTION 4
Which command is entered in the Cisco FMC CLI to generate a troubleshooting file?
A. show running-config
B. show tech-support chassis
C. system support diagnostic-cli
D. sudo sf_troubleshoot.pl
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/sourcefire-defense-center/117663-technoteSourceFire-00.html

 

QUESTION 5
Which two actions can be used in an access control policy rule? (Choose two.)
A. Block with Reset
B. Monitor
C. Analyze
D. Discover
E. Block ALL
Correct Answer: AB
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firesight/541/firepower-module-user-guide/asa-firepowermodule-user-guide-v541/AC-Rules-Tuning-Overview.html#71854

 

QUESTION 6
Which two features of Cisco AMP for Endpoints allow for an uploaded file to be blocked? (Choose two.)
A. application blocking
B. simple custom detection
C. file repository
D. exclusions
E. application whitelisting
Correct Answer: AB

 

QUESTION 7
Which report template field format is available in Cisco FMC?
A. box lever chart
B. arrow chart
C. bar chart
D. benchmark chart
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/60/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guidev60/Working_with_Reports.html

 

QUESTION 8
What is the result of specifying of QoS rule that has a rate limit that is greater than the maximum throughput of an
interface?
A. The rate-limiting rule is disabled.
B. Matching traffic does not rate limited.
C. The system rate-limits all traffic.
D. The system repeatedly generates warnings.
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/620/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guidev62/quality_of_service_qos.pdf

 

QUESTION 9
Which two routing options are valid with Cisco Firepower Threat Defense? (Choose two.)
A. BGPv6
B. ECMP with up to three equal-cost paths across multiple interfaces
C. ECMP with up to three equal-cost paths across a single interface
D. BGPv4 in transparent firewall mode
E. BGPv4 with nonstop forwarding
Correct Answer: AC
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/601/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guidev601/fpmc-config-guide-v60_chapter_01100011.html#ID-2101-0000000e

 

QUESTION 10
Which two types of objects are reusable and supported by Cisco FMC? (Choose two.)
A. dynamic key mapping objects that help link HTTP and HTTPS GET requests to Layer 7 application protocols.
B. reputation-based objects that represent Security Intelligence feeds and lists, application filters based on category and
reputation, and file lists
C. network-based objects that represent IP address and networks, port/protocols pairs, VLAN tags, security zones, and
origin/destination country
D. network-based objects that represent FQDN mappings and networks, port/protocol pairs, VXLAN tags, security
zones and origin/destination country
E. reputation-based objects, such as URL categories
Correct Answer: BC
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/620/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guidev62/reusable_objects.html#ID-2243-00000414

 

QUESTION 11
When do you need the file-size command option during troubleshooting with packet capture?
A. when capture packets are less than 16 MB
B. when capture packets are restricted from the secondary memory
C. when capture packets exceed 10 GB
D. when capture packets exceed 32 MB
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/620/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guidev62/troubleshooting_the_system.html

 

QUESTION 12
Which limitation applies to Cisco Firepower Management Center dashboards in a multidomain environment?
A. Child domains can view but not edit dashboards that originate from an ancestor domain.
B. Child domains have access to only a limited set of widgets from ancestor domains.
C. Only the administrator of the top ancestor domain can view dashboards.
D. Child domains cannot view dashboards that originate from an ancestor domain.
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/60/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guidev60/Using_Dashboards.html

 

QUESTION 13
Within Cisco Firepower Management Center, where does a user add or modify widgets?
A. dashboard
B. reporting
C. context explorer
D. summary tool
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/60/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guidev60/Using_Dashboards.html

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QUESTION 1
A month ago, Jason, a software developer at a reputed IT firm was surfing through his company\\’s website. He was
visiting random pages of the company\\’s website and came to find confidential information about the company was
posted on
one of the web pages. Jason forgot to report the issue. Jason contacted John, another member of the Security Team,
and discussed the issue. John visited the page but found nothing wrong.
What should John do to see past versions and pages of a website that Jason saw one month back?
A. John should use SmartWhois to recover the old pages of the website
B. John should recover cashed pages of the website from the Google search engine cache
C. John should run the Web Data Extractor tool to recover the old data
D. John can go to Archive.org to see past versions of the company website
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 2
Which of the following pen-testing reports provides detailed information about all the tasks performed during penetration testing?

lead4pass ecsav10 practice test q2

A. Client-Side Test Report
B. Activity Report
C. Host Report
D. Vulnerability Report
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 3
John, the penetration testing manager in a pen testing firm, needs to prepare a pen testing pricing report for a client.
Which of the following factors does he need to consider while preparing the pen testing pricing report?lead4pass ecsav10 practice test q3

A. Number of employees in the client organization
B. Complete structure of the organization
C. Number of client computers to be tested and resources required to perform a pen test
D. Number of servers available in the client organization
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 4
An attacker with a malicious intention decided to hack confidential data from the target organization. For acquiring such
information, he started testing IoT devices that are connected to the target network. He started monitoring the network
traffic passing between the IoT devices and the network to verify whether credentials are being transmitted in cleartext.
Further, he also tried to crack the passwords using well-known keywords across all the interfaces.
Which of the following IoT threats the attacker is trying to exploit?
A. Poor physical security
B. Poor authentication
C. Privacy concerns
D. Insecure firmware
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 5
Jason is a penetration tester, and after completing the initial penetration test, he wanted to create a final penetration test
report that consists of all activities performed throughout the penetration testing process. Before creating the final
penetration testing report, which of the following reports should Jason prepare in order to verify if any crucial information
is missed from the report?
A. Activity report
B. Host report
C. User report
D. Draft report
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 6
Rule of Engagement (ROE) is the formal permission to conduct a pen-test. It provides top-level guidance for conducting penetration testing. Various factors are considered while preparing the scope of ROE which clearly explains the limits associated with the security test.

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Which of the following factors is NOT considered while preparing the scope of the Rules of Engagement (ROE)?
A. A list of employees in the client organization
B. A list of acceptable testing techniques
C. Specific IP addresses/ranges to be tested
D. Points of contact for the penetration testing team
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 7
An organization recently faced a cyberattack where an attacker captured legitimate user credentials and gained access
to the critical information systems. He also led other malicious hackers in gaining access to the information systems. To
defend and prevent such attacks in the future, the organization has decided to route all the incoming and outgoing network
traffic through a centralized access proxy apart from validating user credentials.
Which of the following defensive mechanisms the organization is trying to strengthen?
A. Authentication
B. Serialization
C. Encryption
D. Hashing
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 8
Which one of the following is a useful formatting token that takes an int * as an argument, and writes the number of
bytes already are written, to that location?
A. “%n”
B. “%s”
C. “%p”
D. “%w”
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 9
What are placeholders (or markers) in an HTML document that the webserver will dynamically replace with data just
before sending the requested documents to a browser?
A. Server Side Includes
B. Sort Server Includes
C. Server Sort Includes
D. Slide Server Includes
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 10
You are running through a series of tests on your network to check for any security vulnerabilities. After normal working
hours, you initiate a DoS attack against your external firewall. The firewall quickly freezes up and becomes unusable.
You then initiate an FTP connection from an external IP into your internal network. The connection is successful even
though you have FTP blocked at the external firewall. What has happened?
A. The firewall failed-open
B. The firewall failed-bypass
C. The firewall failed-closed
D. The firewall ACL has been purged
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 11
Martin works as a professional Ethical Hacker and Penetration Tester. He is an ESCA certified professional and was
following the LPT methodology to perform penetration testing. He is assigned a project for information gathering on
a
client\\’s network. He started penetration testing and was trying to find out the company\\’s internal URLs, (mostly by trial
and error), looking for any information about the different departments and business units. Martin was unable to find
any
information.
What should Martin do to get the information he needs?
A. Martin should use email tracking tools such as eMailTrackerPro to find the company\\’s internal URLs
B. Martin should use online services such as netcraft.com to find the company\\’s internal URLs
C. Martin should use WayBackMachine in Archive.org to find the company\\’s internal URLs
D. Martin should use website mirroring tools such as HTTrack Web Site Copier to find the company\\’s internal URLs
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 12
Windows stores user passwords in the Security Accounts Manager database (SAM), or in the Active Directory database
in domains. Passwords are never stored in clear text; passwords are hashed and the results are stored in the SAM.
NTLM and LM authentication protocols are used to securely store a user\\’s password in the SAM database using
different hashing methods.lead4pass ecsav10 practice test q12

The SAM file in Windows Server 2008 is located in which of the following locations?
A. c:\windows\system32\config\SAM
B. c:\windows\system32\drivers\SAM
C. c:\windows\system32\Setup\SAM
D. c:\windows\system32\Boot\SAM
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 13
Richard, a penetration tester was asked to assess a web application. During the assessment, he discovered a file
upload field where users can upload their profile pictures. While scanning the page for vulnerabilities, Richard found a
file
upload exploit on the website. Richard wants to test the web application by uploading a malicious PHP shell, but the
web page denied the file upload. Trying to get around the security, Richard added the `jpg\\’ extension to the end of the
file.
The new file name ended with `.php.jpg\\’. He then used the Burp suite tool and removed the `jpg\\’\\’ extension from the
request while uploading the file. This enabled him to successfully upload the PHP shell.
Which of the following techniques has Richard implemented to upload the PHP shell?
A. Session stealing
B. Cookie tampering
C. Cross-site scripting
D. Parameter tampering
Correct Answer: D

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Latest updates Cisco 350-501 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1

lead4pass 350-501 exam questions q1

Refer to the exhibit. Which effect of this configuration is true?
A. It enables MPLS on the interface.
B. It creates a pseudowire class named cisco.
C. It enables AToM on interface gigabitethernet1/0.
D. It enables tagging for VLAN 12 on the interface.
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://community.cisco.com/t5/service-providers-documents/configuration-example-atom-any-transport-overmpls-for-like-to/ta-p/3144810

QUESTION 2

lead4pass 350-501 exam questions q2

Refer to the exhibit. If the NetFlow configuration is updated to version 9, which additional piece of information can be
reported?
A. IPv4 flow information
B. BGP AS information
C. IPv6 flow information
D. flow sequence numbers
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/ipv6/configuration/12-2sx/ipv6-12-2sxbook/ip6-netflow.html

QUESTION 3
An engineer working for a telecommunication company needs to secure the LAN network using a prefix-list. Which best
practice should the engineer follow when he implements a prefix-list?

A. An engineer must identify the prefix list with a number only.
B. The final entry in a prefix list must be /32.
C. An engineer must include only the prefixes for which he needs to log activity.
D. An engineer must use nonsequential sequence numbers in the prefix-list so that he can insert additional entries later.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
How can shared services in an MPLS Layer 3 VPN provide Internet access to the Customers of a central service
provider?
A. Static routes on CE routers allow route leakage from a PE global routing table.
B. The CE router can establish a BGP peering to a PE router and use the PE device to reach the Internet.
C. The customer VRF uses route targets to import and export routes to and from a shared services VRF.
D. Route distinguishers are used to identify the routes that CEs can use to reach the Internet.
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://community.cisco.com/t5/service-providers-documents/providing-internet-access-for-mpls-l3-vpns/tap/3109924

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit. What does this value mean when it is received in XML?
A. It indicates a value assigned by a network administrator to tag a route.
B. It indicates a break in a sequence.
C. It means a data field is blank.
D. It shows the ending of the script.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Which statement about LDP Session Protection and LDP-IGP sync is true?
A. Both LDP features cannot be used at the same time in an MPLS LDP enabled network
B. LDP Session Protection re-exchanges label information when a down-up event occurs; LDP-IGP sync keeps the
adjacency and label information in a down-up event

C. LDP-IGP sync re-exchanges label information when a down-up event occurs; LDP Session Protection keeps the
adjacency and label information in a down-up event
D. Both LDP features must be used together to increase fast convergence on an MPLS LDP-enabled network
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7

lead4pass 350-501 exam questions q7

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is configuring customer edge routers to finalize a L2VPN over MPLS
deployment. Assume that the AToM L2VPN service that connects the two CEs is configured correctly on the service
provider network.
Which action causes the solution to failing?
A. OSPF does not work with L2VPN services.
B. The routing protocol network types are not compatible.
C. A loopback with a /32 IP address has not been used.
D. The connect statement has not been defined.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8

DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the functionalities from the left onto the correct target fields on the right.
Select and Place:

lead4pass 350-501 exam questions q7

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 350-501 exam questions q8-1

QUESTION 9

lead4pass 350-501 exam questions q9

Refer to the exhibit. This configuration is being applied to an IOS XR router. Which statement about this configuration is
true?
A. It is used to enable gRPC.
B. It is used to create a streaming subscription with a 600-second interval.
C. It is used to set up the configuration to poll network data.
D. It is used to create a streaming subscription with a 60-Second interval.
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/routers/asr9000/software/telemetry/b-telemetry-cg-asr9000-62x/btelemetry-config-guide-asr9000_chapter_01.html

QUESTION 10

lead4pass 350-501 exam questions q10

Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about the IS-IS topology are true? (Choose two.)
A. R1 and R4 are Level 2 neighbors.
B. All four routers are operating as Level 1-2 routers.
C. All four routers are operating as Level 2 routers only.
D. All four routers are operating as Level 1 routers only.
E. R1 and R2 are Level 2 neighbors.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 11
An engineer is setting up overlapping VPNs to allow VRF ABC and XYZ to communicate with VRF CENTRAL but wants
to make sure that VRF ABC and XYZ cannot communicate. Which configuration accomplishes these objectives?

lead4pass 350-501 exam questions q11
lead4pass 350-501 exam questions q11-1

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Which configuration enables BGP FlowSpec client function and installation of policies on all local interfaces?
A. flowspec address-family ipv4 local-install interface-all
B. flowspec address-family ipv4 install interface-all local
C. flowspec address-family ipv4 install interface-all
D. flowspec address-family ipv4 local-install all-interface
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/iproute_bgp/configuration/xe-16-6/irg-xe-16-6-book/C3PLBGP-Flowspec-Client.html

QUESTION 13
A customer of an ISP request supports to set up a BGP routing policy. Which BGP attribute should be configured to
choose specific BGP speakers as preferred points for the customer AS?
A. lowest multi-exit discriminator
B. highest local preference outbound
C. lowest local preference inbound
D. highest local preference inbound
Correct Answer: B

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