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210-060 dumps

Best Cisco CCNA Collaboration 210-060 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (Q1-Q30)

QUESTION 1
The Voice engineer in your company need to change IP address destination on SIP-Trunk on near side?
A. reset trunk on near side
B. reset trunk on far side
C. reset trunk on far and near side
D. restart call manager service
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
What is the recommended maximum one-way latency for voice and video networks?
A. 100 ms
B. 150 ms
C. 200 ms
D. 300 ms
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
An end user has an 7945 IP phone, but is unable to launch any of the IP phone applications. A network engineer has confirmed that the device is subscribed to the appropriate applications in Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
How should the engineer instruct the user to launch the IP phone applications?
A. Select the “?” button on the IP phone.
B. Select the globe button on the IP phone.
C. Select Settings > User Preferences.
D. Select Settings > Device Configuration.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Use the router console to view the configuration and answer the question.
210-060 dumps
210-060 dumps
When a call is placed from the Branch Router phone to the PSTN number of 914085551212, the call is failing. What dial-peer is supposed to be used and why is the call failing? Select 2 (two)
A. dial-peer voice 910 pots
B. dial-peer voice 9 pots
C. dial-peer voice 9001 voip
D. destination pattern is incorrect
E. prefix is missing from the dial-peer
F. the port assignment is incorrect in the dial-peer
G. the port number is missing in the dial-peer
Correct Answer: BF

Explanation:
The dial 9, 910, and 9001 dial peer configurations are shown below:
210-060 dumps
210-060 dumps
Here we see that dial peer 9 and 910 match the same destination pattern, but 9 will be used first. However, the port used should be 0/0/0:15 not 0/0/0:12.
210-060 dumps
QUESTION 5
An engineer receives a service ticket because a user cannot log into Cisco Unified CM User Options. Where can the engineer verify that the user account is active?
A. LDAP System Configuration
B. LDAP Directory
C. End User Configuration
D. LDAP Authentication
E. Route Plan Report
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
A user reports that several IP phones in a single department are displaying a continuous “registering” message. 210-060 dumps Which fault domain should be investigated?
A. network router
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager subscriber node
C. network switch
D. IP phones
E. SIP gateway
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
User A notices echo on a call with user B. Both users are using Cisco VoIP phones. User B is using a headset, and user A is using a handset. What is the most likely source of the echo?
A. user A handset
B. user B headset
C. disabled echo cancellation on user A phone profile
D. disabled echo cancellation on user B phone profile
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
What is needed to support SIP Early Media?
A. Media Termination Point
B. Transcoder
C. Annunciator
D. Conference Bridge
E. DSP
F. Route List
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which three characteristics are associated with voice? (Choose three.)
A. greedy
B. TCP retransmits
C. UDP priority
D. delay sensitive
E. drop insensitive
F. benign
G. benign or greedy
Correct Answer: CDF

QUESTION 10
With GETVPN, if a key server is configured to use multicast as the rekey transport mechanism, then under which of these conditions will the key server retransmit the rekey messages?
A. It never retransmit the rekey messages
B. it only retransmit the rekey message when it does not receive the rekey acknowledgment from at least one group member
C. it only retransmit the rekey message when it does not receive the rekey acknowledgment from all group member
D. it only retransmit the rekey message when DPD to the group members fails
E. it always retransmit the rekey message
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 11
In an effort to proactively manage IP telephony infrastructure, a network engineer wants to review usage reports that provide top five users, top five calls, and traffic summary. Which option describes where this information can be retrieved using Cisco Unified Communications Manager?
A. Navigate to Cisco Unified CM Administration > CDR Analysis and Reporting >System Reports > System Overview > Select desired reports.
B. Navigate to Cisco Unified Operating System Administration > Tools > System Reports > System Overview > Select desired reports.
C. Navigate to Cisco Unified Serviceability > Tools > CDR Analysis and Reporting > System Reports > System Overview > Select desired reports.
D. Navigate to Cisco Unified Reporting > Tools > System Reports > System Overview > Select desired reports.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
After getting reports that users cannot make calls out to the PSTN, a network administrator opens the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Administration web page and begins to review route patterns. Why would the administrator look here when troubleshooting PSTN connectivity troubles?
A. A route pattern contains a list of gateways that can reach the PSTN.
B. A route pattern contains dial plan information for calling the PSTN.
C. A route pattern contains the necessary privileges for calling the PSTN.
D. A route pattern contains a list of SIP trunks that can reach the PSTN.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
An engineer is adding a third-party video endpoint to Cisco Unified Communications Manager. Which third-party device type should be used when adding the system?
A. SCCP
B. SIP
C. MGCP
D. H.323
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
How can an administrator determine which codec is being used between two endpoints while a call is in progress? 210-060 dumps
A. Run the codec trace in Cisco Unified Communication Manager.
B. Use Cisco Unified Serviceability network trace.
C. Can only be seen in Cisco SDI traces.
D. Can only be seen in a sniffer trace.
E. Press the ? button twice on one of the IP phones.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 15
Which three network elements are crucial when deploying VoIP devices? (Choose three.)
A. Round-trip time
B. QoS markings
C. Bandwidth
D. Ethernet
E. Fibre
F. Token ring
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 16
Which type of data file is used for bulk import of users into Cisco Unity Connection?
A. .xls
B. .doc
C. .csv
D. .pdf
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
To control telephony costs, management wants to restrict who can place long distance calls. Which two options allow for this restriction? (Choose two.)
A. calling search space
B. partitions
C. route groups
D. SIP trunk
E. gateway
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 18
An end user reports that conference calls are failing. Which fault domain should be investigated first?
A. IP phone
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Media Resources
C. voice gateways
D. network routers and switches
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
Which two tools can be used to measure the quality of a VoIP call? (Choose two.)
A. QoS configuration tool
B. mean opinion score tool
C. bulk administration tool
D. jitter compensation tool
E. rFactor tool
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 20
Which three locations can an administrator import from to create users on Cisco Unity Connection? (Choose three.)
A. Bulk administration tool
B. LDAP
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager via AXL
D. Outlook
E. Presence
F. Cisco Compatible Extensions
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 21
Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager device report provides key information to determine if an additional gateway is needed?
A. Gateway utilization
B. Gateway summary
C. Gateway detail
D. Gateway and line group utilization
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 22
Which three choices are functions or features of Cisco Unity Connection? (Choose three.)
A. video-enabled messaging through converged networks
B. text-to-speech, which allows access to Exchange emails from a telephone
C. voice-enabled message navigation
D. voice-enabled dialing to external users
E. automated attendant capabilities
F. automated call rerouting to agents through round robin, longest idle, or broadcast
Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 23
A network engineer must set up an end-user account for a SIP device to use for authentication. Which end-user information is used for SIP authentication?
A. account ID
B. password
C. PIN
D. digest credentials
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 24
An engineer is configuring the Cisco Unified Communications Manager disaster recovery system. Which three statements about the disaster recovery system are true? (Choose three.)
A. It requires the use of schedules for backups.
B. Backup files are encrypted using the cluster security password.
C. If the backup device is listed in a backup schedule, it cannot be manually deleted.
D. If the backup does not complete within 40 hours, the backup times out.
E. Archiving backups to tape drives is supported.
F. SSL is used between the master and local agents.
Correct Answer: BCF

QUESTION 25
Which option is added number phone configuration is Cisco Unified Communicator Manager to add conference bridge resource to the phone
A. Media Resource Group
B. Conference Resource list
C. Conference Bridge
D. Media Resource Group List
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 26
End user is on a cisco telepresence session with remote participant and can control the camera at the remote endpoint. 210-060 dumps Which feature is underlying?
A. FECC
B. DTMF
C. FEC
D. PIP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 27
A voice engineer has installed an XML-based phone application from a third party and subscribed a user’s 7945 IP phone to the application. Which action does the user take to launch the new service on the IP phone?
A. Select the Applications button on the 7945 IP phone.
B. Select Settings > Applications.
C. Select Settings > Network > Applications.
D. Select the Services button on the 7945 IP phone.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 28
Which two explanations of DTMF dialing are true? (Choose two.)
A. DTMF dialing consists of simultaneous voice-band tones generated when a button is pressed on a telephone.
B. The use of DTMF enables support for advanced telephony services.
C. DTMF dialing uses INVITE messages to signal when the first digit is pressed in a new call.
D. DTMF dialing consists of a simultaneous digital-band pulse generated when a button is pressed on a telephone.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 29
A Cisco administrator is asked to set up two new end users in Cisco Unified Communication Manager. Which two fields are required? (Choose two.)
A. First Name
B. User ID
C. PIN
D. Telephone Number
E. Password
F. Last Name
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 30
A user reports that during calls they hear excessive hissing when neither party is talking.
Which option is one cause of this noise?
A. QoS
B. LoPS
C. VAD
D. EPL
E. SRST
Correct Answer: C

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New Cisco CCNA Cloud 210-451 Dumps Exam Practice Questions And Answers (Q1-Q40)

QUESTION 1
Which option is the correct steps to regenerate a UCS B-Series SSL certificate?
A. Open an SSH session to the CIMC IP # scope security # scope keyring default # set regenerate yes # commit-buffer
B. Open an SSH session to the CIMC IP # scope certificate # set regenerate yes # commit-buffer
C. Open an SSH session to the CIMC IP # scope security # scope certificate # set regenerate yes # commit-buffer
D. Using the UCSM GUI Navigate to the Admin tab Expand ALL andgt; Key Management Right-click Key Management and choose regenerate certificate Click OK
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
In an Openstack Cloud deployment which has a fibre channel SAN providing the block storage, which two options are valid fibre channel zone member types? (Choose two.)
A. FCID
B. DomainID
C. WWPN
D. OpenStack Volume ID
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 3
The Cisco InterCloud Fabric Director provides what functionality?
A. It is the single point of management and consumption for hybrid Cloud solutions.
B. It is the single point of management and consumption for public Cloud solutions.
C. It is the single point of management and consumption for private Cloud solutions.
D. It is a plugin of a Virtual Machine Manager to provide management and configuration for hybrid Cloud solutions.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which statement about the differences between vSwitch and DVS is true?
A. vSwitch supports Spanning Tree Protocol.
B. DVS supports Spanning Tree Protocol.
C. vSwitch supports private VLAN.
D. DVS supports private VLAN.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Which /etc/exports line will allow you to enable read-only access from the NFS client 192.168.1.100?
A. /images 192.168.1.100 (ro,async)
B. /images 192.168.1.100 (755,async)
C. /images 192.168.1.1/24 (755,no_root_squash,async)
D. /images 192.168.1.1/27 (ro,async)
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which Cloud service model is appropriate for a physical data center move to the Cloud?
A. Infrastructure as a Service
B. Platform as a Service
C. Compute as a Service
D. Software as a Service
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which three options are the advantages of VXLAN? 210-451 dumps (Choose three.)
A. Increase of VLAN address space
B. Support multi-tenancy
C. Connectivity across disparate virtual data centers
D. Uses Spanning Tree Protocol for loop prevention
E. Configure Portgroup Virtual port ID
F. Configure Portgroup Load Based Teaming
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 8
Which description of RAID6 is true?
A. block-level striping of data with double distributed parity
B. drive-level striping of data with double distributed parity
C. block-level striping of data with single distributed parity
D. block-level mirroring of data with double distributed parity
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which technology focuses on Layer 2 distributed data centers?
A. FabricPath
B. Adapter FEX
C. LISP
D. OTV
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Which option lists the Cloud deployment models?
A. public, community, private, hybrid
B. cluster, community, private, hybrid
C. public, performance, private, hybrid
D. public, community, secure, hybrid
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which option contains server hardware identifiers, firmware, state, configuration, and connectivity characteristics?
A. pools
B. policies
C. service profiles
D. resource groups
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Which Cisco product can provide an iSCSI target for an iSCSI initiator?
A. Cisco MDS 9710
B. Cisco Nexus 7010
C. Cisco UCS Invicta
D. Cisco Nexus 9510
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Which platform is ideally used to orchestrate a FlexPod from a single management platform?
A. Cisco UCS Manager
B. Cisco UCS Director
C. Cisco Prime Cloud Automation Manager
D. Cisco Application Centric Infrastructure Manager
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
Which option is used to manage Multi-Domain Cisco UCS?
A. Cisco UCS Manager
B. Cisco UCS Central
C. Cisco UCS B-Series
D. Cisco UCS C-Series
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
Which integrated infrastructure rely on OpenStack technology?
A. FlexPod
B. Vblock
C. VSPEX
D. OpenBlocks
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
SRIOV provides which of the following?
A. The host PCI bus is virtualized and these virtual PCIs are directly allocated to each guest
B. The host HBAs are virtualized and these virtual HBA are directly allocated to each guest for dedicated access
C. The hypervisor virtualizes the CPUs and PCI bus to provide directly allocated I/O to each guest
D. The host PCI bus is divided into pinned paths and these virtual paths are directly allocated to each guest for guranteed I/O
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
Which of the following is a feature that improves the performance of software applications that run on the Cisco UCS servers in a data center by bypassing the kernel when sending and receiving networking packets?
A. A, vPath
B. VM-FEX
C. usNIC
D. VMware PassThrough
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
Which of the following two storage technologies would require that its\’ block device be attached to an instance before you can perform any filesystem commands? (Choose two.)
A. SCSI LUN
B. Cinder Volume
C. NFS Filesystem Meta-Volume
D. Direct Object Block Device
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 19
210-451 dumps Which description of Cisco vPath is true?
A. a protocol that provides end-to-end path assurance for Cloud-based systems
B. an embedded intelligence in Cisco VEM that provides abstracted control and forward plane functionality
C. a service that provides forwarding plane abstraction for inline redirection of traffic for vServices
D. a vService that allows for security policy enforcement through transparent bridging
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
Which characteristic is an inoperative attribute of a private Cloud deployment?
A. self service and on demand
B. shared by many companies
C. highly scalable
D. metered for reporting or billing purposes
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 21
Which two technologies support running Linux and Windows virtual machines? (Choose two.)
A. KVM
B. LXD
C. Docker
D. Microsoft Hyper-V
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 22
Where is the Hypervisor installed?
A. Host operating system
B. Guest operating system
C. Control node
D. Computer node
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 23
Which two options are characteristics of NAS? (Choose two.)
A. NAS provides block-based storage only.
B. NAS provides storage and filesystems.
C. NAS requires no authentication.
D. SMB is a protocol that can be used for NAS.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 24
Cisco APICs utilize sharding to provide what function for an ACI fabric?
A. It provides scalability and reliability to the data sets generated and processed by the Distributed Policy Repository, the endpoint registry, the Observer, and the Topology Manager
B. It provides replication of application network policies across the APICs in the cluster
C. It provides a method for determining which APIC will act as the master in a fabric during the election process
D. It provides horizontal scaling ability for policy management on APICs
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 25
What is an invalid Cloud deployment model?
A. distributed
B. private
C. community
D. hybrid
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 26
Which three options are considered Cloud deployment models? (Choose three.)
A. Public Cloud
B. Hybrid Cloud
C. Open Cloud
D. Private Cloud
E. Stack Cloud
F. Distributed Cloud
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 27
Which API structure does Cisco UCS Manager support?
A. JSON
B. XML
C. RUBY
D. PERL
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 28
Which type of zoning is represented?
zone name zone1 vsan 10 member pwwn 20:00:00:55:a5:00:00:04 member pwwn 50:00:d3:10:00:18:e1:05 member pwwn 50:00:d3:10:00:18:e1:06
A. Single Initiator Multi Target
B. Multi Initiator Single Target
C. Single Target Single Initiator
D. Multi Initiator Multi Target
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 29
What are two characteristics of a LUN? (Choose two.)
A. A LUN must be fully comprised of one physical disk
B. A LUN handles file system creation
C. A LUN can be comprised of multiple physical disks
D. A LUN is a unique identifier
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 30
What best describes server virtualization?
A. Server virtualization is the masking of server resources (including the number and identity of individual physical servers, processors, and operating systems) from server users.
B. System virtualization is the use of software to allow a piece of hardware to run multiple operating system images at the same time.
C. A method of combining the available resources in a network by splitting up the available bandwidth into channels, each of which is independent from the others, and each of which can be assigned (or reassigned) to a particular server or device in real time.
D. Pooling of physical storage from multiple network storage devices into what appears to be a single storage device that is managed from a central console
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 31
Company ABC hosts all their applications internally. During one day of the month, the demand for their applications far exceeds the capacity of their datacenter. Which Cloud model should Company ABC consider using?
A. Community
B. Private
C. Hybrid
D. Public
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 32
IaaS is an acronym for what type of Cloud?
A. Instances as a Service
B. Infrastructure as a Service
C. Internet as a Service
D. Images as a Service
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 33
Which of the following statements best describes Atomic Inheritance?
A. It maintains a consistent configuration among the interfaces in a port profile and the entire port profile configuration is applied to its member interfaces
B. To maintain a consistent configuration among the sub-interfaces in a port profile
C. It tracks the packets among the interfaces in a port profile from the start of each flow until termination
D. To maintain a system VLAN connection to ensure communication between the VSM and VEM
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 34
210-451 dumps Which of these are hypervisors typically utilized in a modern data center?
A. VMware, HyperV, Linux
B. ESXi, HyperV, Linux
C. ESXi, HyperV, KVM
D. VMware, HyperV, KVM
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 35
Which option is one essential characteristic of Cloud computing?
A. It must use virtualization.
B. It must provide load balancing services.
C. It must provide on-demand self service.
D. It must run on open source software.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 36
Which two options are benefits of the Cisco InterCloud Solution? (Choose two.)
A. enforces standardization on a single hypervisor product
B. provides self service for hybrid resources
C. management of heterogeneous SAN solutions
D. secure connectivity between public and private Clouds
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 37
Which option describes what the use of no_root_squash does in an NFS environment?
A. It causes the NFS share to be mounted by a non-root user and is required for hypervisors that utilize RBAC for users.
B. It allows a NFS share to be mounted and written to as the root user by the hypervisor.
C. It allows a NFS share to be mounted by root, but all subsequent writes are as a non-root user.
D. It allows a NFS share to be mounted by a non-root user and all subsequent writes are as a non-root user.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 38
Which of the following best describes the order of operations of FCoE Initialization Protocol?
A. VLAN Discovery, FCF Discovery, FLOG I/F Discovery, FC Command
B. VLAN Discovery, FCF Discovery, PLOGI Discovery, FLOG I/F Discovery
C. FCF Discovery, PLOGI Discovery, FLOG I/F Discovery
D. VLAN Discovery, FCF Discovery, FLOG I/F Discovery
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 39
What are the key features of UCS?
A. 10 Gigabit unified network fabric, virtualization optimization, unified management, service profiles, flexible IO options
B. Gigabit network , virtualization optimization, unified management, service profiles, flexible IO options
C. 10 Gigabit unified network fabric, virtualization hardware, unified management, service profiles, performance IO options
D. 10 Gigabit unified network fabric, virtualization optimization, unified management, service profiles, performance IO options
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 40
Which three options are Common Cloud characteristics? (Choose three.)
A. single tenancy
B. elasticity
C. ubiquitous network access
D. metered service
E. QoS
Correct Answer: BCD

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642-732 dumps
QUESTION 1
A new client has contacted you to design a WLAN solution for a new 30-foot high-bay warehouse that will use high-lift electric forklifts. The warehouse is currently empty except for storage racks. The customer is planning to continue to use their existing wireless barcode scanners and also deploy wireless IP phones for communication. Which four issues do you need to consider prior to performing the site survey? (Choose four.)
A. Which protocol do the wireless barcode scanners and IP phones need to use?
B. What is the proximity to other warehouses?
C. Which types of goods will be stored in the warehouse and what is the expected average warehouse capacity?
D. Do any planned WLC locations exceed 100 meter cable distances?
E. Is there sufficient clearance between the roof and the top of the racks for placing APs?
F. What is the expected humidity level in the warehouse on average during the year?
G. Are there any secure enclosures that use chain-link fence that will require wireless access?
Correct Answer: ACEG

QUESTION 2
What is the result of a Cisco 1250 AP deployed for 802.11a/b/g/n using optimized power (16.8 W) with software version 7.0?
A. One spatial stream per radio
B. One spatial stream on 2.4 GHz and two spatial streams on 5 GHz
C. One spatial steam on 5 GHz and two spatial streams on 2.4 GHz
D. Reduced power on both radios
E. Reduced power on 2.4 GHz radio only
F. Reduced power on 5 GHz radio only
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 3
Which wireless tool would be most useful in planning a WLAN solution prior to performing a site survey?
A. Ekahau Survey
B. Air Magnet Survey
C. Air Magnet Wi-Fi Analyzer
D. Cisco Spectrum Expert
E. Cisco WCS
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.
642-732 dumps
After performing a Layer 1 survey using Cisco Spectrum Expert, what is the result indicated by the visual screen? 642-732 dumps
A. Normal 802.11g activity
B. Microwave oven interference
C. Video camera interference
D. Bluetooth device interference
E. RF jammer
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
642-732 dumps
Select and Place:
642-732 dumps
Correct Answer:
642-732 dumps
QUESTION 6
Which two types of information should be included in the installation inventory portion of the postinstallation report?(Choose two.)
A. All AP, controller, and MSE administrator credentials
B. The number and type of all WLAN clients and tags
C. The names, locations, IP addresses, MAC addresses, etc. for every AP, controller, and MSE in the WLAN
D. Results of the coverage audit performed with the site survey mapping tool
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 7
A customer has requested site surveys for data, voice, video, and location services for their location. The customer will be using RFID tags extensively. Which type of site survey should be conducted?
A. data
B. voice
C. video
D. location-based services
E. bridging
F. multi-survey
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
An engineer is performing a site survey for a 5 GHz mesh wireless network. The customer requires 300 Mbps data rates per radio, 2×3 MIMO technology, and legacy beamforming.
What Cisco access point should be recommended?
A. 1510
B. 1522
C. 1524
D. 1552
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.
642-732 dumps
After performing a Layer 1 survey using Cisco Spectrum Expert, what is the result indicated by the visual screen? 642-732 dumps
A. Normal 802.11b activity
B. Normal 802.11g activity
C. Microwave oven interference
D. Video camera interference
E. Bluetooth device interference
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 10
An engineer wants to provide coverage between warehouse shelving stocked with bulk metal materials.
What antenna would be adequate for performing this survey?
A. 5.5 dBi omni down tilt
B. 17 dBi grid
C. 2.2 dBi omni
D. 8.5 dBi patch
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
What is a typical attenuation value for a cinder block wall?
A. 3dB
B. 4dB
C. 6dB
D. 12dB
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
A Cisco engineer is troubleshooting a Cisco 1250 series 802.11n access point with a maximum throughput on 2.4 GHz that is limited to 72 Mbps. Why might the AP be operating in a limited capacity?
A. the switch providing PoE supports 802.3af
B. the switch providing PoE supports 802.3at
C. the 2.4 GHz bandwidth is 20 MHz wide
D. the 2.4 GHz is 40 MHz wide
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
What RF phenomenon results from a presence of metallic I-beams, conveyor belts, chain- link fences, and metallic shelves found in a warehousing environment?
A. multipath
B. free path loss
C. absorption
D. scattering
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
An engineer is planning for a 24 Mbps data rate for a new installation. If the environment and other factors are not taken into consideration, what is the coverage area from the AP?
A. 40 feet
B. 80 feet
C. 100 feet
D. 150 feet
E. 225 feet
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
What two tools can an engineer use to verify RF data rates and coverage after installation? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco WCS Planning Mode
B. Cisco WCS Location Readiness Tool
C. Cisco WCS Voice Audit Report
D. AirMagnet Passive Survey Mode
E. AirMagnet Active Survey Mode
F. AirMagnet Planner Mode
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 16
Which two are impacts of having 802.11b clients in an 802.11g network? 642-732 dumps (Choose two.)
A. 802.11b clients will degrade throughput of 802.11g clients
B. 802.11b is more susceptible to multipath than 802.11g
C. 802.11b operates over fewer channels than 802.11g
D. 802.11b uses 20 MHz wide channels, 802.11g uses 40 MHz wide channels
E. 802.11b is more susceptible to attenuation than 802.11g
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 17
Which hop count is Cisco’s maximum recommended for a client in a wireless Mesh network?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
In an outdoor mesh environment, which is the purpose of deploying one of the access points relatively higher than the others?
A. The MAPs need to be mounted higher than the first hop RAPs so that the mesh units can accomplish radio line of sight.
B. Elevated MAPs are connected to the switches, providing better bandwidth that all the RAPs utilize for client connectivity.
C. An AP deployed as a RAP needs to be mounted in a higher elevation to provide clear connectivity to first hop MAPs.
D. Root APs need clear line of sight to provide the best bandwidth to all of its RAPs, so the higher the better.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
An engineer is conducting a site calibration using Cisco WCS. The current network has 802.11a, 802.11b, 802.11g, and 802.11n devices. How many times should the calibration be done?
A. once for each band
B. once for each protocol
C. once per deployment
D. once using each data collection type
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
An engineer notes that some areas of a floor fail when using the Location Readiness Tool in Cisco WCS.
What criteria must be met for a point to be considered location ready?
A. one AP in each quadrant, with three less than 70 feet away
B. one AP in three quadrants, with two less than 70 feet away
C. one AP in each quadrant, with two less than 70 feet away
D. one AP in three quadrants, with one less than 70 feet away
Correct Answer: A

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210-260 dumps
QUESTION 1
In what type of attack does an attacker virtually change a device\’s burned-in address in an attempt to circumvent access lists and mask the device\’s true identity?
A. gratuitous ARP
B. ARP poisoning
C. IP spoofing
D. MAC spoofing
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit.
210-260 dumps
While troubleshooting site-to-site VPN, you issued the show crypto ipsec sa command. What does the given output show?
A. IPSec Phase 2 is established between 10.1.1.1 and 10.1.1.5.
B. ISAKMP security associations are established between 10.1.1.5 and 10.1.1.1.
C. IKE version 2 security associations are established between 10.1.1.1 and 10.1.1.5.
D. IPSec Phase 2 is down due to a mismatch between encrypted and decrypted packets.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which statement correctly describes the function of a private VLAN?
A. A private VLAN partitions the Layer 2 broadcast domain of a VLAN into subdomains
B. A private VLAN partitions the Layer 3 broadcast domain of a VLAN into subdomains
C. A private VLAN enables the creation of multiple VLANs using one broadcast domain
D. A private VLAN combines the Layer 2 broadcast domains of many VLANs into one major broadcast domain
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
What are two ways to prevent eavesdropping when you perform device-management tasks? 210-260 dumps (Choose two.)
A. Use an SSH connection.
B. Use SNMPv3.
C. Use out-of-band management.
D. Use SNMPv2.
E. Use in-band management.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.
210-260 dumps
What are two effects of the given command? (Choose two.)
A. It configures authentication to use AES 256.
B. It configures authentication to use MD5 HMAC.
C. It configures authorization use AES 256.
D. It configures encryption to use MD5 HMAC.
E. It configures encryption to use AES 256.
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 6
SYN flood attack is a form of ?
A. Denial of Service attack
B. Man in the middle attack
C. Spoofing attack
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
You have been tasked with blocking user access to websites that violate company policy, but the sites use dynamic IP addresses. What is the best practice for URL filtering to solve the problem?
A. Enable URL filtering and use URL categorization to block the websites that violate company policy.
B. Enable URL filtering and create a blacklist to block the websites that violate company policy.
C. Enable URL filtering and create a whitelist to block the websites that violate company policy.
D. Enable URL filtering and use URL categorization to allow only the websites that company policy allows users to access.
E. Enable URL filtering and create a whitelist to allow only the websites that company policy allows users to access.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which firewall configuration must you perform to allow traffic to flow in both directions between two zones? 210-260 dumps
A. You must configure two zone pairs, one for each direction.
B. You can configure a single zone pair that allows bidirectional traffic flows for any zone.
C. You can configure a single zone pair that allows bidirectional traffic flows for any zone except the self zone.
D. You can configure a single zone pair that allows bidirectional traffic flows only if the source zone is the less secure zone.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which statements about smart tunnels on a Cisco firewall are true? (Choose two.)
A. Smart tunnels can be used by clients that do not have administrator privileges
B. Smart tunnels support all operating systems
C. Smart tunnels offer better performance than port forwarding
D. Smart tunnels require the client to have the application installed locally
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit.
210-260 dumps
What type of firewall would use the given configuration line?
A. a stateful firewall
B. a personal firewall
C. a proxy firewall
D. an application firewall
E. a stateless firewall
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
A proxy firewall protects against which type of attack?
A. cross-site scripting attack
B. worm traffic
C. port scanning
D. DDoS attacks
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Which Sourcefire event action should you choose if you want to block only malicious traffic from a particular end user?
A. Allow with inspection
B. Allow without inspection
C. Block
D. Trust
E. Monitor
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Which statement about zone-based firewall configuration is true? 210-260 dumps
A. Traffic is implicitly denied by default between interfaces the same zone
B. Traffic that is desired to or sourced from the self-zone is denied by default
C. The zone must be configured before a can be assigned
D. You can assign an interface to more than one interface
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
What VPN feature allows traffic to exit the security appliance through the same interface it entered?
A. hairpinning
B. NAT
C. NAT traversal
D. split tunneling
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
You have implemented a Sourcefire IPS and configured it to block certain addresses utilizing Security Intelligence IP Address Reputation. A user calls and is not able to access a certain IP address. What action can you take to allow the user access to the IP address?
A. Create a whitelist and add the appropriate IP address to allow the traffic.
B. Create a custom blacklist to allow the traffic.
C. Create a user based access control rule to allow the traffic.
D. Create a network based access control rule to allow the traffic.
E. Create a rule to bypass inspection to allow the traffic.
Correct Answer: A

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCDP
Exam Name: Designing Cisco Network Service Architectures
Exam Code: 300-320
Total Questions: 415 Q&As
300-320 dumps
QUESTION 1
A network design engineer has been asked to reduce the size of the SPT on an IS-IS broadcast network.
Which option should the engineer recommend to accomplish this task?
A. Configure the links as point-to-multipoint.
B. Configure QoS in all links.
C. Configure a new NET address.
D. Configure the links as point-to-point.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which option describes why duplicate IP addresses reside on the same network in Cisco network design?
A. HSRP designed network
B. using Cisco ACE in active/passive mode
C. VRRP designed network
D. running multiple routing protocols
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which option describes why duplicate IP addresses reside on the same network in Cisco network design?
A. HSRP designed network
B. using Cisco ACE in active/passive mode
C. VRRP designed network
D. running multiple routing protocols
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which two benefits are achieved if a network is designed properly with a structured addressing scheme? 300-320 dumps (Choose two.)
A. efficient ACLs
B. improved redundancy
C. hardened security
D. easier troubleshooting
E. added resiliency
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 5
Which protocol should be configured if a network administrator wants to configure multiple physical gateways to participate simultaneously in packet forwarding?
A. HSRP
B. VRRP
C. GLBP
D. VTP
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
300-320 dumps
Select and Place:
300-320 dumps
Correct Answer:
300-320 dumps
QUESTION 7
Which two types of authentication mechanisms can be used by VRRP for security? (Choose two.)
A. SHA-1
B. MD5
C. SHA-256
D. plaintext authentication
E. PEAP
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 8
Which Layer 2 messaging protocol maintains VLAN configuration consistency?
A. VTP
B. VSS
C. LLDP
D. CDP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which two options are storage topologies? 300-320 dumps (Choose two.)
A. WAS
B. DAS
C. CAS
D. NAS
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 10
Which algorithm does IS-IS use to determine the shortest path through a network?
A. Bellman-Ford routing algorithm
B. Johnson’s algorithm
C. Dijkstra’s algorithm
D. Floyd-Warshall algorithm
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Which two physical components can enable high availability on a Cisco 6500 device? (Choose two.)
A. dual supervisor modules
B. bundled Ethernet Interconnects
C. line modules with DFCs
D. redundant power supplies
E. VSS interlink cables
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 12
A company implemented VoIP in a campus network and now wants a consistent method to implement using AutoQoS. Which two parameters must be considered before AutoQoS is configured? (Choose two.)
A. CEF must be enabled.
B. AutoQoS is available only on routers.
C. Traffic discovery must be performed manually.
D. No service policy can be applied already.
E. Manual traffic analysis must be performed.
Correct Answer: AD

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNA Cyber Ops
Exam Name: Understanding Cisco Cybersecurity Fundamentals
Exam Code: 210-250
Total Questions: 80 Q&As
210-250 dumps
QUESTION 1
Which statement indicates something that can cause an inbound PSTN call to an H.323 gateway that is configured in Cisco Unified Communications Manager to fail to ring an IP phone?
A. The gateway is not registered in Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
B. The gateway IP address that is configured in Cisco Unified Communications Manager does not match the IP address that is configured at the gateway in the h323-gateway voip bind srcaddr command.
C. The Cisco Unified Communications Manager does not have a matching route pattern to match the called number.
D. The gateway is missing the command allow-connections h323 to h323 under the voice service voip configuration.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
In a SAF deployment, the registration status looks correct and the learned patterns appear reachable, but calls are not routed. What is causing this issue?
A. network connection failure between the SAF Forwarder and Cisco Unified Communications Manager
B. network connection failure between the primary and backup SAF Forwarders
C. TCP connection failure with the primary SAF Forwarder
D. TCP connection failure with the backup SAF Forwarder
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which two statements indicate something that can cause an IP phone to fail roaming when device mobility has been configured?
(Choose two.)
A. Device Mobility Mode is set to Off in the Cisco Unified Communications Manager service parameters while the device mobility configuration on the phone is set to default.
B. No device mobility groups have been configured.
C. No locations have been configured and assigned to the device pools.
D. No physical locations have been configured and assigned to the device pools.
E. No device mobility-related information settings were configured under the device pools.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 4
You enabled Cisco Unified Mobile Connect for a user, but the user is unable to send calls to a mobile phone from the desk phone. 210-250 dumps What do you do to resolve the issue?
A. Restart the phone, and verify that the key is present.
B. Under User Management > User, make sure that the Mobility option is selected.
C. Make sure that the phone is subscribed to Extension Mobility.
D. Add the mobility key to the softkey template that the phone is currently using.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Which statement is correct regarding Media Redundancy Protocol (MRP) in a ring of ProfiNET devices?
A. When a link fault is detected, MRP rings must converge in less than 100 milliseconds
B. MRP defines two device roles, Media Redundancy Master and Media Redundancy Client
C. MRP can support rings of up to 250 devices
D. MRP is only supported on network switches
Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Which statement is true concerning the data center access layer design?
A. The access layer in the data center is typically built at Layer 3, which allows for better sharing of services across multiple servers.
B. With Layer 2 access, the default gateway for the servers can be configured at the access or aggregation layer.
C. A dual-homing NIC requires a VLAN or trunk between the two access switches to support the dual IP addresses on the two server links to two separate switches.
D. The access layer is normally not required, as dual homing is standard from the servers to the aggregation layer.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which CLI command monitors ILS replication progress?
A. utils ils findxnode
B. utils ils show peer info
C. utils ils showpeerinfo
D. utils ils lookup
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
VLAN 3 is not yet configured on your switch. What happens if you set the switchport access vlan 3 command in interface configuration mode?
A. The command is rejected.
B. The port turns amber.
C. The command is accepted and the respective VLAN is added to vlan.dat.
D. The command is accepted and you must configure the VLAN manually.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
A dynamically routed private line and a statically routed IPsec tunnel connect two offices. What routing configuration prefers the IPsec tunnel only in the event of a private line failure?
A. floating static entry
B. EIGRP variance
C. bandwidth metric
D. OSPF maximum paths
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Cisco Unified Mobile Connect has been enabled, but users are not able to switch an in-progress call from their mobile phone to their desk phone. 210-250 dumps You find out that the Resume softkey option does not appear on the desk phone after users hang up the call on their mobile phone. What do you do to resolve this issue?
A. Issue the progress_ind progress disable command in the gateway.
B. Issue the voice call disc-pi-off command in the gateway.
C. Enable mobile connect on the user profile.
D. Assign Resume softkey on the desk phone.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
When a user attempts to log out from Cisco Extension Mobility service by pressing the services button and selecting the Cisco Extension Mobility service, the user is not able to log out. What is causing this issue?
A. The Cisco Extension Mobility service has not been configured on the phone.
B. The user device profile is not subscribed to the Cisco Extension Mobility service.
C. The CTI service is not running.
D. The logout URL that is defined for the Cisco Extension Mobility service is incorrect or does not exist under the IP Phone Services configuration.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
During a business-to-business video call through the Cisco Expressway solution, the internal endpoint can call out to the remote endpoint on the Internet, but it does not receive audio or video. The remote endpoint receives both audio and video. What is causing the issue?
A. The Cisco Expressway does not have a Rich Media Session license.
B. The firewall is blocking SIP signaling.
C. The Cisco Unified Communications Manager is not configured for business-to-business calling.
D. The firewall is blocking inbound RTP ports.
E. The Advanced Networking option is not installed on the Expressway Edge.
Correct Answer: D

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: ICND1
Exam Name: Cisco Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1 (ICND1 v3.0)
Exam Code: 100-105
Total Questions: 332 Q&As
100-105 dumps
QUESTION 1
What is one requirement for interfaces to run IPv6?
A. An IPv6 address must be configured on the interface.
B. An IPv4 address must be configured.
C. Stateless autoconfiguration must be enabled after enabling IPv6 on the interface.
D. IPv6 must be enabled with the ipv6 enable command in global configuration mode.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Some routers have been configured with default routes. What are some of the advantages of using default routes? (Choose two)
A. They establish routes that will never go down.
B. They keep routing tables small.
C. They require a great deal of CPU power.
D. They allow connectivity to remote networks that are not in the routing table
E. They direct traffic from the internet into corporate networks.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 3
Which two of these statements are true of IPv6 address representation? 100-105 dumps (Choose two.)
A. There are four types of IPv6 addresses: unicast, multicast, anycast, and broadcast.
B. A single interface may be assigned multiple IPv6 addresses of any type.
C. Every IPv6 interface contains at least one loopback address.
D. The first 64 bits represent the dynamically created interface ID.
E. Leading zeros in an IPv6 16 bit hexadecimal field are mandatory.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 4
Which option is the default switch port port-security violation mode?
A. shutdown
B. protect
C. shutdown vlan
D. restrict
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
A user cannot reach any web sites on the Internet, but others in the department are not having a problem.
What is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. IP routing is not enabled.
B. The default gateway is not in the same subnet.
C. A DNS server address is not reachable by the PC.
D. A DHCP server address is not reachable by the PC.
E. NAT has not been configured on the router that connects to the Internet.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
ROUTER# show ip route
192.168.12.0/24 is variably subnetted, 9 subnets, 3 masks
C 192.168.12.64 /28 is directly connected, Loopback1
C 192.168.12.32 /28 is directly connected, Ethernet0
C 192.168.12.48 /28 is directly connected, Loopback0
O 192.168.12.236 /30 [110/128] via 192.168.12.233, 00:35:36, Serial0C 192.168.12.232 /30 is directly connected, Serial0 O 192.168.12.245 /30 [110/782] via 192.168.12.233, 00:35:36, Serial0
O 192.168.12.240 /30 [110/128] via 192.168.12.233, 00:35:36, Serial0
O 192.168.12.253 /30 [110/782] via 192.168.12.233, 00:35:37, Serial0
O 192.168.12.249 /30 [110/782] via 192.168.12.233, 00:35:37, Serial0
O 192.168.12.240/30 [110/128] via 192.168.12.233, 00:35:36, Serial 0
To what does the 128 refer to in the router output above?
A. OSPF cost
B. OSPF priority
C. OSPF hop count
D. OSPF ID number
E. OSPF administrative distance
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which route source code represents the routing protocol with a default administrative distance of 90 in the routing table? 100-105 dumps
A. S
B. E
C. D
D. R
E. O
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
A problem with network connectivity has been observed. It is suspected that the cable connected to switch port Fa0/9 on Switch1 is disconnected. What would be an effect of this cable being disconnected?
A. Host B would not be able to access the server in VLAN9 until the cable is reconnected.
B. Communication between VLAN3 and the other VLANs would be disabled.
C. The transfer of files from Host B to the server in VLAN9 would be significantly slower.
D. For less than a minute, Host B would not be able to access the server in VLAN9. Then normal network function would resume.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Which method does a connected trunk port use to tag VLAN traffic?
A. IEEE 802 1w
B. IEEE 802 1D
C. IEEE 802 1Q
D. IEEE 802 1p
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Which destination IP address can a host use to send one message to multiple devices across different subnets?
A. 172.20.1.0
B. 127.0.0.1
C. 192.168.0.119
D. 239.255.0.1
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
A receiving host has failed to receive all of the segments that it should acknowledge. 100-105 dumps What can the host do to improve the reliability of this communication session?
A. decrease the window size
B. use a different source port for the session
C. decrease the sequence number
D. obtain a new IP address from the DHCP server
E. start a new session using UDP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Why would a network administrator configure port security on a switch?
A. to prevent unauthorized Telnet access to a switch port
B. to prevent unauthorized hosts from accessing the LAN
C. to limit the number of Layer 2 broadcasts on a particular switch port
D. block unauthorized access to the switch management interfaces
Correct Answer: B

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Cisco

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: ICND2
Exam Name: Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2 v3.0)
Exam Code: 200-105
Total Questions: 204 Q&As
200-105 dumps
QUESTION 1
Which EIGRP for IPv6 command can you enter to view the link-local addresses of the neighbors of a device?
A. show ipv6 eigrp 20 interfaces
B. show ipv6 route eigrp
C. show ipv6 eigrp neighbors
D. show ip eigrp traffic
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which statement about QoS default behavior is true?
A. Ports are untrusted by default.
B. VoIP traffic is passed without being tagged.
C. Video traffic is passed with a well-known DSCP value of 46.
D. Packets are classified internally with an environment.
E. Packets that arrive with a tag are untagged at the edge of an administrative domain.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.
200-105 dumps
Why has this switch not been elected the root bridge for VLAN1? 200-105 dumps
A. It has more than one interface that is connected to the root network segment.
B. It is running RSTP while the elected root bridge is running 802.1d spanning tree.
C. It has a higher MAC address than the elected root bridge.
D. It has a higher bridge ID than the elected root bridge.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
A network administrator has configured access list 173 to prevent Telnet and ICMP traffic from reaching a server with the address of 192.168.13.26. Which commands can the administrator issue to verify that the access list is working properly? (Choose three.)
A. Router# ping 192.168.13.26
B. Router# debug access-list 173
C. Router# show open ports 192.168.13.26
D. Router# show access-lists
E. Router# show ip interface
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.
200-105 dumps
At the end of an RSTP election process, which access layer switch port will assume the discarding role?
A. Switch3, port fa0/1
B. Switch3, port fa0/12
C. Switch4, port fa0/11
D. Switch4, port fa0/2
E. Switch3, port Gi0/1
F. Switch3, port Gi0/2
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.
200-105 dumps
A packet with a source IP address of 192.168.2.4 and a destination IP address of 10.1.1.4 arrives at the AcmeB router. 200-105 dumps What action does the router take?
A. forwards the received packet out the Serial0/0 interface
B. forwards a packet containing an EIGRP advertisement out the Serial0/1 interface
C. forwards a packet containing an ICMP message out the FastEthemet0/0 interface
D. forwards a packet containing an ARP request out the FastEthemet0/1 interface
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Which type of EIGRP route entry describes a feasible successor?
A. a backup route, stored in the routing table
B. a primary route, stored in the routing table
C. a backup route, stored in the topology table
D. a primary route, stored in the topology table
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
What can be done to secure the virtual terminal interfaces on a router? (Choose two.)
A. Administratively shut down the interface.
B. Physically secure the interface.
C. Create an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces with the access-group command.
D. Configure a virtual terminal password and login process.
E. Enter an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces using the access-class command.
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 9
A network administrator is troubleshooting an EIGRP problem on a router and needs to confirm the IP addresses of the devices with which the router has established adjacency. The retransmit interval and the queue counts for the adjacent routers also need to be checked. What command will display the required information?
A. Router# show ip eigrp adjacency
B. Router# show ip eigrp topology
C. Router#show ip eigrp interfaces
D. Router#show ip eigrp neighbors
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit.
200-105 dumps
How will the router handle a packet destined for 192.0.2.156?
A. The router will drop the packet.
B. The router will return the packet to its source.
C. The router will forward the packet via Serial2.
D. The router will forward the packet via either Serial0 or Serial1.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
It has become necessary to configure an existing serial interface to accept a second Frame Relay virtual circuit. Which of the following are required to solve this? 200-105 dumps (Choose three)
A. configure static frame relay map entries for each subinterface network.
B. remove the ip address from the physical interface
C. create the virtual interfaces with the interface command
D. configure each subinterface with its own IP address
E. disable split horizon to prevent routing loops between the subinterface networks
F. encapsulate the physical interface with multipoint PPP
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit
200-105 dumps
Assume that all of the router interfaces are operational and configured correctly. How will router R2 be affected by the configuration of R1 that is shown in the exhibit?
A. Router R2 will not form a neighbor relationship with R1.
B. Router R2 will obtain a full routing table, including a default route, from R1.
C. R2 will obtain OSPF updates from R1, but will not obtain a default route from R1.
D. R2 will not have a route for the directly connected serial network, but all other directly connected networks will be present, as well as the two Ethernet networks connected to R1.
Correct Answer: A

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Cisco

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNA
Exam Name: CCNA Cisco Certified Network Associate CCNA (v3.0)
Exam Code: 200-125
Total Questions: 966 Q&As
200-125 dumps
QUESTION 1
A router has learned three possible routes that could be used to reach a destination network. One route is from EIGRP and has a composite metric of 20514560. Another route is from OSPF with a metric of 782.
The last is from RIPv2 and has a metric of 4. Which route or routes will the router install in the routing table?
A. the OSPF route
B. the EIGRP route
C. the RIPv2 route
D. all three routes
E. the OSPF and RIPv2 routes
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
What will be the result if the following configuration commands are implemented on a Cisco switch? 200-125 dumps
Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security
Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky
A. A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the startup-configuration file.
B. A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the running-configuration file.
C. A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the VLAN database.
D. Statically configured MAC addresses are saved in the startup-configuration file if frames from that address are received.
E. Statically configured MAC addresses are saved in the running-configuration file if frames from that address are received.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
A router has two Fast Ethernet interfaces and needs to connect to four VLANs in the local network. How can you accomplish this task, using the fewest physical interfaces and without decreasing network performance?
A. Use a hub to connect the four VLANS with a Fast Ethernet interface on the router.
B. Add a second router to handle the VLAN traffic.
C. Add two more Fast Ethernet interfaces.
D. Implement a router-on-a-stick configuration.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
What does a Layer 2 switch use to decide where to forward a received frame?
A. source MAC address
B. source IP address
C. source switch port
D. destination IP address
E. destination port address
F. destination MAC address
Correct Answer: F

QUESTION 5
In an Ethernet network, under what two scenarios can devices transmit? (Choose two.)
A. when they receive a special token
B. when there is a carrier
C. when they detect no other devices are sending
D. when the medium is idle
E. when the server grants access
Correct Answer: C,D

QUESTION 6
A network administrator is verifying the configuration of a newly installed host by establishing an FTP connection to a remote server. 200-125 dumps What is the highest layer of the protocol stack that the network administrator is using for this operation?
A. application
B. presentation
C. session
D. transport
E. internet
F. data link
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Three switches are connected to one another via trunk ports. Assuming the default switch configuration, which switch is elected as the root bridge for the spanning-tree instance of VLAN 1?
A. the switch with the highest MAC address
B. the switch with the lowest MAC address
C. the switch with the highest IP address
D. the switch with the lowest IP address
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit. The Bigtime router is unable to authenticate to the Littletime router. What is the cause of the problem?
200-125 dumps
A. The usernames are incorrectly configured on the two routers.
B. The passwords do not match on the two routers.
C. CHAP authentication cannot be used on a serial interface.
D. The routers cannot be connected from interface S0/0 to interface S0/0.
E. With CHAP authentication, one router must authenticate to another router. The routers cannot be configured to authenticate to each other.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Which Layer 2 protocol encapsulation type supports synchronous and asynchronous circuits and has builtin security mechanisms
A. HDLC
B. PPP
C. X.25
D. Frame Relay
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Which three statements accurately describe Layer 2 Ethernet switches? (Choose three.)
A. Spanning Tree Protocol allows switches to automatically share VLAN information.
B. Establishing VLANs increases the number of broadcast domains.
C. Switches that are configured with VLANs make forwarding decisions based on both Layer 2 and Layer 3 address information.
D. Microsegmentation decreases the number of collisions on the network.
E. In a properly functioning network with redundant switched paths, each switched segment will contain one root bridge with all its ports in the forwarding state. All other switches in that broadcast domain will have only one root port.
F. If a switch receives a frame for an unknown destination, it uses ARP to resolve the address.
Correct Answer: B,D,E

QUESTION 11
A network interface port has collision detection and carrier sensing enabled on a shared twisted pair network. 200-125 dumps From this statement, what is known about the network interface port?
A. This is a 10 Mb/s switch port.
B. This is a 100 Mb/s switch port.
C. This is an Ethernet port operating at half duplex.
D. This is an Ethernet port operating at full duplex.
E. This is a port on a network interface card in a PC.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
What will happen if a private IP address is assigned to a public interface connected to an ISP?
A. Addresses in a private range will be not be routed on the Internet backbone.
B. Only the ISP router will have the capability to access the public network.
C. The NAT process will be used to translate this address to a valid IP address.
D. A conflict of IP addresses happens, because other public routers can use the same range.
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
An organization uses Exchange Online. You enable mailbox audit logging for all mailboxes.
User1 reports that her mailbox has been accessed by someone else. 70-346 pdf
You need to determine whether someone other than the mailbox owner has accessed the mailbox.
What should you do?
A. Run the following Windows PowerShell command: Search-MailboxAuditLog -Identity User1 -LogonTypes Owner -ShowDetails
B. In the Exchange Admin Center, navigate to the Auditing section of the Protection page. Run a non-owner mailbox access report
C. Run the following Windows PowerShell command: New-AdminAuditLogSearch -Identity User1 -LogonTypes Owner -ShowDetails
D. In the Exchange Admin Center, navigate to the Auditing section of the Compliance Management page. Run a non-owner mailbox access report.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
A company plans to deploy an Office 365 tenant. You have two servers named FS1 and FS2 that have the Federation Service Proxy role service installed.
You must deploy Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) on Windows Server 2012.
You need to configure name resolution for FS1 and FS2.
What should you do?
A. On FS1 and FS2, add the cluster DNS name and IP address of the federation server farm to the hosts file.
B. On FS1 only, add the cluster DNS name and IP address of the federation server farm to the hosts file.
C. On FS1 only, add the cluster NetBIOS name and IP address of the federation server farm to the LMHOSTS file.
D. On FS1 and FS2, add the cluster NetBIOS name and IP address of the federation server farm to the LMHOSTS file.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
The legal department in your organization creates standardized disclaimers for all of their email messages. 70-346 dumps
The disclaimers explain that any transmissions that are received in error should be reported back to the sender. You track any confidential documents that are attached to email messages.
Your security team reports that an employee may have mistakenly sent an email message that contained confidential information.
You need to identify whether the email message included the disclaimer and whether it contained confidential information.
Which two options should you configure? To answer, select the appropriate objects in the answer area.
Hot Area:
70-346 dumps
Correct Answer:
70-346 dumps
QUESTION 4
An organization plans to deploy Exchange Online.
You must support all Exchange Online features.
You need to create the required DNS entries. 70-346 pdf
Which two DNS entries should you create? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. A
B. SRV
C. MX
D. CNAME
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 5
An organization prepares to implement Office 365.
You have the following requirements:
Gather information about the requirements for the Office 365 implementation. Use a supported tool that provides the most comprehensive information about the current environment.
You need to determine the organization’s readiness for the Office 365 implementation.
What should you do?
A. Run the Windows PowerShell cmdlet Get-MsolCompanylnformation.
B. Run the OnRamp for Office 365 tool.
C. Install the Windows Azure Active Directory Sync tool.
D. Run the Office 365 Deployment Readiness Tool.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
An organization is migrating from an on-premises Exchange organization to Office 365 tenantUsers report that they cannot see the free/busy information for other users.
You need to determine why free/busy information does not display. 70-346 dumps
Which two Windows PowerShell cmdlets should you run? Each correct answer presents a complete solution
A. Get-OrganizationRelationship
B. Get-SharingPolicy
C. Get-CsMeetingConfiguration
D. Get-CsClientPolicy
E. Get-lntraOrganizationConnector
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 7
An organization plans to migrate to Office 365. You use Azure AD Connect.
Several users will not migrate to Office 365. You must exclude these users from synchronization. All users must continue to authenticate against the on-premises Active Directory.
You need to synchronize the remaining users.
Which three actions should you perform to ensure users excluded from migration are not synchornized?
Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Run the Windows PowerShell command Set-MsolDirSyncEnabled -EnableDirSync $false
B. Perform a full synchronization.
C. Populate an attribute for each user account.
D. Configure the connection filter.
E. Disable the user accounts in Active Directory.
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 8
Contoso Ltd. uses Office 365 for collaboration. You are implementing Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) for single sign-on (SSO) with Office 365 services. The environment contains an Active Directory domain and an AD FS federation server.
You need to ensure that the environment is prepared for the AD FS setup.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Configure Active Directory to use the domain contoso.com.
B. Configure Active Directory to use the domain contoso.local.
C. Create a server authentication certificate for the federation server by using fs.contoso.com as the subject name and subject alternative name.
D. Create a server authentication certificate for the federation server by using fs.contoso.local as the subject name and subject alternative name.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 9
Your company has a hybrid deployment of Office 365. You need to verify whether free/busy information sharing with external users is configured.
Which Windows PowerShell cmdlet should you use?
A. Test-OutlookConnectivity
B. Test-FederationTrust
C. Get-OrganizationRelationship
D. Get-MSOLDomainFederationSettings
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Your company purchases an Office 365 plan. The company has an Active Directory Domain Services domain. 70-346 dumps
User1 must manage Office 365 delegation for the company.
You need to ensure that User1 can assign administrative roles to other users.
What should you do?
A. Use a password administrator account to assign the role to User1.
B. Use a user management administrator account to assign the role to User1.
C. Create an Office 365 tenant and assign User1 the global administrator role.
D. Create an Office 365 tenant and assign User1 the password administrator role.
Correct Answer: C

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